d zeots-30 | questions d dd - zephyr...

PAGE: 1 ZEOTS-30 NEET MODEL EXAMINATION

TRIVANDRUM KOLLAM ERNAKULAM ZEPHYR

ZEOTS-30 | QUESTIONS

1. A substance breaks down by a stress of 106 N/m2. If the density of the material of the wire is 3 × 103 kg/m3, then the minimum length of the wire of that substance which will break under its own weight when suspended vertically is

(1) 3.4 m (2) 34 m (3) 340 m (4) 0.34 m 2. If the pressure of gas is increased from

1.01 × 105 Pa to 1.165 × 105 Pa and volume is decreased by 10% at constant temperature, then the bulk modulus of the gas is

(1) 15.5 × 105 Pa (2) 1.4 × 105 Pa (3) 1.55 × 105 Pa (4) 0.0155 × 105 Pa 3. A metal rod of Young’s modulus 2 ×

1010 N/m2 undergoes an elastic strain of 0.04%. The energy stored per volume is

(1) 1600 J/m3 (2) 3200 J/m3 (3) 16000 J/m3 (4) 32000 J/m3 4. A steel wire of negligible mass, length L

and cross section area A has one end fixed. A ball of mass m is attached to the other end of wire. The wire and ball are rotating with an angular velocity ω in a horizontal plane. If ∆L is extension produced in wire, then the Young’s modulus of wire is

(1) 2mL

A Lω

∆ (2)

2 2mLA L

ω∆

(3) 2m L

A Lω∆

(4) m LA L

ω∆

5. In a hydraulic press, f and F are the

forces acting on the small piston and the large piston having diameters d and D respectively. Then f / F is

(1) D2 / d2 (2) d / D (3) d2 / D2 (4) /D d 6. The volume of an air bubble becomes four

times as it rises from the bottom of a lake to its surface. The depth of the lake is

(1) 5 m (2) 10 m (3) 30 m (4) 50 m 7. The gate of a canal is 5 m wide, and the

water levels on either side of it are 20 m and 12 m. The resultant thrust on the gate (g = 10 ms–2) is

(1) 64 × 105 N (2) 64 × 103 N (3) 64 × 104 N (4) 64 × 107 N 8. A closed rectangular tank is completely

filled with water and is accelerated horizontally with an acceleration a towards right. Then, the pressure is

(1) maximum at B and minimum at D (2) maximum at C and minimum at D (3) maximum at B and minimum at C (4) maximum at B and minimum at A 9. A ball of density ρ is released from deep

inside of a liquid of density 2ρ. Ignore viscous force. The ball will move up

(1) with an increasing acceleration (2) with a decreasing acceleration (3) with a constant acceleration (4) with zero acceleration 10. Two solids A and B float in water. A floats

with half its volume immersed and B floats with 2/3rd of its volume immersed. The densities of A and B are in the ratio

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(1) 2 : 3 (2) 4 : 3 (3) 3 : 4 (4) 3 : 2 11. A raft of wood (density 600 kg / m3) of

mass 120 kg floats in water. How much weight can be put on the raft to just make it sink?

(1) 120 kg (2) 200 kg (3) 40 kg (4) 80 kg 12. A sphere has a hollow portion which is

one-third of its total volume. It floats in water with four-fifth of its volume immersed. The specific gravity of its material is

(1) 0.9 (2) 1.2 (3) 1.8 (4) 2.4 13. A cubical block of ice of side 10 cm

floats at the interface of an oil and water as shown in the figure. The density of oil is 0.6 g cm–3 and the lower face of ice cube is 2 cm below the interface. The guage pressure at the lower face of the block is

(1) 200 Pa (2) 620 Pa (3) 900 Pa (4) 800 Pa 14. A body having volume V is floating,

fully submerged in a liquid of density ρ. If the container starts moving upward with constant acceleration g/3, then the buoyant force acting on the body will become

(1) 3

V gρ (2)

23

V gρ

(3) 4

3V gρ

(4) V gρ

15. A sphere of radius R and made of

material of relative density σ has a concentric cavity of radius r. It just floats when placed in a tank full of water. The value of the ratio R/r will be

(1) 1/ 3

1σ

σ − (2)

1/ 31σ − σ

(3) 1/31σ +

σ (4)

1/311

σ + σ −

16. A balloon of mass M descends with an

acceleration a0. The mass that must be thrown out in order to give the balloon an equal upward acceleration will be

(1) 0Mag

(2) 02Mag

(3) 0

0

2Mag a+

(4) ( )0

0

M g aa

+

17. The level of water in a tank is 5 m high.

A hole of area 1 cm2 is made in the bottom of the tank The rate of leakage of water from the hole is (g = 10 m/s2)

(1) 10–3 m3/s (2) 10–4 m3/s (3) 10 m3/s (4) 10–2 m3/s 18. Figure shows a venturimeter, through

which water is flowing. The speed of water at X is 2 cm/s. The speed of water at Y (taking g = 10 ms–2) is

(1) 0.23 ms–1 (2) 0.32 ms–1 (3) 1.01 ms–1 (4) 10.24 ms–1



19. A lead sphere of mass m falls in a viscous liquid with a terminal velocity v0. Another lead sphere of mass 8 m will fall through the same liquid with a terminal velocity

(1) 0v (2) 04v (3) 08v (4) 064v 20. A viscous liquid is steadily flowing

though a series combination of two capillary tubes, one of length l and radius r and the other of radius r/2 and length l/4. The ratio of the pressure differences across the two tubes is

(1) 1 : 2 (2) 2 : 1 (3) 1 : 4 (4) 4 : 1

21. Three capillaries of length L, 2L

and 3L

are connected in series. Their radii are

,2rr and

3r

respectively. If a

streamlined flow is to be maintained and pressure difference across the first capillary is p, then the pressure difference across the second capillary will be

(1) 2 p (2) 8 p (3) p (4) p/2 22. A solid ball of density ρ1 and radius r

falls vertically through a liquid of density ρ2. Assume that the viscous force acting on the ball is f = krv, where k is a constant and v its velocity. What is the terminal velocity of the ball?

(1) ( )2

1 243

grk

π ρ − ρ (2)

( )1 223

rgk

π ρ − ρ

(3) ( )1 2

2

23

ggr k

π ρ + ρ (4)

( )21 24

3π ρ +ρgr

k

23. Water rises to height of 2 cm in a capillary

tube. The angle of contact is zero. The tube is now depressed further so that its length above the surface of water is only 1 cm. The apparent angle of contact now is

(1) 0º (2) 30º (3) 60º (4) 90º

24. A vessel has small hole of radius r at its bottom. The depth to which the vessel can be lowered vertically in a deep water (Surface Tension T) without any water entering inside is

(1) 4Tr gρ

(2) 3Tr gρ

(3) 2Tr gρ

(4) T

r gρ

25. Two soap bubble of unequal radii are in

communication with each other through a tube as shown in figure. Then,

(1) air flows from the larger bubble into

the smaller one until the two bubbles are of equal size

(2) air flows from the smaller bubble into the larger one. The larger bubble grows and the smaller one diminishes

(3) the size of the bubbles remains the same

(4) nothing can be said because the data is insufficient

26. A soap bubble is blown slowly at the end

of a tube by a pump supplying air at a constant rate. Which one of the following graphs represents the correct variation of the excess of pressure inside the bubble with time

(1) (2)

(3) (4) 27. Two thermometers, one Celsius and the

other Fahrenheit are put in a hot bath. The reading on Fahrenheit thermometer



is just three times the reading on Celsius thermometer. The temperature of the bath is

(1) 100°C (2) (80/3)°C (3) 80°C (4) 70°C 28. A vessel volume V and linear coefficient

of expansion α is filled with liquid. The level of liquid does not change on heating. The volume coefficient of real expansion of the liquid is

(1) VV+ α (2) V

V− α

(3) VV − α

(4) 3α

29. A composite bar of length L = L1 + L2 is

made up from a rod of material 1 and of length L1 attached to a road of material 2 and of length L2 as shown. If α1 and α2 are their respective coefficients of linear expansion, then equivalent coefficient of linear expansion of the composite rod is

(1) 1 2 2 1L LL

α + α (2) 2 2

1 2 2 12

L LL

α + α

(3) 1 1 2 2L LL

α + α (4) 2 2

1 1 2

1 1 2 2

(L L )( L L )α α +α + α

30. A uniform solid brass sphere is rotating

with angular speed ω about a diameter. If its temperature is now increased by 100°C, what will be its new angular speed?

