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~

merican Student DentalAssoc iation

National Board Dental Examinations

TEST P CKET II M

Compiled

released items from

approximately 2000 2008

American Student Dental Association

21J East Chicago Avenu Suite 700 Chicago Ill inois 60611 312 440 2795

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2009 Amer ican Dental Association Al l r ights reserved

These released exam inaUonmaterials are distributed by th American Student Dental Association

with

permission from lt1e

American Dental Association Joint Commisskln on National Dental Examina tions You may not copy for any

purpos

this

publicat ion Orany part 01it in ptin\ electronic or other format without pnoeexpress written permission trom the American

Dental Associat ion

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Important Not ice and Disclaimer Concerning These Materials

These materials are distributed by the American Student Dental Association (ASDA) with permission

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American Dental Association Joint ommission on National Dental Examinations. All of

th ese released Items are the copyrighted property of the American Dental Association. You may not

copy

for any purpose this publication, or

any

part of it, in pr int , electronic or other format wi thout prior

express

wr

itten permission from the American Dental Association.

This collection of examination materials includes questions compiled from examinations administered by the

Joint Commission on National Dental Examinations from approximately 2000 to 2008. The Joint Commission

periodically releases items no longer in use to familiarize candidates, educators and others with the general

format and content of its examinations. A content outline of the current examination may be found in the uide

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Released materials may no longer be consistent with the current content specifications, content emphasis or

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y

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Dental Examinations.

WARNING: All test material, items or questions currently in use in the National Board examination programs

are considered unreleased items. Examination regulations prohibit the sharing or use of unreleased items

under any circumstances, including efforts to remember and reconstitute exam items.

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of dentistry.

JOINT COMMISSION ON NA

TION L

DENT

L

EXAMINATIONS

MERICAN DENT

L

SSO I TION

211 EAST CHICAGO AVENUE, CHICAGO, ILLINOIS 60611

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merican

DentalAssociation, JointCommssionon Nationa DentalExaminations All rightsreserved.

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TABLE OF CONTENTS

Part II Released Items 5

Case A Questions

Case B Questions 4

Case A 6

Case B

Answer Key

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2

3

A

patient

has pain over the left pre-auricular area;

this patient can open approximately 45 mm and

has a pop-and-ctck in the joint area. The most

likely diagnosis is

A.

myofascial pain dysfunction syndrome.

B. internal derangement with reduction.

C. auriculotemporal syndrome.

D. coronoid hyperplasia.

Erythromycin is responsible for numerous drug

interactions, some of which are fatal. This is

because erythromycin

A.

increases the absorption of many drugs.

B. decreases the absorption of many drugs.

C. decreases cytochrome P-450 metabolism of

other drugs.

D. increases renal reabsorption of many drugs.

E. decreases distribution of many drugs.

The penetrating quali ty of x-ray beams is

influenced by which of Ihe following?

A.

Kilovoltage

B. Milliamperage

C. Exposure time

D. Focal-film distance

E. Filament temperature

6

7

8

9

A 2-day-old developing plaque consists primarily of

A Treponema species.

B. Bacteroides species.

C. filamentous organisms.

D. gram-positive cocci and rods .

E. a structureless, non-mineralized pellicle.

Each of the fol lowing is an electromagnetic

radialion EXCEPT one. Which one is the

EXCEPTION?

A. Rada r

B. X rays

C. Alpha rays

D. Gamma rays

E. Visible light

Which of the fal lowing is NOT a complication of

radiation therapy?

A. Mucositis

B. Xerostom ia

C. Osteoradionecrosis

D. Granuloma

Each of the fol lowing is known to contribute to

orofaclal

c eftin g EXCEPT one. Which one is the

EXCEPTION?

Contraction of the lateral pterygoid muscle moves

the articular disk in which of the fol lowing

directions?

10 . Which of the following physical signs indicates

severe CNS oxygen deprivation?

4

B.

c.

D.

E.

Anteriorly and medially

Posteriorly and medially

Anteriorly and laterally

Posteriorly and laterally

Anteriorly, laterally, and inferiorly

A

B

c.

D

Valium

Poor diet

Acetaminophen

Vitamin deficiency or excess

5

A e rease in which of the fol lowing causes an

increase in radiog raphic density?

A.

B.

c.

D.

Dilated pupils with increased light reflex

Pinpoint pupils with increased light reflex

Dilated pupils with an absence of light reflex

Pinpoint pupils with an absence of light

reflex

A.

B

c.

D.

E.

Milliamperage mA)

Kilovoltage peak kVp)

Object-film distance

Source-film distance

Exposure time

5

11 . Subconjunctival hemorrhage is most commonly

found in which of the followi ng fractures?

A Nasal

B. LeFort I

C. Frontal sinus

D. Zygomatic arch

E. Zygomaticomaxillary complex

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18 Acute pyogenic bacterial infections produce

12

13

Which of the fol lowing drug groups increases

intraocular pres sure and is, therefore,

contraindicated in patients with glaucoma?

A. Catecholamines

B. Belladonna alkaloids

C. Anticholinesterases

D. Organophosphates

Which of the fonowing besl describes a vestibu

loplasty?

A Bone is added to the mandible to augment

ils height.

B. Osseointegrated denial implants are placed

10support prosthesis.

C. Soft tissue is repositioned in order to

increase the area on which the denture may

be supported.

D. The chin is augmented to enhance estheti cs.

E

Periodontal tissue is removed from around a

tooth to establish a biologic width.

17

19.

An analgesic compound 3 conta ins how many mg

of codeine?

A 7 5

B. 15

C

D 6

A. leukopenia.

B. lymphopenia.

C. neutropenia.

D. leukocytosis .

E

lymphocytosis .

A 35-year-old woman has an acute dentoalveolar

abscess. Which of the following conditions will be

the most l ikely to compl icate the management of

this patient?

14

. On a new patients initial appointment. the dentist

should do which of the following first?

A

B

c.

D.

Asthma

Epilepsy

Chemotherapy

Hypertension

A

B.

c.

D.

Establish rapport

Inform

Gather information

Evaluate

2 Which of the following is indicated to correct a

condition of atropine poisoning evidenced by rapid

heart rate, dry mouth and gastrointestinal

inactivity?

15, An elderly patient has worn a maxillary complete

denture against 6 mandibular anterior teeth for an

extended period of time. In examining the

edentulous mouth of this patient, the dentist would

probably see which of the following?

A.

B

C

o

E

Nicotine

Homatropine

Epinephrine

Pilocarpine

Physostigmine

16. The useof study casts in orthognalhic surgery

does each of the fol lowing EXCEPT one. Which

one is the EXCEPTION?

A.

B.

c.

D

Intrusion of the mandibu lar anterior teeth

Flabby

ridge

tissue in the pos

terior

maxillary

arch

Loss of osseous structure in the anterior

maxillary arch

Cystic degeneration of the foram ina of the

anterior palatine nerve

21

If a patient suddenly becomes unconscious during

treatment. the practitioner should immediately

assess the patient s

A.

airway and pulse .

B. airway and blood pressure.

C. pulse and blood pressu re.

D. color and pupils.

A, Constructs splints

B. Performs

mo

del surgery

C. Determines the postoperative occlusion

D. Identifies the type of skeletal deformity

E. Aids in explaining the surgical procedure to

the patient

6

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22

Gingival

overg

rowth . hirsutism, coa rsening of facial

features, lymph gland hypertrophy, cognitive

deficits, and fetal abnormalities are side effects

associated with which of the following antlepileptic

drugs

A. Phenobarbital

B. Carb amazepi ne Tegretoj)

C. vaioroate Depakene )

D. Phenytoin Dilantin)

E. Ethosuximide Zarontin)

27

What space management treatment should be

p la nn ed for a child age 4. missing both primary

mandibular first molars with no primate space

present?

