(A25)CPL :00001 :0 :1 C1CG ( A )/ ( B ) X ( C )/ :00002 :0 :1 A2 ( A ) ( B ) ( C ) :00003 :0 :1 A3( A ) ( B ) ( C ) :00004 :0 :1 C4( A ) ( B ) ( C ) :00005 :0 :1 C5( A ) ( B )/ ( C )/ :00006 :0 :1 C6/ ( A ) ( B ) ( C ) :00007 :0 :1 A7/( A ) ( B ) ( C ) :00008 :0 :11

B8( A ) ( B ) ( C ) :00009 :0 :1 C9/( A ) ( B ) ( C ) :00010 :0 :1 B10/( A ) ( B ) ( C ) :00012 :0 :1 C11( A ) ( B ) ( C ) :00013 :0 :1 C12( A ) ( B ) ( C ) :00014 :0 :1 A13( A )/ ( B )/ ( C ) :00016 :0 :1 C14( A ) ( B ) ( C ) :00017 :0 :1 C15( A ) ( B ) ( C )/ :00018 :0 :1 A16( A )/ ( B )/ ( C ) / :00019 :0 :12

B17 OFF ( A ) (cut-off) ( B )(magneto) OFF ( C ) :00020 :0 :1 C18 OFF ( A ) ( B )(magneto) ( C ) :00021 :0 :1 C19(magneto) ( A ) ( B ) BOTH ( C )/ :00022 :0 :1 A20(magneto) ( A ) OFF ( B ) OFF ( C ) :00023 :0 :1 B21( A ) ( B ) ( C ) :00024 :0 :1 B22( A ) ( B ) ( C )/ :00025 :0 :1 A23( A ) ( B ) ( C ) :00026 :0 :1 B24(constant-speed) ( A )/ ( B )/ ( C )/3

:00027 :0 :1 A25(controllable-pitch)( A ) / ( B )/ ( C )/ :00028 :0 :1 B26(fixed-pitch) ( A ) ( B ) ( C ) :00029 :0 :1 C27( A ) (angle of incidence) ( B ) ( C ) :00030 :0 :1 C28(constant-speed) ( A ) ( B ) ( C ) :00031 :0 :1 C29(constant-speed) ( A ) ( B ) ( C ) :00032 :0 :1 C30 ( A ) ( B ) ( C ) :00033 :0 :1 B31(constant-speed) ( A ) ( B ) ( C ) 4

:00034 :0 :1 B32 VNE( A ) ( B ) ( C ) :00035 :0 :1 A33( A ) ( B ) ( C ) :00036 :0 :1 A34( A ) ( B ) ( C ) :00037 :0 :2 C35 ( A ) ( B ) ( C ) :00038 :0 :1 A36 ( A ) ( B ) ( C ) VLE :00039 :0 :1 C37( A ) ( B ) ( C )(maneuvering speed) :00040 :0 :1 A38( A ) ( B ) ( C ) :00041 :0 :1 C39( A ) ( B ) ( C )

5

:00042 :0 :2 B40(VOR)60 CDI 1/5 ( A )6 ( B )2 ( C )1 :00043 :0 :2 A41 FAA (VOR)+( A )4 ( B )6 ( C )8 :00044 :0 :2 C42(transponder) ( A )30 ( B )12 ( C ) 24 :00045 :0 :1 B43/( A )VS ( B ) VS1 ( C )VS0 :00046 :0 :1 A44/( A )VS ( B )VS1 ( C )VS0 :00047 :0 :1 A45 ( A )/ ( B ) ( C ) :00048 :0 :1 B46 CG ( A ) ( B ) ( C ) :00049 :0 :1 B47( A ) ( B ) ( C ) :00051 :0 :1 B48( A ) ( B ) ( C )

6

:00052 :0 :1 B49( A ) ( B ) ( C ) :00053 :0 :1 B50( A ) ( B ) ( C ) :00054 :0 :2 C51( A ) ( B ) ( C ) :00055 :0 :1 A52( A ) ( B ) ( C ) :00056 :0 :2 C53 ( A )30 ( B )45 ( C )60 :00057 :0 :2 C54(VOR) ( A )30 30 ( B )10 10 ( C )30 :00058 :0 :2 B55(VOR)( A ) (VOR) ( B ) ( C ) (VOR) :00060 :0 :2 C56 utility ( A ) ( B ) ( C )7

:00061 :0 :2 B57( A )100 ( B ) 100 ( C ) (progressive inspection system) :00062 :0 :2 B58 ( A ) ( B ) ( C )FAA :00063 :0 :2 A59( A ) ( B ) ( C ) 100 :00064 :0 :2 C60( A ) ( B ) ( C ) :00065 :0 :2 B61( A ) ( B ) ( C ) FAA :10001 :0 :2 A62?( A ) ( B ) ( C ) :10002 :0 :2 A63?( A ) ( B ) ( C ) :10003 :0 :2 B64?( A ) ( B ) ( C ) :10004 :0 :28

B65?( A ) ( B ) ( C ) :10005 :0 :1 C66?( A ) ( B ) ( C ) :10006 :0 :2 B67?( A ) ( B ) ( C ) :10007 :0 :2 C68?( A ) ( B ) ( C ) :10008 :0 :1 C69?( A ), ,, ( B ),,,, ( C ),,,, :10009 :0 :2 C70?( A ) ( B ) ( C ) :10010 :0 :2 C71?( A ) ( B ) ( C ) :10011 :0 :2 C72?( A ) ( B ) ( C ), :10012 :0 :1 C73?( A ) ( B ) ( C )9

:10013 :0 :2 A74?( A ) ( B ) ( C ) :10014 :0 :2 A75?( A ) ( B ) ( C ) :10015 :0 :2 C76?( A ) ( B ) ( C ) :10016 :0 :2 C77?( A ) ( B ) ( C ) :10017 :0 :2 B78?( A ) ( B ) ( C ) :10018 :0 :2 A79?( A ) ( B ) ( C ) :10019 :0 :1 B80?( A ) ( B ) ( C ) :10020 :0 :2 B81?( A ) ( B ) ( C ) :10021 :0 :2 B82?( A ) ( B ) ( C )

10

:10022 :0 :1 A83,? ( A ) ( B ) ( C ) :10023 :0 :2 C84?( A ) ( B ) ( C ) :10024 :0 :1 B85?( A ) ( B ) ( C ) :10025 :0 :2 C86,, ?( A ) ( B ) , ( C ) , :10026 :0 :2 A87?( A ) ( B ) ( C ) :10027 :0 :1 B88,?( A ) , ( B ), ( C ), :10028 :0 :1 C89?( A ) ( B ) ( C ) :10029 :0 :1 A90Zero fuel weight ?( A )basic operating weight plus payload. ( B )empty weight plus passengers and cargo. ( C )takeoff weight minus fuel to destination and alternate. :10030 :0 :2 A91?( A ) ( B )11

( C ), :10031 :0 :1 B92?( A ) ( B ) ( C ) :10032 :0 :1 C93?( A )Uplock switch. ( B )Downlock switch. ( C )Ground safety switch. :10033 :0 :2 B94?( A ) ( B ) ( C ) :10034 :0 :2 C95?( A ) ( B ) ( C ) :10035 :0 :2 B96,?( A ) ,, ( B ), ( C ),, :10036 :0 :1 A97?( A ) ( B ) ( C ) :10037 :0 :1 B98?( A ) ( B ) ( C ) :10038 :0 :2 C99?( A ) ( B ) ( C )