(Given αB = 2.0 × 10–5 / °C) (1) 1.1 ω (2) 1.01 ω (3) 0.996 ω (4) 0.824 ω 31. A pendulum clock, made of a material

having coefficient to linear expansion α = 9 × 10–7 / °C has a period of 0.500 sec at 20°C. If the clock is used in a climate where temperature averages 30°C, what correction is necessary at the end of 30 days to the time given by clock

(1) 11.66 s (2) 3.88 s (3) 0.100 s (4) 2.0 s

32. Two tanks A and B contain water at 30°C and 80°C respectively. Calculate the amount of water that must be taken from each tank to prepare 40 kg of water at 50°C

(1) 24 kg, 16 kg (2) 16 kg, 24 kg (3) 20 kg, 20 kg (4) 30 kg, 10 kg 33. 2 kg of water at 60°C is mixed with 1 kg

of water at 30°C kept in a vessel of heat capacity 200 JK–1. The specific heat of water is 4, 200 Jkg–1 K–1. Then the final temperature is nearly

(1) 35°C (2) 45°C (3) 50°C (4) 55°C 34. A water fall is 168 m high. Assuming

that half the kinetic energy of the falling water gets converted into heat, the rise in the temperature of water is approximately (specific heat of water is 4200 J kg–1 K–1, g = 10 ms–2)

(1) 0.1°C (2) 0.2°C (3) 0.3°C (4) 0.4°C 35. Steam at 100°C is passed into 54 gm of

water at 30°C till the temperature of mixture becomes 90°C. If the latent heat of steam is 536 cal/g, the mass of the mixture will be

(1) 80 g (2) 60 g (3) 50 g (4) 24 g 36. Which of the following cylindrical rods

of the same material will conduct most heat when their ends are maintained at the same steady temperature?

(1) Length 1m; radius 1cm (2) Length 2m; radius 1cm (3) Length 2m; radius 2cm (4) Length 1m; radius 2cm 37. Two rods of the same material have

diameters in the ratio 1 : 2 and lengths in the ratio 2 : 1. If the temperature difference between their ends is the same, the ratio of heats conducted by them in a given time is

(1) 1 : 4 (2) 4 : 1 (3) 1 : 8 (4) 8 : 1



38. Three rods A, B and C of the same length and cross-sectional area are joined in series as shown. Their thermal conductivities are in the ratio 1 : 2 : 1.5. If the open ends of A and C are at 200°C and 18°C respectively, the temperature at the junction of A and B, in equilibrium, is

(1) 74°C (2) 116°C (3) 156°C (4) 148°C 39. Three rods made of the same material

and having the same cross-section have been joined as shown in figure. Each rod is of the same length. The left and right ends are kept at 0°C and 90°C respectively. The temperature of the junction of the three rods will be

(1) 45°C (2) 60°C (3) 30°C (4) 20°C 40. For a perfectly black body, absorbing

power ‘a’ and emissivity ‘e’ have values (1) a = 1, e = 0 (2) a = 1, e = 1 (3) a = 0, e = 1 (4) a = ∞, e = 1 41. If a black body radiates 20 calories per

second at 227°C, then at 727°C, it will radiate

(1) 10 cal / sec (2) 80 cal/s (3) 320 cal/s (4) 40 cal/sec 42. Assuming the sun to have a spherical

outer surface of radius r, radiating like a black body at temperature t°C, the power received by a unit surface (normal to the incident rays) at a distance R from the centre of the sun is

(1) 2 4

2

r (t 273)4 R

σ +π

(2) 2 2 4

2

16 r tR

π σ

(3) 2 4

2

r (t 273)R

σ + (4) 2 2

2

4 r 4R

π + σ

43. A conducting sphere cools in atmosphere

according to Newton’s law of cooling. The correct graph between its temperature θ and time t is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

44. In a room where the temperature is 30°C, a body cools from 61°C to 59°C in 4 min. The time (in minutes) taken by the body to cool from 51°C to 49°C will be

(1) 4 (2) 6 (3) 5 (4) 8 45. A black body radiates maximum energy

around the wavelength λ0. If the temperature of the black body is changed so that it radiates maximum energy around the wavelength 2λ, the ratio of final to initial power radiated by it will be

(1) 1/2 (2) 2 (3) 1/16 (4) 16



46. Which one of the following statements about chlorobenzene are correct?

a. Presence of chorine deactivates the benzene ring.

b. Presence of chlorine directs the in-coming electrophile to o-and p-position.

c. It is more reactive towards nucleophile substitution reaction than chloroethane.

d. It undergoes Wurtz-Fittig reaction with chloromethane to yield toluene.

(1) a, b and c (2) b, c and d (3) a, b and d (4) a, c and d 47. Identify the end product in the following

sequence of reactions

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) 48. An alkyl halide reacts with sodium to form

2, 7-dimethyl octane. The alkyl halide is (1) Isopentyl chloride

(2) Isobutyl chloride (3) 2-Methyl-1-chlorobutane (4) n-Pentyl chloride

49. Match the following

Column I Column II 1 CH2Cl2 P Freon12 2 CHCl3 Q R-22 3 CCl4 R Antiseptic 4 CCl2F2 S Paint remover T Fire extinguisher

(1) 1 – Q, 2 – R, 3 – P, 4 – S (2) 1 – S, 2 – Q, 3 – T, 4 – P

(3) 1 – Q, 2 – R, 3 – S, 4 – P (4) 1 – S, 2 – T, 3 – R, 4 – Q

50. The compound ‘A’ is

(1) (2)

(3) (4) 51. Identify the end product in the following

sequence of reactions CH3-CH=CH2

HBrPeroxide→ A

2

AlcoholicNaNO→ B

(1) CH3–CH2–CH2–NO2 (2) CH3–CH2-CH2–ONO (3) (CH3)2CH–NO2 (4) (CH3)2CH–ONO 52. In the following sequence of series,

C7 H8 2 23 /→ →Cl Br Fe

Heatand light darkA B

/→Zn HCl C

The compound ‘C’ is (1) o ─ Bromotoluene (2) m - Bromotoluene (3) p – Bromotoluene (4) 3- Bromo 2, 4, 6 trichlorotoluene

53. Identify the end product in the following

sequence of reactions CH3 | CH3 – C – Br A B | CH3

(1) sec-butyl bromide (2) n-butyl bromide (3) isobutyl bromide

(4) t-butyl bromide 54. Which one of the following has greater

tendency to undergo elimination reaction?