A. Lingual arch

B. Distal shoe{s)

C. Nance holding arch

D. Band-and-loop spa ce mainta iner s)

E. Observation ; no space maintai

ner

necessary.

W hich of the following should be performed first for

a collapsed or unconscious victim of illness or

accident?

Each of the followi ng characterizes an impend ing

insulin shock EXC EPT one. Which one is the

EXCEPTION?

23

A .

C.

D

Ope n the airway

Establish unresponsiveness

Establish pulselessness

Examine the victim for b

leeding and

fractures

28

A.

B.

C

D.

Weakness

Convulsions

Mental confusion

Cold per spiration

24

25

A p at ie nt p re se nt s with facia l lacerations thai ha ve

lrreqular or devitalized

wound

edges. In excising

the wound elliptically, a practitioner takes into

account eac h of the following EXCE PT one . Which

is th e EXC EPTION?

A, Excision is perpendicular to the natural skin

tension lines.

B. Length to width rat io of the excision is at

least 3 to 1.

C . Excision is done as conservatively as

possible.

D. The wound is undermined prior to closure.

Wh ich of the following represents the major route

of excretion of penicillin V?

A. Secretion in the bile and into the feces

B. Excretion in the urine as inactive metabolite s

C. Total metabolism by the liver and excretion

in the feces

D. Secretion not metabolized in the urine

29

3

31

An unconscious patient is suspected of having an

obstructed airway. How should this patient be

managed?

A. Protrude the tong ue , clear the pharynx,

extend the neck, and protrude the mandibl e

B. Extend the neck, clear the pharynx, protrude

the tongu e. and protrude the mandible

C. Extend the neck, protrud e the mandible,

protrude the tongue, and clea r the phary nx

D. Clear the pharynx, extend the neck , protrude

the mandible, and protrude the tongue

A tender swell ing in the soft tissue of the

submandibular tr iangle is most likely caused by

A. lipoma .

B. lymphadenopathy.

C. an obstruction of stensen s duct.

D. an infected thy roglossal duct cyst.

Which of the follow ing is the least helpful in

determining the anatomical integrity of the

temporomandibular joint?

26.

WhiCh of the following systemic conditions lowers

resistance, impairs healing , and indicates earl y use

of antibiotics for infections?

A.

Vitamin C deficiency

B . Diabet es mellitus

C. Poly cythemia vera

D. Systemic lupus erythematosus

7

A.

B

c.

D

E.

Arth rography

Arthroscopy

Panora mic fil ms

Compute rized tomog raphy

Magnetic resonance imaging

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32 A freshly condensed Class II amalgam restoration

has a defici ent margin at the proximogingivar

cavosurface angle. This might have been caused

by

which of the

following?

A. Overtightening the matrix band

B. Neglecting to wedge the matrix band

C, Neglect ing to contour the matrix band

D. Using too large an initial increment of

amalgam

36. Which of the following is a local contraindication for

the surgical removal of an impacted tooth?

A. A nonvital tooth

8. Fever of unknown origin

C. A history of bleeding disorder

D. An undiagnosed ulcer in the oral cavity

E. Pale g ingiva with a confirmed history of

anemia

33

34

Each of the fol lowing measures can minimize

fractures of the maxillary alveolar process

EXCEPT

one.

Which one is the EXCEPTION?

A Use of controlled force when using forceps

and elevators

B. Removal of buccal bone and/or sectioning of

teeth

C. A thorough presurgical analysis and planning

alterations in the surgica l approach

D. Use of the maxillary pinch grasp 10detect

expansion of the alveolar bone

E. Use of forceps with beaks that grasp the

roots more firmly

Ethyl a lcohol is a good ant idote for methanol

poisoning because

37

38

Which of the following properties increases

when

the intermediate chain of a local anesthetic drug is

lengthened?

A. Potency

8. Allergenicity

C. Solubility in

water

D. Rate of

botr

anstormanon

Which of the following is NOT an advantage of

chemical vapor sterili zation?

A. Cycle time is short.

B.

will not char fabrics.

C.

It

will not cause corrosion.

D. There is no need for special ventilation.

E.

Instruments are dry at the end of the cycle.

Each of the following nonsedating antihistamines

would be contraindicated in an individual taking

cimetidine for heartburn

EXCEPT

one. Which one

is the EXCEPTION?

A. it inhibits methanol metabolism.

8. it competes successfully with methanol for

alcohol dehydrogenase.

C. it prevents formation of formaldehyde.

D.

it

prevents

damage

to the optic nerve .

E. All of the above.

The most common cause of f racture at the isthmus

of

a

Class II restoration is

Alveoplasty following closed extraction is usually

performed with

a bur.

fingers.

a rongeur.

a bone file.

A.

B.

A. delayed amalgam expansion.

B. a sharp axio-pulpafIine angle.

C. isthmus width too narrow.

O. moisture contamination of the amalgam

during placement.

E. lack of interproximal contact.

39

4

Astemizole Hismanal

Diphenhydramine Benadryl

Fexofenadine Allegra

Hydroxyzine Vistaril

Terfenadine Seldane

A.

B.

c.

D

E.

35

4 The periosteal e levator is used to do each of

the

following

EXCEPT

one. Which one is the

EXCEP

TION?

A. Luxate the teeth

B. Retract the soft t issue flap

C. Elevate the interdental papil lae

O. Provide protection to the soft ti ssue flap

8

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. The fenestration technique for mandibular vesubu

loplasty is based on the premise that the mucosal

attachment will

48 How does the growth of the cranial base generally

relate in time to the growth of the j ws

A.

B.

c

D.

not cross the skin graft.

not cross the mucosal graft.

not cross a fibrous scar band.

be maintained in its lowered position by the

new denture.

A

B.

c.

D.

E.

Follows

Precedes

Unrelated

Accompanies

Initially follows, then accompanies

43

Which of the following represents a constitutional

symptom?

49.

Aplastic anemia is a serious toxic effect associated

most frequently with which of the following

antib iotics?

44

Which of the following is the most commonly used

surgical procedure to correct maxillary

retrognathia?

5

The therapeutic index of a given drug indicates the

relative

A

B.

c

D.

A

B.

c

D.

Tinnitus

Chills

Xerostomia

Dysphagia

C-osteotomy

Le Fort I osteotomy

Inverted Losteotomy

Anterior maxillary osteotomy

A

B.

c.

D.

A

B.

c.

D

E

Streptomycin

Tetracycline

Chloramphenicol

Chlortetracycline

safety.

potency.

efficacy.

duration.

solubi lity.

45

In the preauricular approach to the TMJ, which of

the following anatomic structures, if damaged,

presents the potential for greatest morbidity?

51.

Which of the following flap designs allows the best

surgical access to the apical aspect of a tooth root

with the least reflection of soft lissue?

A

B

c.

D.

E

Facial nerve

Parotid gland

Auriculotemporal nerve

Superficial temporal vein

Facial artery

A.

B.

c.

D.

Envelope

Semilunar

Vertical release

Rotation pedicle

46

Which of the following is most clearly associated

with the appearance of moon facies ?

52.

Each of the following is a disadvantage of oral

sedation EXCEPT one. Which one is the

EXCEPTION?

47

A. Hyperthyroidism

B. Regular corticosteroid use

C. Diabetes mellitus

D. Pancreatic insufficiency

Osteomyelitis of the mandible is most l ikely to

develop because of

A. failure of pus to localize.

B. a resistant strain of bacteria.

C. low resistance of the patient.

D. lack of drainage from the infected area.

9

A.

B.

c.

D.

The admin istrator has little control over the

ultimate clinical actions of the drug s).

There can be significant differences in the

bioavailabihty of oral drugs.