12

:10039 :0 :2 B100?( A ) ( B ) ( C ) :10040 :0 :2 A101?( A ) ( B ) ( C ) :10041 :0 :1 A102?( A ) ( B ), ( C ) :10042 :0 :1 A103?( A ) ( B ) ( C ) :10043 :0 :2 B104?( A ) ( B ) ( C ) :10044 :0 :2 C105,?( A ), ( B ), ( C ) :10045 :0 :2 C106?( A ) ( B ) ( C ) :10046 :0 :1 C107,?( A ) ( B ) ( C ) :10047 :0 :2 B108,?( A ) ( B ) ( C ) :10048 :0 :213

B109?( A ) ( B ) ( C ) :10049 :0 :1 B110? ( A ) ( B ) ( C ) :10050 :0 :1 B111,?( A ) ( B ) ( C ) :10051 :0 :2 B112( A ) ( B ) ( C ) :10052 :0 :1 A113?( A ) ( B ) ( C ) :10053 :0 :1 C114,?( A ), PSI ( B ), PSI ( C ), feet per minute :10054 :0 :1 B115?( A ) ( B ) ( C ) :10055 :0 :2 A116?( A ) ( B ) ( C ) :10056 :0 :2 C117?( A ), ( B ), ( C ), :10057 :0 :1 B118?( A )14

( B ) ( C ) :10058 :0 :2 B119?( A ) ( B ) ( C ) :10059 :0 :2 A120, ?( A ) ( B ) ( C ), :10060 :0 :2 B121?( A ) ( B ) ( C ) :10061 :0 :2 B122( A ) ( B ) , ( C ) :10062 :0 :2 C123( A ) ( B ) ( C ),, :10063 :0 :2 C124?( A ) ( B ) ( C ) :10064 :0 :2 C125( A ) ( B ) ( C ) :10065 :0 :2 C126?( A ) ( B ) ( C ),

15

:10066 :0 :2 B127?( A ) ( B ) ( C ) :10067 :0 :1 A128?( A ) ( B ) ( C ), :10068 :0 :2 C129 115 volts, 400-Hz AC ?( A ) , ( B ), ( C ) DC , AC :10069 :0 :2 B130?( A ) ( B ) ( C ) :10070 :0 :1 B131?( A )Corona threshold. ( B )Saint Elmo's fire. ( C )Precipitation static. :10071 :0 :1 C132 45 amperes- 2.5 hours, ampereshours?( A )90.0 ampere-hour. ( B )18.0 ampere-hour. ( C )112.5 ampere-hour. :10072 :0 :1 C133?( A )volts. ( B )watts. ( C )amperes. :10073 :0 :1 A134,? ( A ) ( B ) ( C ) :10074 :0 :116

A135?( A ) ( B ) ( C ) :10075 :0 :1 B136?( A )Watts at rated voltage. ( B ) Amperes at rated voltage. ( C )Voltage at rated amperes. :10076 :0 :1 B137?( A )Volts. ( B )Watts. ( C ) Amperes. :10077 :0 :2 B138?( A ) ( B ) ( C ) :10078 :0 :2 A139?( A ), ( B ),, ( C ), :10079 :0 :2 B140?( A ) ( B ) ( C ) :10080 :0 :1 A141?( A ) 115 volts 400-Hz AC 28 volts DC. ( B ) DC 26 volts 115 volts 400-Hz AC ( C ) :10081 :0 :1 C142? ( A )12 volts. ( B )20 volts. ( C )25 volts. :10082 :0 :2 B143?( A ) ( B ) ( C ) 17

:10083 :0 :2 C144( A ) ( B ) ( C ) :10084 :0 :2 C145?( A ) ( B ) ( C ) :10085 :0 :1 B146?( A ) N(2) ( B ) RPM. ( C ) :10086 :0 :1 C147?( A )Volts. ( B )Kilowatts (KW). ( C )Kilovolt-amps (KVA). :10087 :0 :2 B148?( A ) 115 volts ac 28 volts dc. ( B ) DC 115 volts 400-Hz AC ( C ) 26/29 volts DC 115/200 volts DC. :10088 :0 :1 C149?( A ) ( B ) ( C ) , :10089 :0 :1 B150?( A ) 6 volts. ( B )12 volts. ( C )24 volts. :10090 :0 :1 A151?( A ) ( B ) ( C ) :10091 :0 :1 B152?( A ) ( B ) ( C )18

:10092 :0 :1 C153?( A ) ( B ) ( C ) :10093 :0 :2 C154?( A ) ( B ) ( C ) :10094 :0 :2 C155?( A ) ( B ) Hydroplane ( C ) :10095 :0 :1 C156?( A ) ( B ) ( C ) :10096 :0 :1 B157?( A ) ( B ) ( C ) :10097 :0 :1 C158,?( A ) ( B ) ( C ) :10098 :0 :1 A159?( A ) ( B ) ( C ) :10099 :0 :1 A160?( A ) ( B ) , ( C ) :10100 :0 :1 B161?( A ) ( B ) , ( C )

19

:10101 :0 :1 A162?( A ) ( B ) ( C ), :10102 :0 :2 A163?( A ) ( B ) ( C ) , :10103 :0 :2 A164?( A ) ( B ) ( C )? :10104 :0 :2 A165?( A ) ( B ) ( C ) , :10105 :0 :1 C166?( A ) ( B ) ( C ) :10106 :0 :1 B167?( A ) ( B ) ( C ) :10107 :0 :2 B168Skydrol()?( A ) ( B ) ( C ) :10108 :0 :2 C169Skydrol()?( A ) ( B ) -40C ( C ) :10109 :0 :2 A170?( A ) ( B ) ( C )20

, :10110 :0 :1 C171?( A ) ( B ) ( C ) :10111 :0 :1 B172(Skydrol)?( A ) ( B ) ( C ) :10112 :0 :2 A173?( A ) ( B ) ( C ) :10113 :0 :1 A174?( A ) ( B ) ( C ) :10114 :0 :1 C175?( A ) ( B ) ( C ) :10115 :0 :1 B176?( A ) ( B ) ( C ) G :10116 :0 :1 C177?( A ) ( B ) ( C ) :10117 :0 :2 A178?( A ) ( B ) ( C ) :10118 :0 :2 C179?( A )21

( B ) ( C ) :10119 :0 :2 A180?( A ) ( B ) ( C ) :10120 :0 :2 B181?( A ) ( B ) ( C ) :10121 :0 :2 B182""?( A ) ( B ) ( C ) :10122 :0 :2 C183""?( A ) ( B ) ( C ) :10123 :0 :2 A184, ( A ) ( B ) ( C ), :10124 :0 :2 C185?( A ) ? ( B ) ( C ) :10125 :0 :2 C186 Hamilton-Standard Hydromatic propeller ?( A ) ( B ), ( C ), :10126 :0 :1 C187?( A ) ( B ) ( C )

22

:10127 :0 :1 A188?( A ) ( B ) ( C ) :10128 :0 :2 B189?( A ) ( B ) ( C ) :10129 :0 :2 C190 125 ?( A ) ( B ) ( C ) :10130 :0 :2 B191?( A ) ( B ) ( C )

====================English Version====================

Question:00001 Group:0 Difficult:1 C1The CG of an aircraft can be determined by which of the following methods? ( A )Dividing total arms by total moments ( B )Multiplying total arms by total weight ( C )Dividing total moments by total weight Question:00002 Group:0 Difficult:1 A2When computing weight and balance, the basic empty weight includes the weight of the airframe, engine(s), and all installed optional equipment. Basic empty weight also includes( A )the unusable fuel, full operating fluids, and full oil ( B )all usable fuel, full oil, hydraulic fluid, but does not include the weight of pilot, passengers, or baggage ( C )all usable fuel and oil, but does not include any radio equipment or instruments that were installed by someone other than the manufacturer Question:00003 Group:0 Difficult:1 A3Fouling of spark plugs is more apt to occur if the aircraft( A )gains altitude with no mixture adjustment ( B )descends from altitude with no mixture adjustment ( C )throttle is advanced very abruptly23