KOH/ethanol heat

HBr Peroxide



(1) ethyl bromide (2) n-propyl bromide (3) sec-butyl bromide (4) t-butyl bromide

55. The correct increasing order of dipole

moments of haloakanes is (1) CH3I, CH3Br, CH3Cl, CH3F

(2) CH3F, CH3Cl, CH3Br, CH3I (3) CH3I, CH3F, CH3Br, CH3Cl

(4) CH3I, CH3Br, CH3F, CH3Cl 56. Which one of the following pairs are

distinguished by using iodoform test? A. CH3CH2OH and CH3OH B. CH3CHO and CH3CH2CHO C. CH3CH2CH2OH and

CH3CH2CH2CH2OH D. CH3COCH3 and C2H5COC2H5 (1) A and B

(2) A, B and C (3) A, B and D (4) B, C and D

57. How many chiral carbon atoms are

present in Fructose? (1) Three (2) Two

(3) One (4) Four 58. Match the list I with list II

List I List II 1 n-butyl alcohol

and iso butyl alcohol

a functional isomerism

2 benzoic acid and phenyl formate

b position isomerism

3 isobutyl amine and t-butyl amine

c metamerism

4 acetone and prop-1-en-2-ol

d tautomerism

5 diethyl ether and methyl propyl ether

e chain isomerism

(1) 1-b, 2-a, 3-d, 4-e, 5-c (2) 1-e, 2-a, 3-d, 4-c, 5-b (3) 1-e, 2-a, 3-b, 4-d, 5-c (4) 1-b, 2-d, 3-e, 4-c, 5-a

59. Only one isomeric monochloro derivative is possible for

1. 2-methyl propane 2. n-butane

3. benzene 4. neo pentane

5. ethane (1) 1, 2 and 3 (2) 3, 4 and 5

(3) 1, 3 and 4 (4) 1, 2 and 5

60. C7H8O has how many isomeric forms that contain a benzene ring?

(1) 6 (2) 5 (3) 4 (4) 7

61. Which one of the following is / are

isomer (s) of acetone? 1. Allyl alcohol 2. Propanal 3. Vinyl alcohol 4. Acetaldehyde

(1) 1 only (2) 4 only (3) 1and 2 (4) 1, 2 and 4

62. Which one of the following statements is

incorrect? (1) trans-but-2-ene has higher melting

point than the cis-but-2-ene (2) cis-but-2-ene is non-polar and trans-

but-2-ene is polar (3) Of all the conformations of ethane, the

staggered form has the least torsional strain (4) The dihedral angle between the two

hydrogen atoms of two methyl groups in the staggered confirmation of ethane is 60°

63. Which of the following is the correct

order of stability of the following four distinct conformations of n-butane? (1) Fully eclipsed > partially eclipsed > gauche > staggered (2) Staggered > partially eclipsed > gauche > fully eclipsed (3) Staggered > gauche > partially eclipsed > fully eclipsed (4) Gauche > staggered > partially eclipsed > fully eclipsed

64. Which of the following exhibits

stereoisomerism? (1) 2–Methylbut-1-ene (2) 3–Methylbut-1-yne (3) 3–Methylbutanoic acid

(4) 2–Methylbutanoic acid



65. The compound C5H11Br have 8 structural isomers. Among these isomers, the number of primary, secondary, and tertiary bromides are respectively

(1) 4,2,2 (2) 5,2,1 (3) 4,3,1 (4) 5,3,0

66. How many isomeric forms of hexane are

optically active? (1) 6 (2) 5

(3) 3 (4) 0 67. The absolute configuration of the

following compound is

(1) 2 S, 3 R (2) 2 S, 3 S

(3) 2 R, 3 S (4) 2 R, 3 R 68. Metamers of ethyl propionate are (1) C4H9COOH and H – COO C4H9 (2) C4H9COOH and CH3 – COO – C3H7 (3) CH3 – COO – CH3 and CH3 – COO –

C3H7 (4) CH3 – COO – C3H7 and C3H7 – COO

– CH3 69. Arrange the following in the order of

increasing acidic strength (i) Benzoic acid

(ii) p-Nitro benzoic acid (iii) p-Methyl benzoic acid

(1) (i) < (ii) < (iii) (2) (iii) < (ii) < (i) (3) (ii) < (i) < (iii) (4) (iii) < (i) < (ii)

70. The stability of alkenes is highest in (1) 2, 3-dimethyl but-2-ene

(2) 2-Methyl but-2-ene (3) But-2-ene

(4) Propene 71. Which of the following species is not

electrophilic in nature?

(1) 3H O+

(2) 2N O+

(3) C l+

(4) BH3 72. The correct decreasing order of reactivity

for a given alkyl (R) group in both SN1 and SN2 reaction mechanisms is (1) R-I > R-Br > R-C1> R-F (2) R-I > R-Cl > R-Br > R-F (3) R-F > R-C1> R-Br > R-I (4) R-F > R-I > R-C1 > R-Br

73. Which one of the following is not

aromatic?

(1) (2)

(3) (4) 74. The temporary electron displacement

effect is (1) Inductive effect

(2) Electrometric effect (3) Resonance effect

(4) Hyperconjugation 75. Which of the following statement is

incorrect? (1) When inductive and electromeric

effects operates in opposite directions, the inductive effect predominates

(2) Greater the number of alkyl groups attached to a positively charged carbon atom, the greater is the hyper conjugation

(3) Tropolone is an example for nonbenzenoid aromatic compound

(4) Aliphatic ammines are stronger bases than aromatic compounds

76. The compound that is least reactive

towards sulphonation is (1) Benzene (2) Phenol

(3) Aniline (4) Chlorobenzene 77. Which one of the following is an

electrophilic substitution reaction?



(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) 78. Which one undergoes easy alkaline

hydrolysis? (1) CH2 = CH2 – Cl

(2) CH3 – CH2 Cl (3) CH2 = CH – CH2Cl

(4) CH3Cl 79. The electrophile in the sulphonation

reaction is (1) SO3

+ (2) SO3H (3) SO2 (4) SO3

80. The increasing order of the rate of nucleo-

philic addition to compound (1) to (4) is 1. Benzaldehyde 2. p-Tolualdehyde 3. p-Nitrobenzaldehyde 4. Acetophenone

(1) 1 < 4 < 2 < 3 (2) 3 < 1 < 2 < 4 (3) 4 < 1 < 2 < 3 (4) 4 < 2 < 1 < 3

81. When 2-pentyne is treated with dil.

H2SO4 and HgSO4, the product formed is (1) 1-pentamol (2) 2- pentanol (3) 2-pentanone (4) 3-pentanone 82. Match the following

Set I Set II A C2H5OH

2 4Conc.H SO170 C°

→ 1 Methane

B CHI3 Ag (Powder)∆→ 2 Ethylene

C CH3COONa (aq) Electrolysis→

3 Benzene

D CH3COONa NaOHCaO, ∆

→

4 Acetylene

5 Ethane

The correct match is (1) A-2, B-4, C-5, D-1

(2) A-2, B-4, C-5, D-3 (3) A-4, B-2, C-5, D-1

(4) A-4, B-2, C-5, D-3 83. An alkene on heating with hot

concentrated acidic KMnO4 gives acetone and acetic acid. The alkene is

(1) 2-methyl pent-2-ene (2) 2-methyl but-2-ene (3) 2-methyl pent-1-ene

(4) 2-methyl but-1-ene 84. Which of the following not only

decolourises alkaline potassium permanganate but also gives red precipitate with ammoniacal cuprous chloride solution?