With most oral drugs, there is a relatively

slow onset of cl inical activity and a

prolonged duration of action.

Oral anxiolytic drugs are effective in relieving

anxiety in the hours immediately preceding

the dental appointment.

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53.

Principles for managing a localized alveolar osteitis

after extraction of a mandibular first molar include

each of the following EXCEPT one . Which one is

the EXCE PTION?

56

You are doing some preprosthetic surgery on

a

patient in preparation fo r a new den tu re. Which of

the following statements about removal of her

moderate-sized mandibular lingual tori is correct?

54

A. Flushing out debris with normal saline

solution

B. Curetting the boney wall to promote bleeding

C.

Placing a sedative dressing in the socke t to

protect exposed bone

D. Administering mild analgesic drugs as an

adjunct to local treatment

When is the most app ropriate time to permanently

modify/alter the occlusion of an acute TMD

patient?

A.

B.

c.

D

The tori should be removed using a large

p

ear

-shaped acrylic bur.

The tori should be removed by grooving the

superior surface then shearing the torus off

with a mono -beveled chisel. The area is

then smoothed with a bone file .

The tori should be removed by grooving the

superior surface of the torus with a bur, then

shear the torus off with a bibeveled chisel.

The tori should be removed by inserting a

rongeurs vertically under a lingual flap and

snipping off

the tori.

55

A. During the first visit, whi le the patient has the

acute symptoms

B. Prior to initiating splint therapy, one week

after the first visit

C. Only after the patient is sympton-free and

has shown improvement during splint

therapy

D. Never, until definitive orthodontic treatment

has been started

Which of the following best defines the term

Temporomandibular Disorders ?

A. A clinical condition related to dysfunction of

the temporomandibular joint and disk

B. A collective term for a heterogenous group

of musculoskeletal disorders of varying

etiologies , that present with similar signs and

symptoms

C. A clinical condition caused by disharmony

between the occlusal proprioceptors and

masticatory muscles

D. A

group of clinical conditions that arise from

excessive loads being placed on the TM

joints by muscle spasms, resulti ng in disk

displacement on one or both sides

10

57

58

Which of the following statements about the flap

for the removal of a palatal torus is correct?

A. The most opt imal flap uses a midline incision

which courses from the papilla between

teeth

8

and

9

posteriorly to the junction of

the

har

d and soft palates.

B The most opt imal flap is a ref lect ion of the

enti re hard palate mucoperiosteum back to a

line between the

2

f irst molar teeth.

C. The most optimal flap uses a midpalatal

incision that courses from the palata l aspect

of tooth

3

across to the palatal aspect of

tooth

4

D. The

most

optimal flap is shaped like a

double-r , with a midline incision and

anterior and posterior side arms extending

bilaterally from the ends of the midline

incision.

Which of the following statements about

maxil lofacial bone grafts is INCORRECT?

enogr fts

re

frequently used in

mandibular reconstruction.

B. The most common source of autologous

bone is the iliac crest.

c . Allogeneic banked bone is often used as a

carrier, suppl emented with an autogenous

graft.

D. An example of isogeneic bone grafting is

transplanting bone marrow in the treatment

of such diseases as leukemia.

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59

6

Your patient

was

referred to an oral and

maxillofacial surgeon for an impla nt, and you were

advised that she

was

going 10need a sinus l ift

procedure with placement of an autogenous bone

graft. What is the def in it ion of thai graft?

A. The graft will use an artificial, bone-like

material.

B. The graft uses bone from another human

being.

C. The graft uses the patient s own bone, laken

from another site.

D. The graft uses bovine bone, or bone from

another animal species .

A complete denture patient returns for a 24-hour

post-op appointment after insertion of new

dentures. The patient points to a sore area on top

of the mandib

ular

ridge crest on the posterior right

side but no sore spot is visually evident. Which of

the fol lowing is the first procedure the dentist

should perform?

62

63.

Each of the fol lowing statements concerning the

adm inistration technique of inhalation sedation is

correct, EXCEPT one . Which one is the

EXCEPTION?

A. the pat ient is wearing contact lenses, they

should be removed prior to administration of

the sedation.

B. The pat ient should be seated in an upright

85-90

degree) posit ion in the dental cha ir .

C. The initia l flow rate of oxygen should be at

least 6 Umin via the nasal hood.

D.

As the flow of n it rous oxide through a mixing

dial style unit is increased, the f low rate of

oxygen is reduced, so the correct

percentage of each is del ivered at a

constant flow rate.

Each of the fol lowing is a common cause of

postsurgical atelectasis decreased expansion of

the alveo li) EXCEPT one. Which one is the

EXCEPT ION?

A.

B.

c.

E.

Reduce the centric contacts on all posterior

teeth on the right side of the mandib

ular

denture.

Using a large acrylic bur, grossly reduce the

intemal surface of the denture.

Reduce all eccentric contacts on the right

side of the maxillary and mandibular

dentures.

Apply pressure indicator paste to the internal

surface of the mandibular denture and check

for pressure spots.

Tell the patient this is normal for the first day

of wearing new dentures and to retu rn in one

week for another post-op check.

64.

A. Shallow inspirations

B. Pain -limiting movement

C. Inactivity after surgery

D. Preoperative respiratory infection

E. Narcoti c analgesic that depress the

respira tory drive

Cavity liners should have a minimal thickness of

A. 1

mm.

B 5

mm.

C

5

mm.

D. 25

mm.

6 When a patient bites on a hard ob jec t on the left

mandibular molar, the interarticular pressure of the

right temporomandibular joint is

65

. Each of the following statements is correct

regarding phenytoin EXCEPT one. Which one is

the EXCEPTION?

A.

B

c.

o

increased.

decr

eased.

remains unchanged.

varied but it is unpredictable.

11

A.

B.

c.

D

E

Causes gingival hyperplasia

Corrects certain cardiac dysrhythmias

Is ineffective when administe red orally

Causes toxic effects related to the

cerebellum and vestibular system

Exerts antiseizure activ ity at doses which do

not cause general CNS d

epr

ession

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66

A

properly

executed posterior superior alveolar

nerve block will anesthetize each of the follOWIng

structures

EXCEPT

one. Which one is the

EXCEPTION

A. Maxillary sinus membrane in the molar

region

B. Second and third molar teeth and a portion

of the first molar tooth

C. Buccal alveolar bone soft tissue and

periodontium in the posterior maxilla

D. Soft palate mucosa on the side of the

injection

71

72

Which of the fol lowing is the most serious result of

digoxin intoxication?

A. Bradycardia

B. Renal failure

C. Atrial tachycardia

D. Atrial fibrillation

E. Ventricular fibrillation

Each of the following represents an advantage of

oral sedation EXCEPT one . Which one is the

EXCEPTION?

67

Which areas should be avoided for an M injection

before a chi ld can walk?

A. Gluteal muscles

B. Ventrogluleal

C. Vastus tateraus

D. Deltoid area

A.

B.

c.

D.

Need for specialized training and equipment

High incidence and severity of adverse

reactions

Erratic and incomplete absorption of drugs

from the llract

Short duration of action

The depth of l ight penetration into the tooth or

restoration before it is reflected outward is the

68 . Adrenal insufficiency during major stress results in

69. A palienllhat is having general anesthesia using

an

barbiturate rapidly passes through

74

In young patients stains are usually more

prominent in which areas of the teeth?

A

B.

C

o

A.

B.

C.

D.

gingival hyperplasia.

cardiovascular collapse.

hypotension.

ketoacidosis.

Stage

I.

Stage II.

Stage III.

Stage IV.

A

B

C

D.

A

B.

C

D

metamerism.

degree of translucency.

color perception.

value.

Incisal

Occlusal

Cervical

Facia

7

Which of the following antibiotics has been

implicated in the vast major ity of cases of oral

contraceptive failure during antib iotic use?