Question:00004 Group:0 Difficult:1 C4What will occur if no leaning is made with the mixture control as the flight altitude increases?( A )The volume of air entering the carburetor decreases and the amount of fuel decreases ( B )The density of air entering the carburetor decreases and the amount of fuel increases ( C )The density of air entering the carburetor decreases and the amount of fuel remains constant Question:00005 Group:0 Difficult:1 C5Applying carburetor heat will( A )not affect the mixture ( B )lean the fuel/air mixture ( C )enrich the fuel/air mixture Question:00006 Group:0 Difficult:1 C6Unless adjusted, the fuel/air mixture becomes richer with an increase in altitude because the amount of fuel( A )decreases while the volume of air decreases ( B )remains constant while the volume of air decreases ( C ) remains constant while the density of air decreases Question:00007 Group:0 Difficult:1 A7The basic purpose of adjusting the fuel/air mixture control at altitude is to ( A )decrease the fuel flow to compensate for decreased air density ( B ) decrease the amount of fuel in the mixture to compensate for increased air density ( C )increase the amount of fuel in the mixture to compensate for the decrease in pressure and density of the air Question:00008 Group:0 Difficult:1 B8At high altitudes, an excessively rich mixture will cause the( A ) engine to overheat ( B )fouling of spark plugs ( C )engine to operate smoother even though fuel consumption is increased Question:00009 Group:0 Difficult:1 C9The pilot controls the air/fuel ratio with the( A )throttle ( B ) manifold pressure ( C )mixture control Question:00010 Group:0 Difficult:1 B10Fuel/air ratio is the ratio between the( A )volume of fuel and volume of air entering the cylinder ( B )weight of fuel and weight of air entering the cylinder ( C )weight of fuel and weight of air entering the24

carburetor Question:00012 Group:0 Difficult:1 C11What effect, if any, would a change in ambient temperature or air density have on gas turbine engine performance?( A )As air density decreases, thrust increases ( B )As temperature increases, thrust increases ( C )As temperature increases, thrust decreases Question:00013 Group:0 Difficult:1 C12Leaving the carburetor heat on during takeoff( A )leans the mixture for more power on takeoff ( B )will decrease the takeoff distance ( C )will increase the ground roll Question:00014 Group:0 Difficult:1 A13Which statement is true concerning the effect of the application of carburetor heat?( A )It enriches the fuel/air mixture ( B )It leans the fuel/air mixture ( C )It has no effect on the fuel/air mixture Question:00016 Group:0 Difficult:1 C14The uncontrolled firing of the fuel/air charge in advance of normal spark ignition is known as( A )instantaneous combustion ( B )detonation ( C )pre-ignition Question:00017 Group:0 Difficult:1 C15Detonation occurs in a reciprocating aircraft engine when( A ) there is an explosive increase of fuel caused by too rich a fuel/air mixture ( B )the spark plugs receive an electrical jolt caused by a short in the wiring ( C )the unburned fuel/air charge in the cylinders is subjected to instantaneous combustion Question:00018 Group:0 Difficult:1 A16Detonation may occur at high-power settings when( A )the fuel mixture ignites instantaneously instead of burning progressively and evenly ( B )an excessively rich fuel mixture causes an explosive gain in power ( C ) the fuel mixture is ignited too early by hot carbon deposits in the cylinder Question:00019 Group:0 Difficult:1 B17Before shutdown, while at idle, the ignition key is momentarily turned OFF.25

The engine continues to run with no interruption; this( A )is normal because the engine is usually stopped by moving the mixture to idle cut-off ( B )should not normally happen. Indicates a magneto not grounding in OFF position ( C )is an undesirable practice, but indicates that nothing is wrong Question:00020 Group:0 Difficult:1 C18The most probable reason an engine continues to run after the ignition switch has been turned off is( A )carbon deposits glowing on the spark plugs ( B )a magneto ground wire is in contact with the engine casing ( C )a broken magneto ground wire Question:00021 Group:0 Difficult:1 C19If the ground wire between the magneto and the ignition switch becomes disconnected, the engine( A )will not operate on one magneto ( B ) cannot be started with the switch in the BOTH position ( C )could accidentally start if the propeller is moved with fuel in the cylinder Question:00022 Group:0 Difficult:1 A20A way to detect a broken magneto primary grounding lead is to ( A )idle the engine and momentarily turn the ignition off ( B )add full power, while holding the brakes, and momentarily turn off the ignition ( C )run on one magneto, lean the mixture, and look for a rise in manifold pressure Question:00023 Group:0 Difficult:1 B21For internal cooling, reciprocating aircraft engines are especially dependent on( A )a properly functioning cowl flap augmenter ( B )the circulation of lubricating oil ( C )the proper freon/compressor output ratio Question:00024 Group:0 Difficult:1 B22An abnormally high engine oil temperature indication may be caused by ( A )a defective bearing ( B )the oil level being too low ( C )operating with an excessively rich mixture Question:00025 Group:0 Difficult:1 A23Frequent inspections should be made of aircraft exhaust manifold-type heating systems to minimize the possibility of( A )exhaust gases leaking into the cockpit ( B )a power loss due to back pressure in the exhaust system ( C )a cold-running engine due to the heat withdrawn by the heater26

Question:00026 Group:0 Difficult:1 B24To develop maximum power and thrust, a constant-speed propeller should be set to a blade angle that will produce a( A )large angle of attack and low RPM ( B )small angle of attack and high RPM ( C )large angle of attack and high RPM Question:00027 Group:0 Difficult:1 A25For takeoff, the blade angle of a controllable-pitch propeller should be set at a( A )small angle of attack and high RPM ( B )large angle of attack and low RPM ( C )large angle of attack and high RPM Question:00028 Group:0 Difficult:1 B26A fixed-pitch propeller is designed for best efficiency only at a given combination of( A )altitude and RPM ( B )airspeed and RPM ( C ) airspeed and altitude Question:00029 Group:0 Difficult:1 C27The reason for variations in geometric pitch (twisting) along a propeller blade is that it( A )permits a relatively constant angle of incidence along its length when in cruising flight ( B )prevents the portion of the blade near the hub from stalling during cruising flight ( C )permits a relatively constant angle of attack along its length when in cruising flight Question:00030 Group:0 Difficult:1 C28Which statement best describes the operating principle of a constant-speed propeller?( A )As throttle setting is changed by the pilot, the prop governor causes pitch angle of the propeller blades to remain unchanged ( B ) A high blade angle, or increased pitch, reduces the propeller drag and allows more engine power for takeoffs ( C )The propeller control regulates the engine RPM, and in turn, the propeller RPM Question:00031 Group:0 Difficult:1 C29To establish a climb after takeoff in an aircraft equipped with a constantspeed propeller, the output of the engine is reduced to climb power by decreasing manifold pressure and( A )increasing RPM by decreasing propeller blade angle ( B )decreasing RPM by decreasing propeller blade angle ( C )decreasing RPM by increasing propeller blade27