(1) Ethane (2) Methane (3) Ethene (4) Acetylene

85. The reagent used for the conversion

CH CH COOH CH CH CH3 2 3 2 3→ is (1) LiAlH4 (2) Soda-lime (3) Red P and concentrated HI (4) Amalgamated zinc and concentrated

HCl 86. Benzene reacts with n-propyl chloride in

the presence of anhydrous AlCl3 to give predominantly

(1) n-propyl benzene (2) 2-ethyl benzene (3) isopropyl benzene

(4) m-chloro-propyl benzene 87. Methane on chlorination at high

temperature the possible products are (1) CCl4 (2) CHCl3

(3) CH3 – CH3 (4) All 88. Which among the following reagent can

change C6H6 to C6Cl6? (1) Chlorine in presence of red phosphorous

(2) Excess chlorine in presence of AlCl3 (3) Chlorine in presence of UV light

(4) With PCl5 89. (CH3)3 CH on oxidation with KMnO4 gives (1) resist oxidation



(2) (CH3)2 C = CH2 (3) (CH3)2 CO + CH3 – OH

(4) (CH3)3 C – OH 90. Peroxide effect is not observed in

addition of HI, because, (1) It is not cleavered by free radical (2) HI bond is a strong (3) Iodine free radical combine to form

Iodine molecule (4) HI is not dissociated in presence of peroxide

91. Casparian strips are found in the cells of (1) Pericycle of the stem (2) Endodermis of the monocot stem (3) Pericycle of the root (4) Endodermis of the root 92. Curling of grass leaves is usually

observed during the mid day in summer (1) Due to turgidity of bulliform cells (2) Rolling of bulliform cells (3) Rolling of subsidiary cells (4) Due to the flaccidity of bulliform cells 93. Choose the wrong statement? (1) Sapwood is functional (2) Periderm formation is seen in dicot

stem, dicot root and monocot stem (3) Autumn wood has high density (4) Secondary cortex is otherwise called

phelloderm 94. Find out the correct match (1) Phloem fibre – obliterated lumen (2) Vessel – lignified wall (3) Tracheid – Peripheral cytoplasm (4) Companion cell – gymnosperms 95. Innumerable vascular bundles, lack of

cambium and lack of well demarkated pith are the features of

(1) Sunflower (2) Tomato (3) Sugarcane (4) Pea 96. In a ring girdled plant (1) The plant dies after one week (2) Neither the root or shoot will die (3) The root dies first (4) The shoot dies first

97. Metaxylem and protoxylem derive from (1) Lateral meristem (2) Primary meristem (3) Secondary meristem and primary

meristem respectively (4) Vascular cambium 98. ‘Bast’ is antomically (1) Heart wood (2) Secondary xylem (3) Secondary phloem (4) Bark of Dicots 99. Vascular cambium gives rise to (1) Xylem and phloem (2) Xylem, Phloem and Secondary

medullary (3) Wood and Cork (4) Xylem, phloem and cork 100. A mature sieve tube differs from a vessel in (1) Being nearly dead (2) Lacking a functional nucleus (3) Absence of lignified wall (4) Having a tube-like structure 101. The newly formed secondary phloem lies (1) Outside the primary xylem (2) Between secondary phloem and

vascular cambium (3) Just outside the vascular cambium (4) Just inside the vascular cambium 102. Presence of uniform thickening is a

characteristic of (1) Parenchyma (2) Collenchyma (3) Sclerenchyma (4) Chlorenchyma 103. A plant having decayed heart wood (1) Will die soon (2) Will continue to grow (3) Ascent of water is affected (4) Transport of food is affected 104. Which is a wrong statement? (1) In monocot stem, epidermal hairs are

usually absent (2) Phloem fibres are abundantly found

in primary phloem (3) In root epiblema, cuticle is absent (4) Cell wall of phloem parenchyma has

plasmodesmatal connections



105. Intercalary meristem is responsible for increase in

(1) Breadth (2) Length (3) Girth (4) All of these 106. The cells which ‘left behind’ from shoot

apical meristem forms (1) Lateral meristem (2) Axillary bud (3) Cambium (4) Interfascicular cambium 107. Among the following tissues, how many

are primary in origin? Metaxylem, Phellum, Intrafascicular

cambium, Protophloem, Protoxylem, Secondary cortex, Phellogen, Interfascicular cambium, Conjuctive tissue

(1) 6 (2) 5 (3) 7 (4) 3 108. The extra stellar growth is due to (1) Vascular cambium (2) Primary meristem (3) phellogen (4) Interfasciular cambium 109. Find out the correct statements (i) Root hair are always unicellular (ii) Trichomes are always unicellular (iii) Trichomes may be branched or

unbranched (iv) Root hairs are endogenous in origin (1) (i), (ii) and (iv) (2) (iii), (iv) (3) (i) and (iii) (4) (i), (iii) and (iv) 110. Conjoint, collateral vascular bundles are

present in (1) Dicot stem and leaves (2) Dicot stem and monocot stem only (3) Dicot stem, monocot stem, and leaves (4) Dicot stem, and dicot leaves only 111. In dicot leaf (1) Protoxylem is towards the abaxial

surface (2) Phloem is towards the abaxial surface (3) Xylem is towards the abaxial surface (4) Metaxylem is towards the adaxial

surface

112. Stele of Roots includes (1) Vascular bundles, cortex and

pericycle (2) Conjuctive tissue, xylem and phloem (3) Vascular tissue, pith and endodermis (4) Pith, endodermis and lower cortex 113. Starch sheath is present in (1) Monocot stem (2) Monocot root (3) Dicot stem (4) Dicot root 114. The most durable wood is (1) Hard wood (2) Sap wood (3) Heart wood (4) Spring wood 115. Choose the characteristic of Root (1) Number of xylem strands (2) Exarch xylem (3) Endarch xylem (4) Occurance of secondary growth 116. The peripheral region of secondary

xylem (1) is dark in colour (2) is non-functional and dead (3) conducts water and minerals (4) is called soft wood 117. Find out the correct statement (1) Vascular cambium in dicot stem is

secondary in origin (2) Cork cambium in dicot root is

partially primary and partially secondary in origin

(3) Vascular cambium in dicot root is completely secondary in origin

(4) Cork cambium in dicot stem is primary in origin

118. The cork wall is thickened due to (1) Suberin deposition (2) Lignin deposition (3) Tannin deposition (4) Cellulose and pectin deposition 119. The absorbed mineral ions are

transported upwards through (1) Phloem (2) Transpiration stream (3) Parenchyma (4) Both (2) and (3)



120. Solute potential is (1) Usually negative (2) Always negative (3) Opposite to TP (4) Always positive 121. In a cell the plasma membrane and

protoplasm are together called as (1) Cell sap (2) Protoplast (3) Cytoplasm (4) Tonoplast 122. Consider the following chart and choose

the correct option given regarding the characteristics

(1) Solution of chamber A has a lower

water potential (2) Solution of chamber B has a lower

solute potential (3) Osmosis occur from B to A (4) Solution B has low OP

123. Osmotic pressure means (1) Flow of solute from low

concentration to higher concentration (2) Flow of solute from high

concentration to low concentration (3) Pressure required to prevent water

from diffusing (4) Flow of solvent from high

concentration to low concentration 124. A plant cell shrinks away from its cell

wall, then (1) It is in hypertonic solution (2) It is in

hypotonic solution (3) It is in isotonic solution (4) Both (1) or (2)

125. Imbibition is (1) Irrespective of water potential gradient (2) As per water potential gradient (3) Against water potential gradient (4) Both (1) or (2) 126. Hydrophilic substances are transported

across the membrane by (1) Diffusion (2) Osmosis (3) Inhibition (4) Facilitated diffusion 127. Pinus seedlings have obligate (1) Mycorhiza (2) Cyanobacteria (3) Green algae (4) Both (1) &(3) 128. Phloem transport is (1) Active process (2) Passive process (3) Apoplast (4) Both (1) and (3) 129. Ability to resist a pulling force is (1) Capillarity (2) Tensile strength (3) Turgor pressure (4) Both (1) and (2) 130. Plant cells submerged in pure water will

become (1) Turgid (2) Flaccid (3) Plasmolysed (4) Impermeable 131. Why the tropical deciduous forest trees

shed their leaves? (1) To save energy (2) To protect itself from heat (3) To enhance rate of respiration (4) To prevent loss of water 132. Active absorption of minerals help (1) Create water potential gradient in

roots (2) Create root pressure (3) Water absorption (4) All of these 133. Which of the following are wrong 1. During early spring, buds of trees act

as sink of sugar



2. Source-sink relationship is variable in the case of xylem and phloem

3. Xylem sap may contains organic nitrogen but no inorganic nitrogen

4. Exchange of materials may occur between phloem and xylem

(1) 2 only (2) 3 only (3) 2 & 4 (4) 2 & 3 134. Which one of the following is produced

during water stress that causes closure of stomata?