A. Penicillin

B Rifampin

C.

eflex

D. Erythromycin

E. Tetracycline

12

75. The character and individuality of teeth are largely

determined by

A

translucency.

B. surface texture .

C. color.

D shape.

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7 When the denti st enters the operatory, the patient,

who is new to the office, stands close to the wall ,

has his arms folded, and is looking at the floor. The

dentist should initiate communication by saying

whichof the following?

A. let s get going, I ve got a

lot

to do.

B. What are you angry about?

C. Didnt my assistant gel you seated?

D. You seem uncomfortable: did you have a

bad dental experience?

E. Hi, I m Doctor Wilson , what brings you here

today?

81

82.

The outstanding advantage of phenytoin over

phenobarbital in the treatment of epilepsy is that

phenytoin

A. does not bring about dependence.

S has a longer duration of action.

C. is effective against both grand and petit mal.

D. produces less sedation for a given degree of

motor cortex depression.

The main function of the liner used in a casting

ring is to

Exception to its use in a given situation is

acceptable if the patient is informed and consents.

The use of a rubber dam is considered an

essential component of endodontic

armamentarium.

The Occupational Safety and Health

Administration s (OSHA) Bloodbome Pathogens

Standard deals with each of the fol lowing

EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?

A. Disposal of medical waste

B. Exposure Control Plan

C. Hepatitis B vaccination

D. Instrument sterilization and storage

E. Material Safety Data Sheets (MSDS)

provide venting of the mold.

help prevent shrinkage porosity.

provide easy divesting of the casting .

provide additional water to the investment

mix .

allow uniform and uninhibited setting

expansion of the investment.

A. Both statements are true.

B. Both statements are false.

C. The first statement is true, the second is

false.

D. The first statement is false, the second is

true.

E

A.

B

c.

D

84

83

A 4-year-old child has a history of frequent

spontaneous pain in a primary mandibular second

molar. This molar has a necrotic pulp. Which of the

following represents the treatment of choice?

A. Pulpectomy

B. Pulpotomy

C. Extraction

D. Pulp cap

A.

fluorescence

B. incandescence.

C. opalescence .

D. translucency.

E. metamerism.

The phenomenon whereby various light sources

produce different perceptions of color is ca lled

Which of the fol lowing is an outstanding advantage

of phenytoin over phenobarbital in the treatment of

grand mal epilepsy?

Which of the following antibiotics is the substitute

of choice for penic illin in the penicillin-sensitive

patient?

A. Cephalexin

B. Erythromycin

C. Tetracycline

D. Ctindamycin

8

79

78

77

A. Exerts less sedation for a given degree of

motor cortex depression

B. Is effective in a greater percentage of cases

C. Needs to be given much less frequentl y

D. Does not cause gastric distress

E Has a longer duration of action

13

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merican

Dental

sscclanon

. Joint Commisson on

National

Denial Exami

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85

86

A 2 0- ye ar-old patient presents with an upper

maxillary ce ntral inc iso r p reviously treated for

endodontic fra c tur es a t the le ve l of the

alveo

lar

crest.

Which of

the following represents the first

necessary step

to

restore and maintain the tooth s

esthetics?

A. Orth od on ti ca fl y extrude rem ai ni ng tooth

structure

B. Extract remaining too th structure

C. Fabricate FPD over the remaining root

O. Fabricate RPD over the remaining root

Shrinkage

poros

ity in a gold casting is associated

with

9

91

Bac k pressure porosity is

A. the same as occluded gas porosity.

S. the result of using an oxidizi ng flame .

C. mos t likely wtlen the wax pattern is

positioned ve ry close to the open end of the

ring.

D. often evidenced by rounded margins

on

the

casting .

E. the same as suck-back porosity.

Which of the followi ng explains y a properly

d es ig ne d rest on the lingual s ur fac e of a c an in e is

preferred to a

property

designed rest on

the

incisal

surface?

8 7.

Which of

the f ol lo wi ng is an

acronym

fOf a

marketing strategyto use for reluctant patients?

The most poten t antituberc ular drug is

A.

B.

C

O

E

A.

B.

C

O

the use of excessive flux .

the u se

of

no flux.

sprue diameter.

a ll oy oxida tion.

excessive bumout lime.

SUCCESS

RECRUIT

OPTIMEM

EIEI Q

A .

B

c

o.

A.

B

C.

O.

The e nam el is thicker on the lingual surface.

Less leverage is exerted against the tooth by

the lingual rest.

The visibil ity of, as well as access to, the

lingual surface is better.

The cingulum of the canine provides a

natura l surface for the recess.

ison iazid.

vancomycin.

trimethoprim .

sulfamethoxazole .

88

89

Spontaneous gingival

hemorrhage

or acute

stomatitis, observed in a pe dia tr ic patient

under

trealment for absence seizures,

indicates

withdrawal of which of the followi ng anticonvulsant

drugs?

A. Phenytoin

B. Ethosuximide

C. Carbamazepine

D. Phenobarbital

E Valproic acid

Whi ch of the following drugs is most likely to c aU SQ

convulsions when

a

physically dependent person is

withdrawn?

93

94

The main metabolite of ingested isopropyl alcohol

is

A. urea.

B acetone.

C. methanol.

D. acetaldehyde .

E. forma ldehyde.

Al the try-in appointment for a 3-unit posterio r gold

FPD, the proximal con tacts , fit, occlusion, contour,

and surface finish have been determined 10 be

acceptable. Which of the following represents what

step is accomplished next with this FPD?

A .

B.

C.

O

E.

Pentobarbital

e m b u t a

iazepam Valium

Hydroxyzine Vtstari

Chlo ral hydrate o c t e c

Chlorzoxazone Parafon Forte)

14

A.

B

C

O.

Soldering index

CopaJite preparations

Temporary cementation

Mix

zinc phosphate ceme nt

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95

Larger condensers and laterally applied

condensation forces are recommended to ensure

complete condensation of which of the follow ing

amalgam

types?

A. Admixed

B. Spherical

C. Lathe-cui

D. High-copper

E

Conventional

100 With respect 10temperature the processing cycle

of a denture is designed to

A. attain development of color.

B. prevent boiling of the monomer.

C. prevent breakdown of the initiator.

D. volatilize the hydroquinone inhibitor.

101 Alcoholic euphoria results from

9 . Proposed modes of action for the oral ant idiabetic

agents include each of the following EXCEPT one.


A.

B

c.

D

E

increased activity of the cerebrum.

increased activity of thalamic areas.

increased activity of limbic synapses.

decreased act ivity of medullary centers

removal of the inhibitory effect of the cortex .

A

B.

c

D.

E.

Blockade of glucagon release from pancreas

Blockade of catecholamine release from

adrenal medulla

Stimulation of insulin release from pancreatic

beta cells

Action as direct receptor agonists for the

insulin receptor

Increase affinity of tissues for ulifization of

available plasma glucose

102.

The portion of an artif icial tooth that is found only

in porcelain anterior teeth is

A. the pin.

B. the collar.

C. the finish line.

D. the diatoric.

E. None of the above.

9 . Compressing the acrylic resin in a rubbery stage

will probably result in

104

Which of the following is a disadvantage of glass

ionomer cement?

103 The casting shrinkage of cobalt-chromium alloys is

approximately

A

B

c

D.

an open bite or open pin.

porosity of the finished acrylic.

incomplete filling of the mold details .

large amounts of excess that is difficult to

trim.

A

B.

c.

D.

1.25 .

1.75 .

2.2 .

3 2

98

99

Which of the following statements concern ing ethyl

alcohol is true?

A.

It

produces a true stimulation of the central

nervous system.

B. II protects individuals against exposure to

cold by preventing heat loss.