angle Question:00032 Group:0 Difficult:1 C30A propeller rotating clockwise as seen from the rear, creates a spiraling slipstream. The spiraling slipstream, along with torque effect, tends to rotate the airplane to the( A )right around the vertical axis, and to the left around the longitudinal axis ( B )left around the vertical axis, and to the right around the longitudinal axis ( C )left around the vertical axis, and to the left around the longitudinal axis Question:00033 Group:0 Difficult:1 B31In aircraft equipped with constant-speed propellers and normally-aspirated engines, which procedure should be used to avoid placing undue stress on the engine components? When power is being( A )decreased, reduce the RPM before reducing the manifold pressure ( B )increased, increase the RPM before increasing the manifold pressure ( C )increased or decreased, the RPM should be adjusted before the manifold pressure Question:00034 Group:0 Difficult:1 B32Why should flight speeds above VNE be avoided?( A )Excessive induced drag will result in structural failure ( B )Design limit load factors may be exceeded, if gusts are encountered ( C )Control effectiveness is so impaired that the aircraft becomes uncontrollable Question:00035 Group:0 Difficult:1 A33The ratio between the total air load imposed on the wing load and gross weight of an aircraft in flight is known as( A )load factor and directly affects stall speed ( B )aspect load and directly affects stall speed ( C )load factor and has no relation with stall speed Question:00036 Group:0 Difficult:1 A34Which is true regarding preheating an aircraft during cold weather operations?( A )The cabin area as well as the engine should be preheated ( B )The cabin area should not be preheated with portable heaters ( C )Hot air should be blown directly at the engine through the air intakes Question:00037 Group:0 Difficult:2 C35During preflight in cold weather, crankcase breather lines should receive28

special attention because they are susceptible to being clogged by ( A )congealed oil from the crankcase ( B )moisture from the outside air which has frozen ( C )ice from crankcase vapors that have condensed and subsequently frozen Question:00038 Group:0 Difficult:1 A36If necessary to take off from a slushy runway, the freezing of landing gear mechanisms can be minimized by( A )recycling the gear ( B ) delaying gear retraction ( C )increasing the airspeed to VLE before retraction Question:00039 Group:0 Difficult:1 C37Which airspeed would a pilot be unable to identify by the color coding of an airspeed indicator?( A )The never-exceed speed ( B )The power-off stall speed ( C )The maneuvering speed Question:00040 Group:0 Difficult:1 A38Calibrated airspeed is best described as indicated airspeed corrected for ( A )installation and instrument error ( B )instrument error ( C )non-standard temperature Question:00041 Group:0 Difficult:1 C39True airspeed is best described as calibrated airspeed corrected for ( A )installation or instrument error ( B )non-standard temperature ( C ) altitude and non-standard temperature Question:00042 Group:0 Difficult:2 B40An aircraft 60 miles from a VOR station has a CDI indication of one-fifth deflection, this represents a course centerline deviation of approximately ( A )6 miles ( B )2 miles ( C )1 miles Question:00043 Group:0 Difficult:2 A41What is the maximum bearing error (+ or -) allowed for an operational VOR equipment check when using an FAA-approved ground test signal? ( A )4 degrees ( B )6 degrees ( C )8 degrees Question:00044 Group:0 Difficult:2 C42An ATC transponder is not to be used unless it has been tested, inspected, and found to comply with regulations within the preceding( A )3029

days ( B )12 calendar months ( C )24 calendar months Question:00045 Group:0 Difficult:1 B43Which is the correct symbol for the stalling speed or the minimum steady flight speed in a specified configuration?( A )VS ( B )VS1 ( C )VS0 Question:00046 Group:0 Difficult:1 A44Which is the correct symbol for the stalling speed or the minimum steady flight speed at which the airplane is controllable?( A )VS ( B )VS1 ( C )VS0 Question:00047 Group:0 Difficult:1 A45The performance tables of an aircraft for takeoff and climb are based on ( A )pressure/density altitude ( B )cabin altitude ( C )true altitude Question:00048 Group:0 Difficult:1 B46If an airplane is loaded to the rear of its CG range, it will tend to be unstable about its( A )vertical axis ( B )lateral axis ( C )longitudinal axis Question:00049 Group:0 Difficult:1 B47One of the main functions of flaps during the approach and landing is to ( A )decrease the angle of descent without increasing the airspeed ( B ) provide the same amount of lift at a slower airspeed ( C )decrease lift, thus enabling a steeper-than-normal approach to be made Question:00051 Group:0 Difficult:1 B48Longitudinal stability involves the motion of the airplane controlled by its ( A )rudder ( B )elevator ( C )ailerons Question:00052 Group:0 Difficult:1 B49Which statement is true about magnetic deviation of a compass? Deviation ( A )varies over time as the agonic line shifts ( B )varies for different headings of the same aircraft ( C )is the same for all aircraft in the same locality Question:00053 Group:0 Difficult:1 B50Maximum structural cruising speed is the maximum speed at which an airplane can be operated during( A )abrupt maneuvers ( B )normal operations ( C )flight in smooth air30

Question:00054 Group:0 Difficult:2 C51What is an operational difference between the turn coordinator and the turnand-slip indicator? The turn coordinator( A )is always electric; the turn-and-slip indicator is always vacuum-driven ( B )indicates bank angle only; the turn-and-slip indicator indicates rate of turn and coordination ( C ) indicates roll rate, rate of turn, and coordination; the turn-and-slip indicator indicates rate of turn and coordination Question:00055 Group:0 Difficult:1 A52What is an advantage of an electric turn coordinator if the airplane has a vacuum system for other gyroscopic instruments?( A )It is a backup in case of vacuum system failure ( B )It is more reliable than the vacuumdriven indicators ( C )It will not tumble as will vacuum-driven turn indicators Question:00056 Group:0 Difficult:2 C53The maximum cumulative time that an emergency locator transmitter may be operated before the rechargeable battery must be recharged is( A )30 minutes ( B )45 minutes ( C )60 minutes Question:00057 Group:0 Difficult:2 C54When must an operational check on the aircraft VOR equipment be accomplished to operate under IFR? Within the preceding( A )30 days or 30 hours of flight time ( B )10 days or 10 hours of flight time ( C )30 days Question:00058 Group:0 Difficult:2 B55Which data must be recorded in the aircraft logbook or other record by a pilot making a VOR operational check for IFR operations?( A ) VOR name or identification, place of operational check, amount of bearing error, and date of check ( B )Date of check, place of operational check, bearing error, and signature ( C )VOR name or identification, amount of bearing error, date of check, and signature Question:00060 Group:0 Difficult:2 C56If an airplane category is listed as utility, it would mean that this airplane could be operated in which of the following maneuvers?( A ) Limited acrobatics, excluding spins ( B )Any maneuver except acrobatics or31

spins ( C )Limited acrobatics, including spins (if approved) Question:00061 Group:0 Difficult:2 B57Which is true concerning required maintenance inspections?( A ) A 100-hour inspection may be substituted for an annual inspection ( B )An annual inspection may be substituted for a 100-hour inspection ( C )An annual inspection is required even if a progressive inspection system has been approved Question:00062 Group:0 Difficult:2 B58After an annual inspection has been completed and the aircraft has been returned to service, an appropriate notation should be made( A )on the airworthiness certificate ( B )in the aircraft maintenance records ( C )in the FAA-approved flight manual Question:00063 Group:0 Difficult:2 A59A standard airworthiness certificate remains in effect as long as the aircraft receives( A )required maintenance and inspections ( B )an annual inspection ( C )an annual inspection and a 100-hour inspection prior to their expiration dates Question:00064 Group:0 Difficult:2 C60Aircraft maintenance records must include the current status of the ( A )applicable airworthiness certificate ( B )life-limited parts of only the engine and airframe ( C )life-limited parts of each airframe, engine, propeller, rotor, and appliance Question:00065 Group:0 Difficult:2 B61Which is correct concerning preventive maintenance, when accomplished by a pilot?( A )A record of preventive maintenance is not required ( B )A record of preventive maintenance must be entered in the maintenance records ( C )Records of preventive maintenance must be entered in the FAAapproved flight Question:10001 Group:0 Difficult:2 A62The propeller governor controls( A )oil to and from the pitch changing mechanism. ( B )spring tension of the boost pump speeder spring. ( C )movement in and out of the linkage and counterweights.32