(1) Auxin (2) Abscisic acid (3) Cytokinin (4) Gibberellin 135. Plants get most of their oxygen in the

form of (1) Oxygen from air (2) CO2 (3) H2O (4) CaCO3 136. The visible outer surface of the eye is

covered by a distinctive epithelium continuous with the inner lining of the eyelids. This is called the: (1) Palpebrae (2) Conjunctiva (3) Iris (4) Choroids

137. Looking at a distant object involves:

(1) decrease in the thickness of the sclera (2) flattening of the front of the lens (3) change in the shape of the eyeball (4) change in the shape of the orbital

cavity 138. The correct pathway for impulses leaving

the retina is: (1) Photoreceptors , Ganglion cells,

Bipolar cells, Optic nerve (2) Photoreceptors, Bipolor cells, Optic

nerve, Ganglion cells (3) Photoreceptors, Bipolor cells,

Ganglion cells, Optic nerve (4) Photoreceptors, Optic nerve,

Ganglion cells, Bipolar cells 139. Four statements (I to IV) are given.

a. Tympanum is present in all vertebrates.

b. External auditory meatus is contained within the temporal bone.

c. Stapes touches the round window.

d. Scala media contains endolymph. The true statements are:

(1) II & IV are true (2) I & II are true (3) 1 & III are true (4) 1 & IV are true

140. Muscles and glands are:

(1) effectors (2) part of the central nervous system (3) part of the peripheral nervous system (4) receptors

141. The connection between the third and

fourth ventricle is called the _____. (1) interventricular foramen (2) cerebral aqueduct (3) foramen of Monro (4) hypothalamus

142. The ________ is a portion of the brain

that maintains homeostasis by linking activities of the endocrine and nervous systems together. (1) thalamus (2) hypothalamus (3) infundibulum (4) corpora quadrigemina

143. The amygdala is involved in:

(1) Osmoregulation (2) Emotion (3) Mathematical ability (4) Thirst

144. What part of the brain stem regulates

your heartbeat? (1) Pons (2) Medulla

(3) Hypothalamus (4) Thalamus 145. Which cranial nerve allows us to chew

food? (1) Facial (2) Abducens (3) Trochlear (4) Trigeminal

146. Axons from which neuron in the retina

make up the optic nerve? (1) amacrine cells

(2) photoreceptors (3) bipolar cells (4) retinal ganglion cells



147. Which pair of cranial nerves are mixed nerves that supply the chest and abdomen with autonomic nerves? (1) trigeminal nerve (2) accessory nerve (3) vagus nerve (4) hypoglossal nerve

148. Which of the following is NOT involved

in the transmission of sound waves? (1) tympanic membrane

(2) stapes (3) oval window

(4) semicircular canals 149. Where are visual and auditory reflexes

centered? (1) medulla (2) pons (3) diencephalon (4) midbrain

150. Cell bodies of the sensory neurons of

the spinal nerves are located in: (1) the dorsal root ganglia of the spinal

cord (2) the thalamus (3) the hypothalamus (4) the ventral root ganglia of the spinal

cord 151. Cerebrospinal fluid circulates through

all of the following except: (1) corpus callosum

(2) central canal (3) cerebral aqueduct (4) subarachnoid space

152. Preparing the body for the “fight-or-

flight” response during threatening situations is the role of the:

(1) sympathetic nervous system (2) somatic nervous system (3) afferent nervous system (4) parasympathetic nervous system 153. The gray matter of the spinal cord: (1) surrounds the white matter of the

spinal cord (2) surrounds the central canal (3) contains myelinated fiber tracts

(4) always carries sensory information to the brain

154. Function of iris is to (1) move lens forward and backward (2) alter the size of pupil (3) refract light rays (4) secrete aqueous humor

155. In human eye, image is formed

(1) behind retina (2) in front of retina (3) on retina (4) in between lens and retina

156. Otoliths are present in the: (1) organ of Corti (2) perilymph (3) utricle (4) cochlea 157. Four statements (I to IV) are given. Two

of them are true. Find them. I. Pinna is a unique mammalian feature. II. Tympanum is made of muscular tissue. III. Stapes is the smallest bone. IV. Endolymph is rich in Na+ ions.

(1) I & II are true (2) I & III are true (3) 1 & IV are true (4) II & IV are true 158. The midbrain, pons, and medulla

oblongata are housed in the: (1) diencephalons (2) brain stem (3) pineal gland (4) hypothalamus

159. Given five statements (I – V).

(I) In CAM plants, stomata remain closed during daytime.

(II) Many birds migrate from tropics to temperate regions to escape from the intolerable winter.

(III) During periods of dormancy, the BMR of animals increases.

(IV) Many animals aestivate to escape from excessive heat.

(V) Mammals from colder climates generally have shorter ears and limbs to maximize heat loss.

The true statements are: (1) I and III (2) II and IV (3) I, III and V (4) I and IV

160. A mammal shivering in winter is said to (1) regulate (2) suspend (3) migrate (4) conform



161. Ecological niche is: (1) the organism’s interaction with the physical environment (2) an ecologically adapted zone (3) the functional role of a species within the community (4) the functional role of a community within a biosphere

162. Age pyramid with a narrow base

indicates: (1) low birthrate (2) high birthrate

(3) low death rate (4) high death rate 163. Initial slow growth phase of sigmoid

growth curve is called: (1) asymptote (2) equilibrium phase

(3) lag phase (4) deceleration phase

164. The “r” value for Norway rat is: (1) 0.12 (2) 0.02 (3) 0.015 (4) 0.03 165. When logistic population reaches

asymptote: (1) N is equal to K

(2) N is more than K (3) N is less than K

(4) N/K = 0 166. Which one of the following biomes has a

mean annual precipitation of 150-400 cm and mean annual temperature of 20-25oC?

(1) Temperate forest (2) Coniferous forest

(3) Tropical forest (4) Grassland

167. Name the plant that produces highly

poisonous cardiac glycosides and that is usually avoided by cattle and goats.

(1) Acacia (2) Cactus (3) Calotropis (4) Opuntia

168. Which one of the following is the best

example for resource partitioning in nature? (1) Balanus and Chathamalus living in the rocky coasts of Scotland.

(2) Abingdon tortoise and alien goats of Galapagos. (3) Visiting flamingoes and resident fishes of South American lake. (4) Five species of warblers living on the same tree.

169. Spreading of Prickly pear cactus,

introduced into Australia in the early 1920’s rapidly into millions of hectares of rangeland is due to

(1) Absence of natural predators (2) Interspecific competition

(3) Introduction of moth from its natural habitat (4) competition exclusion by indigenous species

170. Biological methods adopted in

agricultural pest control are based on (1) Ability of prey to escape from

predator (2) Reproductive ability of predator (3) Ability of predator to regulate prey

population (4) Invasive nature of predator 171. The relationship between fig tree and

wasp represents (1) Predation (2) Amensalism

(3) Mutualism (4) Commensalism

172. The Mediterranean orchid Ophrys employs _______to get pollination done by a species of bee

(1) Pseudocopulation (2) Sexual deceit (3) Smell (4) Provides suitable place for egg laying

173. Match the following

Column I Column II A. Cattle egret &

cattle 1. Amensalism

B. Cascuta & plant

2. Competition exclusion

C. Staphylococcus & Penicillium

3. Resource partitioning

D. Chathamalus& Balanus

4. Parasitism

E. Warblers 5. Commensalism



(1) A – 5, B – 4, C – 1, D – 2, E – 3 (2) A – 5, B – 4, C – 1, D – 3, E – 2 (3) A – 3, B – 4, C – 1, D – 2, E – 5 (4) A – 1, B – 4, C – 2, D – 5, E – 3 174. Which is the integral form of the

exponential growth equation? (1) dN/dt = rN (2) Nt = N0 ert

(3)

−

=K

NKrNdtdN (4) N0 = Nt ert

175. If two species compete for the same

resource, they could avoid competition by

(1) Resource partitioning (2) Mutualistic interactions

(3) Competition exclusion (4) Interference competition

176. If in a pond there are 32 lotus plants last

year and through reproduction 8 new plants are added, taking the current population to 40. What is the per capita birth rate?