C. It is metabolized primarily by the lungs .

D. It is partially absorbed in the stomach .

E. It possesses anticholinergic properties.

The most likely cause of failure in the pre-ceramic

soldering technique is

A. underheating the parts to be joined.

6 . overheating the parts to be joined .

C. using an incompatible solder.

D. using phosphate as the soldering

investment.

E preheating the soldering assembly.

15

1 5

A. Difficulty in mixing

B. Irritation of the pulp

C. Low bond strength to dentin

D. Moisture sensitivity during initial set

Which of the following will result when using a

thinner mix of a gypsum-bonded casting

investment?

A. Produce a smoother casting

B. Increase setting expansion

C. Decrease setting expansion

D. Increase thermal expansion

E. Decrease required burn-out temperature

ommiss

Denta

Exam

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106. Which of the following oral bacteria have been

implicated as periodontal pathogens?

112. Allowing the ultrasonic-scaler tip to remain on the

tooth suriace too long will

A. damage the tooth suriace.

B. dull the tip of the instrument.

e . bumish the calculus onto the tooth surface.

D. cause irreversible pulpal damage.

A.

B.

c

D.

Porphyromonas gingivalis. Eubacterium sp.,

and eampylobacter recta

Streptococcus gordonii, Streptococcus

mutens, and Gemetla so.

l actobacillus casei and Veillonella

so

Streptococcus mitior. Streptococcus gordoni i,

and Bacteroides gracilis

113.

The most important anticoagulant effect of heparin

is to interfere with the conversion of

107.

lOB

109.

The base of the incision in the gingivectomy

technique is located

A. in the alveolar mucosa.

B. at the mucogingival junction.

e. above the mucogingival junction.

D. coronal to the periodontal pocket.

E. at the level of the cementoenamel junction .

Which of the followi ng is the most important factor

affecting pulpal response?

A. Heat

B. Depth to which dentinal tubules are cut

C. Desicca tion

D. Invasion of bacteria

Primary herpetic gingivostomatitis is most likely to

occur in which of the follOWing age groups?

A. 1 5 years

B.

6 10

years

C. 11 15

years

D. 16-20 years

E.

21-25

years

114.

115.

1

.

A. PTA to PTe .

B. PTe to Factor VIII.

e. fibrinogen to fibrin.

D. prothrombin to thrombin.

E. proaccelerin to accelerin.

Dental phobias are very hard to eliminate because

they

A. are

ego-syntonic.

B. cannot be seen .

e. become habitual.

D. are self-reinforcing.

Which of the fol lowing describes a material with

high compressive strength but low tensile

strength?

A. Resilient

B. Brittle

e. Ductile

D. Malleable

The Occupational Safety and Health Administration

OSHA ) is concerned with regulated waste within

the office.

110. Which of the

llowin

q filling materials is least

desirable for use as Preventive Resin Restoration?

OSHA regulates the transportation of waste from

the office.

111

A. Microfilled resin

B. Amalgam

C. Hybrid resin

D. Gbss onon ,.. .

Each of the following osseous defects would be

classified as infrabony EXCEPT one. Which one is

the EXCEPTION?

A. A trough

B. A dehiscence

e. A hemiseptum

D. An interdental crater

16

117.



C The fi rs t gtalmonl ;s

lr u

,

th e

s

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118. What percentage of the U.S. population does not

have dental insurance?

122. The drug of choice to treat overdosage with

tricyclic antidepressants is

A.

B.

c.

D.

3540

45 50

55 60

6570

A.

B.

c.

D.

E.

atropine.

phenytoin .

physostigmine.

pentobarbital.

an amphetamine.

119.

A patient works at a nuclear power plant. He is

frequently exposed to a small amount of radiation,

although the dose he receives is below the

occupational limits. Which of the following best

explains why this patient need not wear his

employee film badge while he is having dental

radiographs made?

A. His badge records only gamma-radiation,

not x rays.

B. His film badge must be used only to

measure occupational doses.

C. It is unlikely that the current dose will rise

above his occupational limit.

D. The dose from the dental radiographs is too

low to be measured accurately by the

badge.

123

Chlortetracycline acts by interfering with

A. cell wall synthesis.

B. nucleic acid synthesis.

C. protein synthesis on bacterial but not

mammalian ribosomes.

D. protein synthesis on mammalian but not

bacterial ribosomes.

124

. The toxic impurity that can theoretically be found in

nitrous oxide gas is

A. ozone.

B. helium.

C. methane.

D. nitric oxide.

E. cyclopropane.

12

A 5-year-old child has a posterior unilateral

crossbite that is accompanied by a functional shift

of the mandible. When should this crossbtte be

corrected?

125. How many hours per day should a cervical pull

headgear be worn to achieve the most effective

results?

B.

c.

D.

Immediately, without waiting for the eruption

of permanent first molars

When all the primary teeth have exfoliated

After the permanent first molars have fully

erupted

When the child is approximately 9 years of

age

B

c.

D

E.

6

8

10

12

14

121 When determining the appropriate dose of

systemic fluoride supplement for a child, it is, most

important for the dentist to consider which of the

following?

A. The fluoride content of the drinking water

B. The child s diet and caries activity

C. The child s age and the fluoride content of

the drinking waler

D. The child s weight and the fluoride content of

the drinking water

17

26 Drug interaction resulting in serious adverse

cardiovascular events, including death, might occur

between erythromycin and which of the following

antihistamine drugs?

A. Tertenadlne (Seldane)

B. Promethazine (Phenergan)

C. Hydroxyzine (Atarax)

D. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl)

E. Chlorpheniramine (Chlor-Trimeton)

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127

. A mercury spilt in the laboratory or office is

appropriately cleaned up by

A. removing the mercury, then spraying the

area with

BA

l

B. scrubbing the spill area with hot water and

detergent.

C.

sweeping up the mercury and disposing of it

in a plastic bag.

D.

aspirating the mercury into a wash bottle

trap, then dusting the spill area with sulfur

powder.

128. The concentration of which of the following ions

determines the binding affinity of agonists and

antagonists to the opioi receptor?

A. Sodium

B.

Calcium

C. Chloride

D. Potassium

E. Phosphate

129

. In oommunicating with children, which of the

following should the dental team do?

A. Allow the parent to answer questions asked

by the child at cbejrsioe

B.

Allow both the parent and the dentist to

communicate simultaneously with the child

C.

Transmit word substitutes for dental

procedures and equipment during the

appointment

D. Attai n voice control to build the groundwork

for future instructions

130. A prescription includes each of the following parts

EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?

A. Superscription

B. Inscription

C. Subscription

D. Transcription

E. Conscription

131 . Inhalation of amyl nitrile can result in each of the

following EXCEPT one. Which is the EXCEPTION?

A.

Tachycardia

B.

Coronary artery dilation

C.

Peripheral arteriolar dilation

O. A

decrease

in

arterial blood pressure

E. Increased motility of the small bowel

18

132 Which of the following cannot be used 10 calculate

the dosage of a drug for a child?

A. Clark s rule

B. Vital signs

C. Body surface area

D. Body weight (mglkg)

133.

hich

of the following symptoms is the most

distinct characteristic of morphine poisoning?

A.

Comatose

sleep

B.

Pin-point pupils

C. Depressed respiration

D. Deep. rapid respiration

E. Widely dilated.

rco responsfv

e pupils

134 . In addition to the treatment of epilepsy, phenytoin

may be indicated for the treatment of

A. arrhythmia.

B.

narcolepsy.

C. hypertension.

D.

schizophrenia.

E. panic attacks .

135 . Which of the following drugs is commonty used in

the treatment of congestive heart failure?

A. Phenytoin

B.

Digitalis

C. Quinidine

O. Procamamide

E.