Question:10002 Group:0 Difficult:2 A63Which operational force creates the greatest stress on a propeller? ( A )Centrifugal. ( B )Torque bending. ( C )Aerodynamic twisting. Question:10003 Group:0 Difficult:2 B64The force which tries to increase propeller blade angle is( A ) torque bending. ( B )aerodynamic twisting. ( C )centrifugal twisting moment. Question:10004 Group:0 Difficult:2 B65The force which tries to feather the propeller blade is( A )torque bending. ( B )aerodynamic twisting. ( C )centrifugal twisting moment. Question:10005 Group:0 Difficult:1 C66Which flight conditions will result in the largest propeller blade angle? ( A )Initial climb-out. ( B )Approach to landing. ( C )High-speed, highaltitude cruise flight. Question:10006 Group:0 Difficult:2 B67Increasing the throttle setting in cruise flight will result in( A )a decrease in blade angle. ( B )an increase in blade angle. ( C )an increase in propeller RPM. Question:10007 Group:0 Difficult:2 C68The purpose of the propeller synchrophase system is to set( A )all propellers at exactly the same RPM. ( B )the propeller blade angles for all propellers in the same relative position. ( C )the angular difference in the plane of rotation between the blades of the slave engines and the blades of the master. Question:10008 Group:0 Difficult:1 C69What is the sequence of events for a reciprocating engine to convert chemical to mechanical energy?( A )Ignition, compression, power, and exhaust. ( B )Compression, ignition, intake, power, and exhaust. ( C ) Intake, compression, ignition, power, and exhaust. Question:10009 Group:0 Difficult:2 C70The total piston displacement of a reciprocating engine is the( A )33

relationship of horsepower output per cubic inch of cylinder volume. ( B ) volume displaced by one piston during one revolution of the crankshaft. ( C ) volume displaced by the sum total of all pistons during one revolution of the crankshaft. Question:10010 Group:0 Difficult:2 C71Which of the following situations will most likely cause the engine to backfire through the induction system when operated at low RPM?( A )A clogged air inlet. ( B )The idle speed set too low. ( C )An excessively lean mixture setting. Question:10011 Group:0 Difficult:2 C72The purpose of the oil cooler bypass valve is to( A )bypass the oil cooler when there is a blockage. ( B )control and limit the lubricating oil pressure. ( C )control the flow of oil to the oil cooler according to the temperature and viscosity of the oil. Question:10012 Group:0 Difficult:1 C73Preignition is indicated by( A )intermittent firing and low cylinder temperatures. ( B )explosions from the exhaust system with torching or afterburning. ( C )engine roughness and a sudden increase in cylinder head temperatures. Question:10013 Group:0 Difficult:2 A74The first step to correct preignition is to( A )retard the throttle. ( B )increase the mixture. ( C )decrease the mixture. Question:10014 Group:0 Difficult:2 A75If an attempt is made to start an engine with a hydraulic lock,( A ) a connecting rod can bend or break if the crankshaft continues to rotate. ( B ) the starter gearbox can overtorque since the liquid is incompressible and stops piston movement. ( C )the fuel or oil from the lower cylinders can be injected into the exhaust system causing afterfiring. Question:10015 Group:0 Difficult:2 C76Alcohol is added to the fluid in a water injection system to( A ) increase the octane. ( B )provide greater cooling. ( C )prevent freezing of the water.34

Question:10016 Group:0 Difficult:2 C77What may cause engine detonation?( A )High octane fuel. ( B ) Low manifold pressure. ( C )High intake air temperatures. Question:10017 Group:0 Difficult:2 B78One purpose of a fuel tank boost pump is to( A )provide pressure for injection carburetors. ( B )prevent vapor lock caused by high temperature. ( C )prevent vapor lock caused by high atmospheric pressure. Question:10018 Group:0 Difficult:2 A79The purpose of water injection is to( A )suppress detonation. ( B ) increase fuel economy. ( C )prevent carburetor ice. Question:10019 Group:0 Difficult:1 B80What is a feature of an electromagnetic-type circuit breaker?( A ) It resets automatically. ( B )It may be reset immediately. ( C )It is necessary to wait a short time before attempting a reset. Question:10020 Group:0 Difficult:2 B81Which is an indication of carburetor ice?( A )Decrease in propeller RPM. ( B )Manifold pressure (MAP) drop. ( C )Backfiring, which is caused by a rich mixture. Question:10021 Group:0 Difficult:2 B82What type of icing is most likely to occur with a pressure-injected carburetor?( A )Fuel. ( B )Induction. ( C )Evaporative. Question:10022 Group:0 Difficult:1 A83In an electrically heated windshield system, what maintains normal windshield temperature?( A )Thermistors. ( B )Electronic amplifiers. ( C )Thermal overheat switches. Question:10023 Group:0 Difficult:2 C84How does a photoelectric smoke detector operate?( A )A photoelectric smoke detector only warns when smoke is present. ( B )A photoelectric smoke detector measures the amount of smoke under a specific set of conditions. ( C )A photoelectric smoke detector measures the amount of35

light available under a specific set of conditions. Question:10024 Group:0 Difficult:1 B85How does the thermocouple in a fire detection system cause the warning system to operate?( A )Heat increases electrical resistance. ( B ) Heat generates a small electrical current. ( C )Heat causes expansion and a ground to form. Question:10025 Group:0 Difficult:2 C86What is the effect on the fuel/air mixture when flying from a cold to a warm area at a constant altitude without automatic mixture control?( A ) The engine is not capable of producing as much power due to the increase in air density. ( B )The engine is capable of producing more power due to a greater volume of air which is available due to heat expansion. ( C )The engine is not capable of producing as much power due to a decrease in air density which causes a richer mixture. Question:10026 Group:0 Difficult:2 A87How is engine power output affected by the application of carburetor heat? ( A )Volumetric efficiency is reduced. ( B )Mixture is leaned and power is decreased. ( C )Weight of the fuel/air mixture is increased. Question:10027 Group:0 Difficult:1 B88The CG of an airplane is normally located in the fuselage at a point expressed in( A )inches from the forward CG limit. ( B )B- percent of mean aerodynamic chord aft of LEMAC. ( C )C- percentage of MAC aft of the leading edge of the wing. Question:10028 Group:0 Difficult:1 C89The CG of an airplane is computed along the( A )lateral axis. ( B ) vertical axis. ( C )longitudinal axis. Question:10029 Group:0 Difficult:1 A90Zero fuel weight is defined as the( A )basic operating weight plus payload. ( B )empty weight plus passengers and cargo. ( C )takeoff weight minus fuel to destination and alternate. Question:10030 Group:0 Difficult:236