(1) 25% (2) 0.25 (3) 0.025 (4) 8 177. The type of interspecific interaction

studied by Gause is: (1) Mutualism (2) Commensalism

(3) Predation (4) Competition 178. What will be the size of population of 48

frogs in a pond after one year if the per capita birth rate is 0.125?

(1) 50 (2) 12 (3) 54 (4) 60 179. Study the following data with respect to a

rabbit population. Average natality = 350 Average mortality = 210 Immigration = 40 Emigration = 60 The net increase in population is:

(1) 160 (2) 390 (3) 140 (4) 120 180. Which one of the following is

categorized as a parasite in true sense? (1) The cuckoo lays its egg in crow's nest

(2) Head louse living on the human scalp as well as laying eggs on human hair

(3) The female Anopheles bites and sucks blood from humans

(4) Human foetus developing inside the uterus draws nourishment from the mother



ANSWER KEY

1 2 31 1 61 3 91 4 121 2 151 1

2 3 32 1 62 2 92 4 122 2 152 1

3 1 33 3 63 3 93 2 123 3 153 2

4 2 34 2 64 4 94 2 124 1 154 2

5 3 35 2 65 3 95 3 125 2 155 3

6 3 36 4 66 4 96 3 126 4 156 3

7 1 37 3 67 2 97 2 127 1 157 2

8 1 38 2 68 4 98 3 128 1 158 2

9 3 39 2 69 4 99 2 129 2 159 4

10 3 40 2 70 1 100 3 130 1 160 1

11 4 41 3 71 1 101 3 131 4 161 3

12 2 42 3 72 1 102 3 132 4 162 1

13 4 43 4 73 2 103 2 133 4 163 3

14 3 44 2 74 2 104 2 134 2 164 3

15 1 45 3 75 1 105 2 135 2 165 1

16 3 46 3 76 4 106 2 136 2 166 3

17 1 47 2 77 4 107 2 137 2 167 3

18 2 48 1 78 3 108 3 138 3 168 4

19 2 49 2 79 4 109 3 139 1 169 1

20 3 50 4 80 4 110 3 140 1 170 3

21 2 51 2 81 3 111 2 141 2 171 3

22 1 52 2 82 1 112 2 142 2 172 2

23 3 53 3 83 2 113 3 143 2 173 1

24 3 54 4 84 4 114 3 144 2 174 2

25 2 55 4 85 3 115 2 145 4 175 1

26 2 56 3 86 3 116 3 146 4 176 2

27 2 57 1 87 4 117 3 147 3 177 4

28 4 58 3 88 2 118 1 148 4 178 3

29 3 59 2 89 4 119 2 149 4 179 4

30 3 60 2 90 3 120 2 150 1 180 2



DETAILED ANSWERS 1. Breaking strength = Lρg

L = 6

3

B.S 10 100g 3 10 10 3

= =ρ × ×

= 34m

2. ∆p = 105 (1.165 – 1.01) = 105 × 0.155

VV

∆ = 10 1100 10

=

B = PV / V∆

∆ = 1.55 × 105 Nm–2

3. 0.04100

ll

∆= = 4 × 10–4

2Energy u 1 y(strain)Volume v 2

= =

= 12

× 2 × 1010 × (4 × 10–4)2 = 1600 Jm–3

4. y = FLAe

; F = mLω2

e = ∆L

2 2 2mL L mLy

A L A Lω ω

= =∆ ∆

5. Pressure = FA

= constant

Area = πr2 ∝ (diameter)2

2

2 2 2

f F f d;d D F D

= =

6. Atmospheric pressure P0 = 10 m of water P1V1 = P2V2 (P0 + h) V = P0 × 4V P0 + h = 4P0 h = 3P0 = 30 m of water 7. Thrust = Pressure at C.G × Area

Resultant thrust = 1 21 2

h hgA gA2 2

ρ − ρ

1 1 2 2g [h A h A ]2

ρ−

310 102× [20 × 20 × 5 – 12 × 12 × 5]

= 64 × 105 N

8. PD = P0 PB = hρg + P0 + lρa PB = maximum; PD = minimum (PA = P0 + lρa); (PC = P0 + hρg)

9. anp = g 1 σ

− ρ l

b

= 2 1 ρ− ρ

g =

g = constant

10. fin = ρσ

b

l

fA = 12

ρ=

σA

l

; fB = 23

ρ=

σB

l

σl = 2ρA = 32ρB ; ρ

ρA

B

= 34

11. Total mass = Vin σl Additional mass = x

120 + m = Vb σω = 120600

1000 = 200

m = 80 kg 12. m = Vin σω

23

Vρb = 45

V × σω

1210ω

ρ=

σ = 1.2 = Specific gravity

13. Gauge pressure = h1ρ1g + h2ρ2g g [10 × 10–2 × 0.6 × 103 + 2 × 10–2 × 1 ×

103] = 800 Pa 14. With respect to vessel, downward

acceleration = g + 3g = 4

3g

Fa = Vρ × 43g

15. m = Vin σω

43

π (R3 – r3) σ = 43

πR3

[Relative density σ = b

ω

ρσ

]

3 3

3

1R rR−

=σ

1 – 3 1r

R = σ



1/ 311r

R = − σ

= 1/ 31σ −

σ

1/ 3

1Rr

σ = σ −

16. R = air resistance Mg – R = Ma0 ..... (1) x gms thrown out R – (M – x) g = (M – x) a0 ..... (2) From (1) and (2) Mg – (M – x)g = a0 (2M – x)

Solving x = 0

0

2Mag a+

17. Volume per second = area × velocity = 2a gh = 10–4 2 10 5× × = 10–3 m3/s 18. Ax > Ay Vx < Vy Px > Py

Px – Py = 12

ρω 2 2[ ]y xV V−

(CGS) 5.1 × 10–1 × 1 × 103

= 12

× 1 2[ 4]yV −

Vy2 = 1024; V2 = 32cms–1 = 0.32 ms–1

19. Vt ∝ r2 ∝ m2/3

2

0

VV

= (8)2/3 = 4

V2 = 4V0

20. 4Pr

8Vt l

π=

η

41

24

2 / 4Pr rP

l l =

14

2

4 12 4

PP

= =

21. 4 4Pr

8V Prt l l

π= ∝

η V

t = constant

4 4

1 2 2

1 2

Pr P rl l

= P2 = 4

1 2

2 1

r lPr l

= P 24 × 12

= 8 P2 = 8P

22. For terminal velocity, Fnet = Zero Downward force

mg = 31

43

r gπ ρ ..... (1)

Upward force = Fu + Fv

= 32

43

r gπ ρ + krv ..... (2)

(1) = (2)

v = 2

1 2( )43

r gK

π ρ − ρ

23. Rh = R1h1 R × 2 = R1 × 1 R1 = 2R R cos θ = a; a = radius of tube R, R1 = radii of

meniscus R cos θ = R1 cos θ

cos θ = 12

θ = 60°

24. 2T h gr

= ρ h = 2Tr gρ

25. ∆P = 4Sr

Higher pressure inside the smaller bubble. Hence (b)

26. ∆P = 4Sr

On blowing are, bubble becomes bigger

∆P decreases; ∆P ∝ 1r

(b)

27. 3 32100 180C C −

=

C = 320 8012 3

C°=

28. Level constant Increase in volume of

liquid = increase in volume of vessel.