Nitroglycerin

136

. The mechanism of action of the muscle relaxation

induced by diazepam most clearly resembles that

produced by

A. d-tubocurarine.

B. meprobamate.

C.

succinylcholine.

D. decamethonium.

E. gallamine.

137

. What percent of the blood alcohol level is the most

likely to produce

a lethal effect in

50

per cent of the

population?

A. 0.05

B.

0.10

C. 0.20

D.

0.30

E.

0.50

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38 rolonged use of amylnitritem y resultin

142

hich of the following

bast

describes adjunctive

orthodontic treatment?

A. aplastic anemia.

8

thrombocytopenia.

Orthodontic therapy performed only with

C. gran ulocytopenia .

removable app liances

D methemoglobinemia.

8 Limited orthodontic treatment to align the

E

hy

poprothrombinemia

front teeth for maximum esthetics

C Orthodontic Ireatm

enllo

enhance restorative

and periodontal rehabilitation

39

he thinnest portion of the wax pattern should be

D

Early treatment of orthodontic prob

lems

to

placed

prevent more serious malocclus ion

A. agai nst the ring for support.

8 in the deepest part of the ring.

143 Which of the following drug groups is currently the

C opposite the direction of rotat ion of the

mainstay of treatment in depressive

castin g arm.

psychoneurotic disease?

D in the same direction as the rotat ion of the

casting arm.

A

Amphetamines

B Phenothiazines

C Benzodiazepines

14 Which of the following statements is true

D

Monoamine oxidase inhib itors

concerning anticholinesterase?

E

Tricyclic imipramine-like antidepressants

Agents such as DEP inhibit only plasma

cho linesterase .

144 Each of the following is a symptom of poisoning by

8

Organophosphates are readi ly absorbed

an organophosphate insecticide EXC EPT one .

through the skin.


C

Age nts may cause paroxysmal supraven-

trlcutar tachycardia .

Diarrh ea

D

Reactivators such as 2-PAM reactivate

8 Hot, dry skin

AC HE wh ich has undergone

C

Excessive salivation

E Alkaloid physostigmine has the greatest

D Increased lacrimation

number of side effects unrelated to ACHE

E

Skeletal muscle fasciculation

inhibition.

145 Digital is should be given to patients with atrial

141

In developing a canine-protected articulation where

fib rillation who require quinidine to avoid

the anterior vertical overlap is determined to be

A. hypokalemia.

e ss than 2 mm, the posterior cusp height shou ld

be kept shallow because the buccal cusps of the

8

thromboembolism.

posterior teeth will have to assist in protrusive

C

sino-atrial bradycardia.

orsciusron

D

ventricular tachyarrhythmias.

E

prolongation of P-R interval of the ECG.

A. Both the statement and the reason are

correct and related.

8 Both the statement and the reason are

46

The presence of Ag in metal-ceramic alloys

correct but NOT related.

contributes to which of the following?

C The statement is correct but the reason is

A

Increases melting temperature

NOT.

D. The statement is NOT correct, but the

B

Increases

alloy

strength

reason is correct.

C Increases alloy corrosion resistance

E NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is

D May cause green discoloration of the

correct.

porcelain

19

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147

. Hoving had a complete radiographic survey made

12

months ago, an asymptomatic adult patient

presents for a recall appointment. There is no

clinical evidence of caries or periodontal disease .

The United States Food and Drug Administration

would recommend which of the following for this

adult?

151 The

S

in DMFS signifies which of the following?

A

Score

B

Standard

C. Surfaces

O Simplified

E Significant

48

A No radiographs

B. Bite-wing radioqraphs

uruy

C. Panoramic radiograph only

D. Panoramic and bite-wing radiographs

E. FUll-mouth survey including bite-wing

radiographs

When high gold content alloys are compared to

base metal alloys, the base metal alloys exhibit

152

Ench of the following pharmacologic effects is

produced by ethanol EXCEPT one. Which one is

the EXCEPTION?

A. Diuresis

B. CNS depression

C Enzyme induction

D.

Cutaneous vasoconstriction

E. Increased gastric acid secretion

A.

B

c

o.

E.

a higher melting point , increased specific

graVity, and generally higher yield strength

and hardness.

a higher melting point, decreased specific

gravity, and generally higher yield strength

and hardness .

a higher melting point, generally higher yield

strength and hardness, and more consistent

bonding 1 porcelain .

increased specific gravity, generally lower

yield strength, and more consistent bonding

to porcelain.

decreased specific gravity, generally higher

yield strength and hardness, and more

consistent bonding to porcelain.

5

54

The cardiac glycosides w reduce the

concentration of which ion in an active heart

muscle cell?

A Sodium

B. Calcium

C. Chloride

D. Potassium

E. MagneSium

Which of the following antihypertensive agents acts

direcUy on arterial smooth muscle to cause

vasociletion?

149 The central skeletal muscle relaxation produced by

depressing the polysynaptic

renex

arcs is brought

about by all of the following drugs EXCEPT

A. diazepam l i u m ~

B. lorazepam (Ativan).

C

meprobama te (Equanil(K

D. d-tubocurarine (Tubarine).

155

A. Methyldopa (

J

domet)

B. Clonidine

C a t a p r e s

C. Guanethid ine (lsmeli n)

D. Metoprolol (Lopresso )

E. Hydralazine r e s o l i ~

The combination of a Schedule II narco tic with an

antipsychotic drug produces which of the

following?

15 Which of the following statements best describes

why L dope ovontually becceeee incHedivc in the

treatment of Parkinson s disease?

A.

B.

c.

o.

Neuroleptic analgesia

onscious sedation

Dissociative anesthesia

Psychotomimetic analgesia

A

B

c.

o.

E.

L-dopa absorption slows with aging.

Dopa decarboxylase activity increases with

age.

Dietary intake of pyridoxine speeds L-dopa

metabolism.

Patients gradually develop tolerance

because L-dopa induces liver enzyme

activity.

Neuronal cell loss in the substantia nigra is

progressive and continuous over the course

of

the d

isease

2

56 Which of the following drugs is excreted primarily

by renal tubular secretion?

A. Benzylpenicillin

B.

Strep

tom ycin

C. Tetracyc line

D. Bacitracin

E. Polymyxin

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57 Excessive vertical dimension of occlusion may

result in which of the following?

62 In pursuit of what the dentist believes is best for

the patient, the dentist attempts to control patient

behavior. This is known as

A

c

E.

Poor denture retention

Increased interocclusar distance

Drooping of the corners of the mouth

Creases and wrinkles around the lips

Trauma to underlying supporting tissues

A

B.

c.

D

autonomy.

competence .

maleficence.

paternalism.

58 Which of the following represents the cause of

death in poisoning from an irreversible

anticholinesterase, such as diisopropylfluo

rophosphate?

Which of the following is the most common reason

for a cast crown not to seat on a patient s tooth?

Loss of a primary right molar in a a-year-oro child

requires placement of a

A. band and loop.

B. distal shoe.

C. removable acrylic appliance.

D. None of the above.

The disk sensitivity assay for antibiotic activity is

used because

A. the results are obtainable in a few minutes.

B. it distinguishes between bacteriostatic and

bactericidal drugs.

C. it Indicates whether or not an antibiotic has

good oral absorption.

D. it allows for routine testing of sensit ivity to a

range of antibiotics.

Metabolism of a drug will usually result in

conversion to each of the following EXCEPT one .


A. Inactive form

B. More active compound

C. Less active compound

D. More water-soluble compound

E. Less ionized compound

Which of the following represents an

amphetamine-like drug that is widely used in the

treatment of hyperkinetic children?

A.

Doxapram Dopramj

B. Hydroxyzine Atarax)

C. Theophylline h e o b i d ~

D. Methylphenidate Ritalin)

166

164

165

63

When 50 mg. of chlorpromazine Thorazine) is

administered to a patient, on standing the patient

might experience a fall in blood pressure due to

which of the following?