A91The purpose of shutting an engine down with the mixture control at the end of the flight is to( A )prevent an accidental start. ( B )preclude liquid lock during subsequent starts. ( C )assure that there is no fuel in the intake system that could result in a fire. Question:10031 Group:0 Difficult:1 B92What is the oil viscosity index? The oil viscosity index( A )Aindicates how fluid an oil is at low temperature under laboratory conditions. ( B )B- is an arbitrary method of stating the rate of change in viscosity of an oil with changes of temperature. ( C )C- is the weight of any oil compared with the weight of an equal volume of oil from the American Petroleum Institute (API) gravity scale. Question:10032 Group:0 Difficult:1 C93What safety device is actuated by the compression and extension of a landing gear strut?( A )Uplock switch. ( B )Downlock switch. ( C ) Ground safety switch. Question:10033 Group:0 Difficult:2 B94What type of oxygen system is used for passengers?( A )Demand. ( B )Constant-flow. ( C )Diluter-demand. Question:10034 Group:0 Difficult:2 C95Which type of oxygen system is the flight deck equipped with normally? ( A )Constant-flow. ( B )Phase dilution. ( C )Diluter-demand. Question:10035 Group:0 Difficult:2 B96One of the main gear tires has deflated as a result of a thermal fuse melt. What does this mean?( A )Heavy braking has overheated the wheel, melted a plastic fuse in the rim, and prevented the danger of a tire blowout. ( B )High tire temperatures have melted a fusible metal plug installed in the aircraft wheel and caused the tire to deflate. ( C )High temperatures in the wheel well have caused the tire's temperature sensitive valve core to melt, deflated the tire, and prevented damage to the wing. Question:10036 Group:0 Difficult:1 A97The purpose of fusible plugs in aircraft wheels is to( A )prevent tire blowouts. ( B )quickly deflate tires for repair. ( C )protect the antiskid37

electrical system. Question:10037 Group:0 Difficult:1 B98When may rain repellent be applied to a windshield?( A )Prior to entering rain. ( B )After it starts raining. ( C )Whenever the windshield is dirty. Question:10038 Group:0 Difficult:2 C99Which is a reason for heating cockpit windows?( A )Deicing. ( B ) Prevent thermal shock. ( C )Bird-impact protection. Question:10039 Group:0 Difficult:2 B100The purpose of the antiskid system control box is to( A )sense wheel speed change. ( B )prevent landing with the brakes applied. ( C )meter the brake pressure to prevent stoppage of wheel rotation. Question:10040 Group:0 Difficult:2 A101Pressure from an engine-driven hydraulic pump may be regulated by a ( A )system bypass valve. ( B )constant speed drive. ( C )in-line variable restrictor orifice. Question:10041 Group:0 Difficult:1 A102Moisture in a pneumatic system may cause( A )corrosion. ( B )a variety of sounds including banging, squealing and chattering. ( C )return lines to freeze when the pressure of the air drops during actuation. Question:10042 Group:0 Difficult:1 A103What type of gas is normally used to service the air-storage bottles of an emergency pneumatic system?( A )Nitrogen. ( B )Dry oxygen. ( C ) Carbon dioxide. Question:10043 Group:0 Difficult:2 B104One purpose of a hydraulic accumulator is to( A )compress hydraulic fluid. ( B )absorb sudden pressure surges. ( C )store hydraulic fluid from small system leaks. Question:10044 Group:0 Difficult:2 C105Which statement is correct when applying liquid rain repellent?38

( A )Begin application as soon as rain begins, to form a barrier between the rain and the windshield. ( B )Apply rain repellent first, then activate the windshield wipers to spread the repellent. ( C )The number of times the repellent is applied is determined by the intensity of the rain. Question:10045 Group:0 Difficult:2 C106Why should synthetic hydraulic fluid be stored in an airtight container? ( A )High evaporation rate. ( B )Vapor is extremely toxic. ( C )Atmospheric moisture contamination. Question:10046 Group:0 Difficult:1 C107When the cabin pressure regulator is operating in the differential mode, reference pressure is vented to the atmosphere by the( A )relief valve. ( B )isobaric metering valve. ( C )differential metering valve. Question:10047 Group:0 Difficult:2 B108In a pressurized system, what is the purpose of the dump valve?( A )Relieve a negative pressure differential. ( B )Relieve all positive pressure from the cabin. ( C )Relieve any pressure in excess of maximum cabin differential. Question:10048 Group:0 Difficult:2 B109The cabin pressure control setting has a direct effect upon the ( A )compressor speed. ( B )outflow valve opening. ( C )pneumatic system pressure. Question:10049 Group:0 Difficult:1 B110Which component of an airplane pressurization system prevents the cabin altitude from becoming higher than the airplane altitude?( A )Cabin rate of descent control. ( B )Negative pressure relief valve. ( C )Compression ratio limit switch. Question:10050 Group:0 Difficult:1 B111If the cabin rate of climb is too great, how should the pressurization controls be adjusted?( A )Open the outflow valve slower. ( B )Close the outflow valve faster. ( C )Increase the amount of incoming air. Question:10051 Group:0 Difficult:239

B112How is cabin pressurization controlled?( A )The pressure valve regulates the air output of the compressor. ( B )The outflow valve dumps all air pressure in excess of the amount for which it is set. ( C )The inflow valve limits the amount of air to the cabin when a pressure equivalent to cabin altitude has been reached. Question:10052 Group:0 Difficult:1 A113Which best describes cabin differential pressure?( A )The difference between ambient and internal air pressure. ( B )The difference between the cabin flight altitude pressure and MSL pressure. ( C )The difference between the cabin pressure controller setting and the actual cabin pressure. Question:10053 Group:0 Difficult:1 C114Which component gives an indication of the rate of change in cabin altitude and what unit of measurement is used?( A )Pressure controller, PSI. ( B )Cabin vertical-velocity indicator, PSI. ( C )Cabin vertical-velocity indicator, feet per minute. Question:10054 Group:0 Difficult:1 B115Which section of a turbine engine provides air for the pressurization and air-conditioning systems?( A )Intake. ( B )Compressor. ( C ) Combustion. Question:10055 Group:0 Difficult:2 A116Which component of an air-cycle cooling system undergoes a pressure and temperature drop of air during operation?( A )Expansion turbine. ( B )Primary heat exchanger. ( C )Refrigeration bypass valve. Question:10056 Group:0 Difficult:2 C117Which components make up the basic air-cycle cooling system?( A )Heaters, coolers, and compressor. ( B )Ram air source, compressors, and engine bleeds. ( C )A source of compressed air, heat exchangers, and a turbine. Question:10057 Group:0 Difficult:1 B118The air-cycle cooling system produces cold air by( A )passing heated air through a compressor. ( B )passing air through an expansion40

turbine and extracting heat energy. ( C )passing air through cooling coils that contain a volume of refrigerant. Question:10058 Group:0 Difficult:2 B119Which cabin air-conditioning system utilizes a refrigerant to carry away cabin heat?( A )Air cycle ( B )Vapor cycle. ( C )Evaporative blower. Question:10059 Group:0 Difficult:2 A120Which control systems for operating cabin pressurization use reference chamber air pressure within the controller to regulate the outflow valve? ( A )Isobaric and differential. ( B )Unpressurized and pressurized controls. ( C )Ambient, differential, and maximum differential. Question:10060 Group:0 Difficult:2 B121What type of electrolyte is contained in a lead-acid battery?( A ) Boric acid. ( B )Sulfuric acid. ( C )Potassium hydroxide. Question:10061 Group:0 Difficult:2 B122What are the characteristics of the electrolyte in a nickel-cadmium battery? ( A )Noncorrosive. ( B )Much like household lye and will cause severe burns. ( C )Harmless compared to the electrolyte in a lead-acid battery. Question:10062 Group:0 Difficult:2 C123What will neutralize the electrolyte from a nickel-cadmium battery? ( A )Soap and water. ( B )Bicarbonate of soda. ( C )A solution of boric acid, vinegar, lemon juice, or some other mildly acid solution. Question:10063 Group:0 Difficult:2 C124What is the purpose of a fuse-type current limiter?( A )Prevent overloads in low power circuits. ( B )Fast blow design prevents damage to sensitive circuits or equipment. ( C )Permit short periods of overload before the fuse link melts and breaks the circuit. Question:10064 Group:0 Difficult:2 C125What is a purpose of enclosing wires or electrical units in metal? ( A )Eliminates ground wires. ( B )Prevents the buildup of static discharges. ( C )Eliminates interference with radio reception.41