VV

∆ = γ∆θ

Vγl∆θ = Vγs∆θ γl = γs = 3αs



29. αnet L∆θ = (α1L1 + α2L2) ∆θ

αnet = 1 1 2 2L LL

α + α

30. Angular momentum L = constant I1ω1 = I2ω2 ..... (1) I ∝ R2

2I RI R

∆ ∆= = 2 α ∆θ

I1 = I; I2 = I + ∆I I2 = I (1 + 2 α ∆θ)

ω2 = 1

2

II

ω1 = 1

1 2ω

+ α ∆θ

ω2 ≈ ω1 [1 – 2 α ∆θ] ω2 = ω [1 – 2 × 2 × 10–5 × 100] = 0.996ω 31. Number of second gained / lost in time t

= 12

∝ ∆θ t

= 12

× 9 × 10–7 × 10 × 30 × 86400

= 11.66 sec 32. x kg water from 30°C. (40 – x) kg from 80°C x × 1 (50 – 30) = (40 – x) (80 – 50) 5x = 120 x = 24 kg 40 – x = 16 kg 33. Final temperature = θ°C SI system 2 × 4200 (60 – θ) = 1 × 4200 (θ – 30) + 200 × (θ – 30) 84 (60 – θ) = (θ – 30) 44 ≈ 2 (60 – θ) =

(θ – 30) 150 = 3θ θ = 50°C

34. 12

mgh = mC ∆θ

∆θ = 2ghC

∆θ = 10 168 422 4200 210

×=

× = 0.2°C

35. x gms of steam condenses

x + 536 + x (100 – 90) = 54 × 1 (90 – 30) x ≈ 6 gm Mass of mixture = (water + condensed

steam) = 54 + 6 = 60 g

36. 2Q d A rKA

t dx L Lθ

= ∝ ∝ = (d)

37. Q dKAt dx

θ=

2( )Q diameter

t length∝

Ratio = 2 1 1

2 2 8l =

38. 31 2

1 2 3net

dd ddK K K K

= + +

3 1 1 1 132 1.5 6netK K K K K

= + + =

Knet = 1813

K

18 (200 18)13 3

Q kt

− =

= K (200 )1− θ

θ = 200 – 84 = 116°C

39. Q dKAt dx

θ=

Qt

constant, K, A constant

dx = L = constant Temperature of junction = θ°C (90 – θ) + (90 – θ) = (θ – 0) θ = 60°C 40. Perfectly black body a = 1; e = 1 (maximum) (Theory based) 41. E ∝ T4

4 4

2 2

1 1

1000500

E TE T

= =

2 1620E

= ; E2 = 320 cals/s



42. Energy radiated per second by the sun (black body) = Energy falling per second on a surface area 4πR2

σT4 4πr2 = 44πR2 × s where S = Energy per second on unit

surface area = solar constnat

S = 2 4

2

r TR

σ ; T = (273 + t) K (c)

43. ddtθ = k (θ - θ0)

θ = mean temperature of body; θ0 = surrounding temperature

0( )

dθθ − θ

= k dt

Integrating and simplifying, temperature (θ) decreases exponentially with time.

44. 1 2 1 2

2tθ − θ θ + θ

∝ − θ

24

∝ (60 – 30) .... (1)

min

2t

∝ (50 – 30) .... (2)

Dividing 34 2t

= t = 6 minutes

45. E ∝ T4; λm ∝ 1T

E ∝ 4

2 14

1 2

1 ;m

E mE m

λ= λ λ

= 4

1 12 16

=

46.

48.

49. 1 – S, 2 – Q, 3 – T, 4 – P 50.

(Allylic substitution reaction)

51. CH3 – CH = CH2 HBr

Peroxide→ CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – Br

2NaNO

NaBr−→ CH3 – CH2 – CH2 - ONO 52.

53.

54. Order of reactivity of allyl halides

towards elimination reaction is 30 R X > 20 R X > 10 R X 55. CH3I, CH3Br, CH3F, CH3Cl 56. Iodoform test is given by alcohols having

3CH CH|

OH

− − group and aldehydes and

ketones having 3CH C| |O

− − group.

CH3 | CH3 – CH – CH2 – Br

isobutyl bromide



57. The structure of fructose is 58.

n-butyl alcohol

: CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – CH2 – OH

iso butyl alcohol

: CH3 – CH – CH2 – OH | CH3

benzoic acid :

Phenyl formate

:

Isobutyl amine

: CH3 – CH – CH2 – NH2 | CH3

tert-butyl amine

: CH3 | CH3 – C – NH2 | CH3

Acetone : CH3 – C – CH3 | | O

prop-1-en-2-ol

: CH3 – C = CH2 | OH

diethyl ether : CH3 – CH2 – O – CH2 – CH3

methyl propyl ether

: CH3 – O – CH2 – CH2 – CH3

59. 3, 4 and 5

60.

61. Acetone : CH3COCH3 Allyl alcohol : CH2 = CH – CH2 – OH Propanal : CH3 – CH2 – CHO 62. Trans-but-2-ene is non polar in nature.

It’s dipole moment value is zero. 63. Staggered > gauche > partially eclipsed >

fully eclipsed 64. H | CH3 – CH2 – C – COOH | CH3 contains a chiral carbon 65.

i C – C – C – C – C – Br 10 ii C– C – C – C – Br

| C

10

iii C – C – C – C – C – Br | C

10

iv C | C – C – C – Br | C

10

v C – C – C – C – C | Br

20

CH2 – OH | C = O | HO – C – H | H – C – OH | H – C – OH | CH2OH

3 chiral carbon atoms



vi C – C – C – C – C

| Br

20

vii C – C – C – C | | C Br

20

viii C | C – C – Br | C

30

66. Isomers of hexane are (i) C – C – C – C – C | C (ii) C – C – C – C – C |

C (iii) C – C – C – C | | C C C | (iv) C – C – C – C | C 67. 2 S, 3 S 68. CH3 – COO – C3H7 and C3H7 – COO –

CH3 69.

70. CH3 – C = C – CH3 | | CH3 CH3 It is stable, because it has 12 α – H2

atoms, so greater will be the hyper conjugation

71. H3O+. Due to the presence of complete octet.

72. R-I > R-Br > R-C1> R-F 73. Cyclo penta dienyl cation contain 4

delocated π electrons. So it is anti aromatic in nature.

74. Electrometric effect 75. When inductive and electromeric effects

operates in opposite directions, the electromeric effect predominates

76. Cl is a moderately ring deactivating group. 77. (1)→ Nucleophilic substitution reaction (2) → Nucleophilic addition reaction (3) → Free radical substitution reaction (4) → Electrophilic substitution 78. CH2 = CH – CH2 – Cl → Allyl chloride It is more reaction, because CH2 = CH –

CH2+ (allyl carbocation) is more stable.

79. SO3 80.

Aldehydes are more reactive than

ketones. Presence of electron withdrawing groups

increases and electron donating groups decreases the reactivity of carbonyl compounds.

81. Methyl ketones are more stable. 82. C2H5OH 2 4Conc.H SO

443K→ CH2 = CH2 + H2O

2CHI3 + 6 Ag → 6 AgI + CH ≡ CH 2 CH3COONa + 2 H2O

Electrolysis→CH3 – CH3 + 2 NaOH + 2CO2 + H2



CH3 – COONa NaOHCaO, ∆

→ CH4 +

Na2CO3 83. CH3 – C = CH – CH3 4KMnO / H+

→ | CH3 CH3 – C – CH3 + CH3COOH | | O 84. CH ≡ CH 2 2Ammoniacal CH Cl→ CH ≡ C –

Cu 85. Red P and concentrated HI 86.