A.

Anticholinergic action

B. Decrease in heart rate

C. Alpha-adrenergi c blockade

D. Negative inotropic action

E Stimulation of autonomic ganglia

Cardiac failure, resulting from excessive

vagal stimulation

Dehydration, resulting from hypermotility of

the gastrointestinal tract

Asphyxia, resulting from increased airway

resistance

Respiratory failure , resulting from paralysis

of the intercostals and the diaphragm

Central nervous system depression,

following prolonged excitation

Treatment with sulfonamides is less likely to be

accompanied by crystalluria if

A. a mixture of sulfonamides is used.

B. cortisone is administered concurrently.

C. probenecid is administered concurrently.

D. the urine is acidified with ammonium

chloride.

E. para-aminosalicylic acid is administered

concurrent ly.

E.

A. Overextended margins

B. Excessive proximal contact

C. Undercut areas on the preparation

D. Casting too wide bucco-lingually

E. Porosity within the inner surface of the

crown

c

D

A.

B.

159

161

16

21

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167. Which of lhe following agents Is the least effective

in producing topical anesthesia?

173 Nystatin Mycostatin is used in the treatment of

infections caused by

A

B.

C

D

E

Tetracaine Pontocaine

Butacaine Butyn

Procaine Novocaine

Lidocaine Xylocaine

Benzocaine

A.

B

c

D.

E

Peptostreptococci spp.

Bacteroides spp.

Candida albicans.

Streplococcus mutans.

Pseudomonas aeruginosa .

168

169

Which of the following routes of administration

exhibits the slowest rate of absorption?

A. Oral

B. Sublingual

C. Subcutaneous

D. Intramuscular

Which of the following sedatives is most likely to

cause a dry mouth?

A. Buspirone BuSpar

B. Hydroxyzine Vistaril

C. Chloral hydrate

D. Phenobarbital

lum n l

174

175

Which of the following analgesics can be given

either orally or by intramuscular injection?

A. Aspirin

B. Acetaminophen Tylenor

C Ibuprofen Motrin, Advil

D. Ketorolac Torador

E. Naproxen Naprosyn, Aleve

A cast gold restoration might be indicated for the

replacement of a faulty amalgam

1

obtain

A. better margins.

B. more ideal contours .

C

less trauma

1

the putp.

D. less removal of tooth structure.

17 Barbiturates taken in combination with very high

doses of ethanol exhibit an interaction best

described as which of the following?

A. Potentiation

B. Protein bumping

C. Negative synergism

D. Competit ive inhibition

E. Enterohepat ic circulation

7 During a soldering procedure, flux serves

1

A. provide an oxidizing environment in the area

to be soldered.

B. displace gases and dissolve corrosion

products.

C. remove any debris that may remain in Ihe

area

1

be soldered.

D. hold the solder in place during healing.

171 Which of the following erythromycins is both

enteric coated and long acting?

77 Excessive heating of the acrylic resin during

process ing should be avoided to prevent

172 Each of the following is a characteristic of tramadol

Ultram EXCEPT one. Which one is the

EXCEPTION?

178 Following compression of acrylic into the denture

flasks, placing the flasks into the processing tanks

at curing temperature is delayed to

A.

B.

c

D.

A

B

c

D.

E.

ERYC

E.E.S.

Erythrocin

lIosone

Centrally acting analgesic

Structurally similar to morphine

Binds to the mu-opioid receptor

Biolransformed inlo a more actlve metabolite

Inhibits uptake of norepinephrine and

serotonin

22

A.

B

c.

D

E.

A.

B.

c.

exothermic heal buildup .

acrylic resin shrinkage.

evaporation of the monomer.

excessive acrylic resin expansion.

discoloration of the acrylic resin.

assure complete flow of acrylic into the mold.

allow the monomer to permeate all polymer

crystals.

establish an equalized and uniform pressure

in the molds .

allow the flasks and the acrylic

1

reach a

stable temperalure.

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Which of the following represents the structure

indicated by the

arrows

on the radi

ograph?

Prior to

undergoing

scaling and root planing, how

should this pat ient be treated?

A. Innominate line

B. Lateral border of the orbit

C. Pterygoid plate of the sphenoid

D. Zygomatic process of the maxilla

E. Posterior border of the maxillary sinus

A. Leukoplakia

B. Nicotinic stomatitis

C. Chronic lip chewing

D. Psoriasis

E

Smokeless tobacco

hyp

erkeratosis

Alveolar osteitis in the removal of bony

impactions might occur (5-20%).

The alveolar nerve is not likely to be injured

during this extraction.

Horizontally impacted teeth are considered

the most difficult mandibular impactions.

Asymptomatic bony impactions are not

recommended for extraction in patients over

35 years-of-age .

c.

The posit ion of tooth 26 will complicate the design

of a maxillary prosthesis.

Maxillary tuberosity reduction on the patient's left

side would facilitate prosthesis fabrication.




false .

D. The first statement is false, the second is

true.

Which of the

f t owing

represents the best initial

restorative treatment for tooth 4?

B.

A.

Each of the following statements is true conceming

impacted teeth 17 and 32 EXCEPT one. Which

one is the EXCEPTION?

A. Place porcelain fused to metal crown

B. Restore with conservative MO amalgam

C. Treat mesial caries with composite resin

D. Place mesial glass lonorner restoration to

restore root caries lesion

E. No treatment is necessary.

D.

184

186

185

Amoxicillin

(Amoxil)

, 2 gm, 1

hour

prior to

procedure

Cephalexin (Keflexl, 3

gm,

1 hour prior to

procedure

Clarithromycin (Biaxin), 600 mg, 1 hour

prior

to procedure

Cllndamycm (Cleocin), 2 gm, 1 hour prior

to procedure

No antibiotic treatment is necessary.

c.

B.

D

ICase A s 179-1871

(see page 26)

The plaques on this patient's lower labial mucosa

most likely represent which of the following?

181

179

18

182

Which of the following risk factors is most likely to

contribute to future attachment loss in this patient?

A.

Probing depths greater than

3

mm

B. Insulin administration

C. Occlusion

D. Nutrition

E. Smoking

87

Prior to dental treatment using local anesthesia

without sedation the patient should be instructed to

take his usual dose of insulin and eat a normal

diet.

Ifthe patient is to have local anesthesia with

sedation, the patient should be instructed to reduce

the usual dose of insulin and not eat.

183. There is a vertical defect on the mesial of tooth 2.

There is a crater defect between tooth 2 and

tooth 3.




false .

D. The first statem ent is false, the second is

true.

A.

B.

C

D

Both statements are true.

Both statements are false .

The first statement is true, the second is

false .

The first statement is false , the second is

true.

23

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merican

Dental

ssociation

Joint

Commission

on

National

Denial

Examinations

AI rights

reserved

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166.

ICase B 's 188-200I

(see page 31)

Which of the following is the most likely periodontal

diagnosis for uus patient?

A. Plaque-induced gingivit is

B. Chronic periodontitis

C. Aggressive periodontitis

D. Necrotizing ulcerative periodontitis

193.

194.

Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis

for the radio lucency distal to the apical third of the

root of tooth 13?

A. Metastatic carcinoma

B.

latera

l periodontal cyst

C. Chronic periradicular periodontitis

D. Extension of the maxillary sinus

Which of the following is the most appropriate

restorative therapy for the patient's lower incisors?

Following root canal therapy on tooth 10, which of

the following foundation options, prior to crown

preparation, is most appropriate?

A. Bonded composite resin

B.

Pin retained composile resin

C. Prefabricated post and composite resin core

D. Composite resin into cana l continuous with

cere

Which of the following approaches would be best

in determining why the patient has had infrequent

dental care in the past?