Question:10065 Group:0 Difficult:2 C126What is residual voltage?( A )Voltage produced that is not in phase with the current. ( B )Voltage stored in the generator exciter output windings. ( C )Voltage produced by permanent magnets which starts the ac generator output. Question:10066 Group:0 Difficult:2 B127What is the difference between a relay and a solenoid?( A ) Relays have movable cores. ( B )Solenoids have movable cores. ( C )Relays are used as mechanical control devices. Question:10067 Group:0 Difficult:1 A128What is the purpose of an electrical relay?( A )Controls remote, high current equipment items with a small switch. ( B )Prevents static buildup by connecting shock mounted equipment to ground. ( C )Engages starter gears, moves locking pins or other mechanical control devices. Question:10068 Group:0 Difficult:2 C129What is an advantage of using 115 volts, 400-Hz alternating current? ( A )The AC voltage may be changed easily by the use of rectifiers which reduces wire size and weight. ( B )Inductive reactance at high frequency increases current and more efficient power transmission. ( C )High-voltage AC motors are smaller and lighter than equivalent DC-powered motors. Question:10069 Group:0 Difficult:2 B130Why is it important that all electrical loads and power sources be turned off before connecting or disconnecting the battery?( A )To prevent discharging the battery. ( B )To prevent a spark from igniting explosive gas. ( C )To prevent power surges from spiking sensitive equipment. Question:10070 Group:0 Difficult:1 B131What is the name for the visible discharge of static electricity from the airplane into the air?( A )Corona threshold. ( B )Saint Elmo's fire. ( C )Precipitation static. Question:10071 Group:0 Difficult:1 C132If the airplane is equipped with a battery rated to deliver 45 amperes for42

2.5 hours, what is the ampere-hour rating?( A )90.0 ampere-hour. ( B )18.0 ampere-hour. ( C )112.5 ampere-hour. Question:10072 Group:0 Difficult:1 C133Aircraft fuse capacities are rated in( A )volts. ( B )watts. ( C ) amperes. Question:10073 Group:0 Difficult:1 A134In aircraft electrical systems, automatic reset circuit breakers ( A )are not used as circuit protective devices. ( B )are used in all circuits essential to safe operation of the aircraft. ( C )are found in locations where only temporary overloads are encountered. Question:10074 Group:0 Difficult:1 A135What is an electrical relay?( A )A magnetically operated switch. ( B )A device used to increase, or step-up voltage. ( C )A conductor which receives electrical energy and passes it on with little or no resistance. Question:10075 Group:0 Difficult:1 B136How are electrical generators rated?( A )Watts at rated voltage. ( B )Amperes at rated voltage. ( C )Voltage at rated amperes. Question:10076 Group:0 Difficult:1 B137What unit of power is used in dc electrical circuits?( A )Volts. ( B )Watts. ( C )Amperes. Question:10077 Group:0 Difficult:2 B138What is the function of the circuit breaker in the instrument lighting system?( A )Protects the lights from too much current. ( B )Protects the wiring from too much current. ( C )Prevents excessive voltage from reaching the wiring. Question:10078 Group:0 Difficult:2 A139Which are protective functions of an ac generator control unit? ( A )Open phase, underexcitation, and overvoltage. ( B )Undervoltage, differential fault, and manual paralleling. ( C )Generator underspeed and bustie circuit-breaker automatic closing.

43

Question:10079 Group:0 Difficult:2 B140Which is a feature of a parallel bus electrical system?( A ) External power may be paralleled with operating generators. ( B )The electrical load is automatically redistributed when one generator fails. ( C ) Each generator supplies power separately from the other generators to its respective bus. Question:10080 Group:0 Difficult:1 A141Which is a purpose of a transformer rectifier?( A )Converts 115 volts ac, 400-Hz to 28 volts dc. ( B )Changes dc to alternating 26 volts or 115 volts, 400-Hz power. ( C )Operates emergency flight instruments and radios from the airplane battery. Question:10081 Group:0 Difficult:1 C142What is the approximate nominal voltage rating of a fully charged nickelcadmium battery containing twenty cells?( A )12 volts. ( B )20 volts. ( C )25 volts. Question:10082 Group:0 Difficult:2 B143Why is it necessary to periodically completely discharge and recharge a nickel-cadmium battery?( A )To restore electrolyte levels. ( B )To eliminate cell imbalance and loss of capacity. ( C )To dissolve nickel oxide formations on positive cells to restore capacity. Question:10083 Group:0 Difficult:2 C144What causes cell imbalance in a nickel-cadmium battery?( A ) Low temperatures. ( B )Deep rapid discharges. ( C )Constant-potential (voltage) charging. Question:10084 Group:0 Difficult:2 C145The purpose of a constant speed drive for an ac generator is to ( A )control field strength. ( B )regulate generator voltage. ( C )maintain a uniform frequency. Question:10085 Group:0 Difficult:1 B146What speed does a frequency meter give a direct indication of? ( A )Engine N(2). ( B )Generator RPM. ( C )CSD input speed.

44

Question:10086 Group:0 Difficult:1 C147How are airplane ac generators rated?( A )Volts. ( B )Kilowatts (KW). ( C )Kilovolt-amps (KVA). Question:10087 Group:0 Difficult:2 B148What is a purpose of a rotary inverter?( A )Change 115 volts ac to 28 volts dc. ( B )Convert dc to 115 volts, 400-Hz power. ( C )Transform 26/29 volts dc to 115/200 volts dc. Question:10088 Group:0 Difficult:1 C149The purpose of a reverse-current relay is to( A )prevent one generator from driving another generator. ( B )increase or decrease the voltage of a generator so it carries its share. ( C )disconnect the generator from the main bus when generator voltage drops below battery voltage. Question:10089 Group:0 Difficult:1 B150What is the nominal voltage rating of a fully charged lead-acid battery containing six cells?( A )6 volts. ( B )12 volts. ( C )24 volts. Question:10090 Group:0 Difficult:1 A151The purpose of fusible plugs in the wheel is to prevent( A )tire blowout. ( B )overservicing the tire. ( C )damage to the tire resulting from heat expansion. Question:10091 Group:0 Difficult:1 B152What tread wear will occur if tires are under-inflated?( A ) Uniform wear at a fast rate. ( B )Tread worn away more on the shoulders than in the center. ( C )Accelerated centerline wear while leaving rubber on the shoulder. Question:10092 Group:0 Difficult:1 C153What tread wear will occur if tires are over-inflated?( A ) Uniform wear at a slow rate. ( B )Tread worn away more on the shoulders than in the center. ( C )Accelerated centerline wear while leaving rubber on the shoulder. Question:10093 Group:0 Difficult:2 C154Where should the chines be located for a dual nosewheel installation?45

( A )One on each side of the tires. ( B )On the inside of the tires only. ( C )On the outside of the tires only. Question:10094 Group:0 Difficult:2 C155The purpose of chines on tires is to( A )increase traction on snow or ice covered runways. ( B )reduce the tendency to hydroplane on wet runways. ( C )deflect water or slush away from the engine intakes. Question:10095 Group:0 Difficult:1 C156Which of the following are considered primary flight controls? ( A )Tabs. ( B )Flaps. ( C )Outboard ailerons. Question:10096 Group:0 Difficult:1 B157Which of the following is considered a secondary flight control? ( A )Rudder. ( B )Servo tab. ( C )Inboard aileron. Question:10097 Group:0 Difficult:1 C158Which direction from the primary control surface does an elevator adjustable trim tab move when the control surface is moved?( A ) Same direction. ( B )Opposite direction. ( C )Remains fixed for all positions. Question:10098 Group:0 Difficult:1 A159What direction should the ailerons move when the control wheel is moved?( A )Left aileron down when the control wheel is moved right. ( B )Right aileron up when the control wheel is moved left. ( C )Left aileron down when the control wheel is moved left. Question:10099 Group:0 Difficult:1 A160A purpose of leading edge flaps is to( A )increase the camber of the wing. ( B )reduce lift without increasing airspeed. ( C )direct airflow over the top of the wing at high angles of attack. Question:10100 Group:0 Difficult:1 B161A purpose of flight spoilers is to( A )increase the camber of the wing. ( B )reduce lift without increasing airspeed. ( C )direct airflow over the top of the wing at high angles of attack. Question:10101 Group:0 Difficult:146