A. Why haven't you gone to the dentist more

often? The more you avoid the dentist the

worse your dental fear will become.

B. It is costly to have two daughters in college,

you should go to the dentist more often or

you will need expensive dental treatment.

C. Can you tell me why someone with a

medical history as bad as yours has stayed

away from the denti st for so long?

D.

You have had many dental problems in the

past. If you had seen the dentist regularly as

you should have you wouldn 't have had as

many. What could possibly have kept you

away?

E. Could you tell me more about your past

dental experiences and present dental

concerns?

169 .

190.

191.

Which of the fol lowing is the strongest radiograph ic

evidence that tooth 10 requires endodontic

treatment?

A. Pulp chamber calcification

B. Periodontal bone loss coronally

C. Extent of coronal restorat ion

D. Widened apical periodontal ligament space

Which of the following is the best, most

conservative restorative treatment for teeth 6 and

?

A. All-ceramic crowns

B. Porcelain fused to metal crowns

C. Restore proximal surfaces as neededwith

composite resin

D. Apply fluoride

Which of the following treatments will achieve the

best esthetic results for teeth 7, 8, 9 and 10?

A. Place all-ceramic crowns on all four teeth

B. Place ceramic crown on tooth 7, and place

composite resin restorations on teeth 8

10

C. Place all-ceramic crowns on teeth 7 and

9

replace MI composite resin restoration

on tooth 8, remove facial caries on tooth

10and restore with composite

D.

Restore caries on the facial surface of tooth

7, polish composite resin restorations on

teeth 8 and 9, and place crown on tooth

10

E.

Place porcelai n fused to metal crowns on

teeth 7, 9 and 10, and restore the

mesial surface of tooth 8 with composite

195.

196.

A.

B.

C.

Splint together with composite resin

Remove failing margins and rough surfaces,

and place new composite restorations where

indicated

Place porcelain fused to metal crowns

No treatment is indicated.

192 .

Which of the following is the best means to

evaluate the pulpa l vitality of tooth 13?

A. Appl ication of cold to teeth 12 and 13

B. Percussion testing on teeth 5 and 13

C. Electric pulp testing of teeth 12 and 13

D. Palpation in the buccal vestibule from teeth

12

14

24

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97 Which of the following options is the best to

replace the missing mandibular teeth?

A. Mandibu lar removab le partial denture

B. Fixed partial denture teeth 20 to 22 and

removable partial denture

C. Fixed partial denture teeth 28 to 31 and

removable partial denture

O. Fixed partial denture teeth 18 to 22 and

fixed partial denture 28 to 31

198 . Which of the following is the best diagnosis for the

radiolucency apical to teeth 23- 261

A. Mental fossa

B. Coalesced periapical granulomas

C. Periapical cemental dysplasia

o . Central giant cell granuloma

E. Traumatic bone cyst

199 . Following initial therapy, oral hygiene is good and

there is a 1 mm reduction in probing depths.

Periodontal treatment of the mandibula r anterior

teeth would include

A. another round of scaling and root planning .

B. nap surgery.

C. soft tissue grafting.

O. regenerative therapy.

E. periodontal maintenance therapy only.

. In addition to oral hygiene instructions and scaling

and root planing, which of the following course of

actions is most appropriate during initial

periodontal therapy?

A. Systemic tetracycline administration for 10

days

B. Subgingival irrigation with 0.12

chlorhexidine

C. Consultation with physician conceming

diabetes mellitus

O. Tooth grinding for occlusal adjustment and

equilibration of the dentition

5

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ssoci tion

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I

CASE A

I

ental

History

Sporadic visits for emergency extraction s.

Ag e

38 YRS

Sex

IllIMale 0 Female

Height

5 10

Iwelght

154

LBS

BIP

2578

hief

I d o

n t

l ike the spaces in my

omplaint

upper teeth:

Medical

History

Diabetes

Social

Patient had a hang-gliding accident 3 years ago

History

with resuitant knee replacement.

Bartender

He smokes 1 pac k of cigarettes per day and uses

chewing tobacco.

urrent

Medications

insulin (Humulin R

;;

-

Q

ti l

C

OJ

o

o

-

-

Q

ti l

ti l

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ICASE B

I

Dental

History

Patient has had infrequent dental care .

Age

5 Y

Sex

8

Male 0 Female

Height

6 0

Weight

21 LBS

B/P

13 8

Chief

I m not happy with my front teeth .

Complaint

They fee l rough .

Medical

History

Patient says he had a mild stroke 3 years ago. Social

arrythmias

History

diabe t mellitus Type II

Patient is a building contractor with two daughters in college.

hypertension

Current

Medications

metformin (Glucophage

metoprolo l (Lapressor

)

sp r

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I CASE B I

Supplemental Oral xamination Findings

urrent Oral Hygiene Status

Fair

DULTCLINICAL EXAMINATION

3

6789

545

444

434

2

755 57

Probe 1

666 656 555 454 454 434

555 545 666 544

545 556 667

2

Probe2

55

5 565

667

756 55555 666

66 545

9

u

Vn

u

9

~

J

R

83)83)

QB

ffiW

9VVeY V9

~

m

J

Clinically

vi

ble carious jesson

g

Clinica lly mi n

ing

too:h

Probe

5 5 5 4

6

FurcatiQn

32 31 30 29 26 27 26 25

23 22 21 20 18

17

Through and throu gh /urcatlOl1

Probe 1:

initial probir lg depth

Probe 2:

probing dep th 1 melnl

aft

acal ing and I QOt

plll

ni ll

N

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w

o

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PART2 KEY

The keybelow maybeusedto rteterrmne correct andmcorrect answers howeve r lor thIs

Item

set

it

is not possible

to

conv

ert a raw scorn number correctto a staucurd ncore or essccreted J i ~ ~ l r n f f lf t US

B

5 B

E

5

C

2

C

52

2

A

52

3 A

53

R

3

C

53

D

4

A

54 C

4

D

54

E

5

D

55 B

5

C

55 A

6

D

56

B

6

A

56 A

7

C

57

D

7

C

57

E

8

D

58

A

8

B

58

D

9

C

59 C

9 A

59 A

C

6 D

B

6 B

E

6

B

B 6 D

2 B

62

B

2 A 62 D

3 C

63

D 3 C

63

C

4 A

64 C 4 D

64

D

5 C

65 C

5 B

65 E

6

D

66 D

6

C

66

D

7

C

67 A 7

A

67

C

8

D

68

B

8

D

68

A

9 C

69

B

9 B

69 B

2 E

7 B

2 A

7 A

A

7 E

2

C

171 A

22 D

72 C

22 C

72 B

23

B

73

B

23

C

73 C

24

A

74 C 24 D

74 D

25

D

75

B

25

E

75

B

26

B

76

E

26 A

76

B

27 D

B 27

D

77 C

28

B

78

E

28 A

78

D

29

D

79

A

29 C

79 E

3

B

8 A

3 E

8 D

3

C

8 D 3

E

8 A

32

D

82

E

32

B

82

E

33

E

83 C 33 B

83

D

34 E

84

E

34

A

84

C

35 C

85

A

35

B

85 C

36

D

86 C 36 B

86 A

37

A

87

C

37

E

87 A

38

D

88

E

38

D

88

B

39

B

89

A

39 B

89 D

4 B

9

D

4

B

9

C

4 A

9

B

4

C

9 A

42

C

92

A 42 C

92

A

43 B

93

B

43

E

93

C

44 B

94

C

44

B

94 B

45

A

95 B

45

D

95

E

46

B

96

D

46

D

96 C

47 C

97

C

47

A

97

B

48 B

98

D

48

B

98

A

49

C

99 B

49

D

99 B

5

A

B

5 E

2 C

asda ii-m (1)

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