A162A purpose of ground spoilers is to( A )reduce the wing's lift upon landing. ( B )aid in rolling an airplane into a turn. ( C )increase the rate of descent without gaining airspeed. Question:10102 Group:0 Difficult:2 A163A purpose of wing mounted vortex generators is to( A )prevent shock induced separation of air from the wing. ( B )increase the onset of drag divergence and aid in aileron effectiveness at high speed. ( C )break the airflow over the wing so the stall will progress from the root out to the tip of the wing. Question:10103 Group:0 Difficult:2 A164What is a disadvantage of wing mounted vortex generators?( A ) Drag is increased slightly at slow airspeeds. ( B )Parasite drag increases significantly at high airspeeds. ( C )Shock induced flow separation from vortex generators increases control surface buffet. Question:10104 Group:0 Difficult:2 A165What is a disadvantage of a stabilizer and elevator located at the top of the vertical fin?( A )Heavier structure. ( B )Undesirable spin characteristics. ( C )Less effective fin and rudder due to the end plate action of the stabilizer location. Question:10105 Group:0 Difficult:1 C166An advantage of a stabilizer and elevator located at the top of the vertical fin is that( A )the structural weight is decreased. ( B )the cruise speed is more fuel efficient. ( C )the horizontal tail is above the wing turbulence. Question:10106 Group:0 Difficult:1 B167What action should be taken if a hydraulic stationary connection has a static leak?( A )Reduce the accumulator pressure. ( B )Notify maintenance to repair it. ( C )Pressurize the system and perform an operational check. Question:10107 Group:0 Difficult:2 B168An advantage of Skydrol is that it( A )is resistant to water contamination. ( B )has a wide operating temperature range. ( C )is47

compatible with vegetable-base hydraulic fluid. Question:10108 Group:0 Difficult:2 C169A disadvantage of Skydrol is that( A )it is incompatible with synthetic-base fluid. ( B )sustained operations below -40C should be avoided. ( C )it will break down the insulation on some electrical wiring. Question:10109 Group:0 Difficult:2 A170The purpose of a bypass valve in the hydraulic filter is to( A ) bypass a clogged element. ( B )maintain the desired temperature and viscosity by controlling the amount of fluid through the unit. ( C )ensure adequate flow when the engines are started until the fluid is warmed sufficiently to flow freely. Question:10110 Group:0 Difficult:1 C171What action should be taken in case of eye contact with any hydraulic fluid?( A )Apply an aesthetic eye dressing. ( B )Flush thoroughly with soap and water. ( C )Flush with water and consult a doctor. Question:10111 Group:0 Difficult:1 B172What should be used to remove Skydrol from your skin?( A ) Solvent. ( B )Soap and water. ( C )Trichlorethylene. Question:10112 Group:0 Difficult:2 A173The purpose of a hydraulic accumulator is to( A )store hydraulic fluid under pressure. ( B )collect hydraulic fluid from system leaks. ( C ) gather foam and extract the air before returning it to the reservoir. Question:10113 Group:0 Difficult:1 A174What type of gas may be used to service hydraulic accumulators? ( A )Nitrogen. ( B )Dry oxygen. ( C )Carbon dioxide. Question:10114 Group:0 Difficult:1 C175Which principle operates a hydraulic fuse?( A )Heat. ( B ) Electrical. ( C )Differential pressure. Question:10115 Group:0 Difficult:1 B176The purpose of pressurizing a hydraulic reservoir is to( A )48

provide an alternate source of pressure in case of a hydraulic pump failure. ( B )assure a positive feed of foam free fluid to the hydraulic pump at high altitudes. ( C )insure an adequate supply of fluid to the hydraulic pump inlet during negative-G flight. Question:10116 Group:0 Difficult:1 C177Why should hydraulic fluid be filtered?( A )Water in the fluid could freeze. ( B )It assures a positive feed of foam free fluid to the hydraulic pump inlet. ( C )Contaminants may damage the seals and cylinder walls causing internal leakage. Question:10117 Group:0 Difficult:2 A178An advantage of a piston-type accumulator is that it( A )takes up less area than a sphere-type accumulator. ( B )may be used with higher pressure than a bladder-type accumulator. ( C )can store more hydraulic fluid than a diaphragm-type accumulator. Question:10118 Group:0 Difficult:2 C179What is the difference between a hydraulic sequence valve and a priority valve?( A )Sequence valves are electrically actuated. ( B ) Mechanical contact opens a priority valve. ( C )Priority valves are opened by hydraulic pressure. Question:10119 Group:0 Difficult:2 A180Which principle operates a hydraulic fuse?( A )Quantity of flow. ( B )Thermal increase. ( C )Pressure increase. Question:10120 Group:0 Difficult:2 B181How may pressure from an engine-driven hydraulic pump be regulated? ( A )Constant speed drive. ( B )Variable-displacement pump. ( C )In-line variable restrictor orifice. Question:10121 Group:0 Difficult:2 B182Which hydraulic operation normally uses a double-acting, unbalanced linear actuator?( A )Brakes. ( B )Landing gear. ( C )Automatic pilot servo. Question:10122 Group:0 Difficult:249

C183Which hydraulic operation normally uses a double-acting, balanced linear actuator?( A )Brakes. ( B )Landing gear. ( C )Automatic pilot servo. Question:10123 Group:0 Difficult:2 A184If the line between the manifold pressure gauge and the engine induction system is broken, the gauge will indicate( A )ambient pressure. ( B )standard atmospheric pressure. ( C )high when operating at a manifold pressure above atmospheric pressure. Question:10124 Group:0 Difficult:2 C185Which is a feature of the propeller feathering system?( A ) Throttle levers may be in any position for the autofeather system to operate. ( B )Retarding a throttle to idle on takeoff will cause the autofeather system to operate. ( C )Propeller blades are held in the full feather position by aerodynamic forces. Question:10125 Group:0 Difficult:2 C186What initial action is taken to unfeather a Hamilton-Standard Hydromatic propeller?( A )Place the aircraft in a shallow dive to start the propeller windmilling. ( B )Turn the autofeather system off and place the propeller lever to the full forward position. ( C )Hold the feather button in until the propeller starts windmilling, then release for restart. Question:10126 Group:0 Difficult:1 C187Increasing the throttle setting while taxiing with a reciprocating engine will result in( A )a decrease in blade angle. ( B )an increase in blade angle. ( C )an increase in propeller RPM. Question:10127 Group:0 Difficult:1 A188The force which tries to bend the propeller blades opposite the direction of rotation is( A )torque bending. ( B )aerodynamic bending. ( C ) centrifugal bending. Question:10128 Group:0 Difficult:2 B189What is indicated during engine shutdown when the tachometer does not increase?( A )Idle mixture is correct. ( B )Idle mixture is too lean. ( C )Idle mixture is too rich.

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Question:10129 Group:0 Difficult:2 C190What does an increase of approximately 125 propeller RPM indicate during shutdown?( A )Idle mixture is correct. ( B )Idle mixture is too lean. ( C )Idle mixture is too rich. Question:10130 Group:0 Difficult:2 B191The primary purpose for utilizing boost pumps in the fuel system is to ( A )prevent unporting of fuel on takeoff. ( B )provide a positive fuel flow to the engine pump. ( C )provide fuel transfer between tanks to prevent fuel imbalance.

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