87. All 88. Excess chlorine in presence of AlCl3 89. (CH3)3 C – OH 90. Iodine free radical combine to form

Iodine molecule 91. All endodermal cells of all roots have

casparian thickening 92. Bulliform cells are modified epidermal

cells of Adaxial surface of leaves grasses 93. Periderm formation takes places only in

plant bodies having vascular secondary growth

94. 2 95. Characteristic of monocot stem 96. When phloem removed, Roots does not

get carbohydrate food

97. Both Protoxylem and metaxylem are elements of primary xylem

98. 3 99. 2 100. Phloem sieve tubes are living cells and

have no lignified wall 101. Vascular cambium add secondary

phloem to outside 102. Sclerenchyma have uniformly thick

lignified wall 103. Heartwood is older secondary xylem

which does not conduct water. When all the tissues outer to heartwood are present, the plant can have both xylem and phloem translocation.

104. Phloem fibres are found only in

secondary phloem 105. Intercalary meristem is primary

meristem. Thickness or Girth is the activity of secondary meristems

106. 2 107. Metaxylem, Intrafascicular Cambium,

Protophloem, Protoxylem, Conjuctive tissue are primary permanent

108. Phellogen or cork cambium is formed

from primary cortex. 109. 3 110. Stem and leaf have conjoint and

collateral vascular bundles 111. Abaxial surface is outer surface (ventral

surface) 112. Stele include all tissues inner to

endodermis 113. Endodermis of dicot stem contain starch 114. 3



115. 2 116. Peripheral part of wood is sapwood

having conducting vessels 117. Primary root has no cambium 118. Cork tissue has dead cells with suberised

wall 119. Through Xylem along with water under

transpiration pull 120. Solute potential is magnitude of lowering

of water potential 121. Protoplast is cell content without cell

wall 122. More solute means more negative solute

potential (lower) 123. 3 124. In hypertonic solution, the cell loss water

by exosmosis 125. 2 126. Hydrophilic substances cannot pass

through lipid membrane so they need protein carriers which help diffusion.

127. Pinus seedling have no root hairs and

hence require mycorhiza for absorption 128. The pressure gradient in phloem is

generated by active pumping of sucrose at source and sink ends of phloem.

129. 2 130. Cell is pure water will get water by

osmosis and build up turgor. 131. Leaf falling help prevent transpiration 132. 4 133. Source and sink could be changed only in

the case of phloem. Xylem sap contain organic nitrogen and inorganic nitrogen (NO3)

134. Abscisic acid is stress hormone which stimulate stomatal closure at water stress situation

135. Oxygen of CO2 is present in the

carbohydrate synthesised by plants during photosynthesis.

136. The conjunctiva lines the inside of the

eyelids and covers the sclera (the white of the eye). It is composed of non-keratinized, stratified columnar epithelium with goblet cells. Palpebra is another name for eyelid.

137. When you focus a distant object, the lens

gets flattened due to relaxation of ciliary muscles and increase in radius of curvature of lens.

138. Electrical potentials generated in the

photoreceptors cells cause action potentials to develop in the membranes of bipolar cells and then to ganglion cells. Optic nerve is a bundle of axons of the ganglion cells that leave the retina.

139. Tympanum is present in land vertebrates

only (amphibians, reptiles, birds and mammals). Stapes touches the oval window.

140. Muscles and glands function as

effectors to execute actions in response the impulse received through efferent nerves from CNS.

141. Third ventricle of diencephalons

communicates with fourth ventricle of medulla oblongata through a narrow canal called cerebral aqueduct passing through the midbrain.

142. The hypothalamus is a section of the brain

that helps to maintain homeostasis. It regulates body temperature, thirst, hunger, sleep, circadian rhythm, moods, sex drive, and the release of pituitary hormones.

143. Amygdala is part of the limbic system

within the brain, which is responsible for emotions, survival instincts, and memory. It regulates fear, rage, aggression and other moods.



144. Medulla oblongata is the hindermost part of brain, forming the lowest part of the brainstem and containing control centres for the heart and lungs. It regulates cardiovascular and gastrointestinal reflexes.

145. The trigeminal nerve (the fifth cranial

nerve) is a nerve responsible for sensation in the face and motor functions such as biting and chewing. It is also called Dentist’s nerve and is the thickest cranial nerve.

146. The optic nerve, also known as cranial

nerve II, is a paired nerve that transmits visual information from the retina to the brain. The optic nerve is derived from optic stalks during the seventh week of development and is composed of retinal ganglion cell axons and glial cells. Amacrine cells and horizontal cells of retina help in lateral transfer of information within the retina that helps to increase visual acuity.

147. The vagus nerve is the tenth cranial nerve

and interfaces with parasympathetic control of the heart, lungs and digestive tract. It is the longest nerve of the autonomic nervous system in the human body. It is the only cranial nerve without branches to head region. 75% parasympathetic fibres are contained within this nerve.

148. Semicircular canals of internal ear are

part of vestibular apparatus. They are three tiny, fluid-filled tubes in your inner ear that help you keep your balance. When your head moves around, the liquid inside the semicircular canals sloshes around and moves the tiny hairs that line each canal. They detect rotational movements of the head.

149. In the brain, the corpora quadrigemina

are the four colliculi located on the tectum of the dorsal aspect of the midbrain. They are named the inferior and superior colliculus. The corpora quadrigemina are reflex centers involving vision and hearing.

150. A spinal nerve has a dorsal root and a ventral root. Dorsal root contains sensory (afferent) nerve fibres whereas ventral root contains motor (efferent) nerve fibres. The ganglion of dorsal root is found outside the spinal cord, whereas the ganglion of ventral root is within the spinal cord.

151. The corpus callosum is a wide, flat

bundle of neural fibers about 10 cm long beneath the cortex of mammalian brain. It connects the left and right cerebral hemispheres and facilitates interhemispheric communication. It is the largest white matter structure in the brain, consisting of 200–250 million myelinated axons. Subarachnoid space is the space between pia mater and arachnoid membrane. Central canal is found within the spinal cord. Cerebral aqueduct is a canal within the midbrain.

152. Sympathetic nervous system is part of

the nervous system that serves to accelerate the heart rate, constrict blood vessels, and raise blood pressure. It equips the body to face and overcome emergency situations. It is adrenergic. The sympathetic nervous system and the parasympathetic nervous system constitute the autonomic nervous system.

153. The central canal is the cerebrospinal

fluid-filled space that runs longitudinally through the length of the entire spinal cord. The central canal is continuous with the ventricular system of the brain. In spinal cord, gray matter is inside and white matter is outside. Gray matter surrounds the central canal.

154. The iris is a thin, circular structure in the

eye, responsible for controlling the diameter and size of the pupil and thus the amount of light reaching the retina. Eye color is defined by that of the iris. In optical terms, the pupil is the eye's aperture, while the iris is the diaphragm that serves as the aperture stop. Pupil size decreases when circular muscles of iris contracts; it increases when radial muscles of iris contracts.



155. A real, inverted and miniature image of the object is formed on the retina. In short-sighted people (myopia) it falls in front of retina. In long-sighted people (hypermetropia) image is formed behind the retina.

156. An otolith, also called statoconium or

otoconium or statolith, is a structure in the saccule or utricle of the inner ear, specifically in the vestibular labyrinth of vertebrates. Otolith consists of crystals of calcium carbonate and is sensitive to gravitational pull of earth. Utricle and saccule are called otolith ogans which detects position of head with respect to gravity and detects linear acceleration.

157. The tympanum is composed of

connective tissues covered with skin outside and with mucus membrane inside. Endolymph is similar to intracellular fluid in composition and is rich in K+ ions.

158. The brain stem is the stem-like part of

the base of the brain that is connected to the spinal cord. The brain stem controls the flow of messages between the brain and the rest of the body, and it also controls basic body functions such as breathing, swallowing, heart rate, blood pressure, consciousness, and whether one is awake or sleepy.

159. Many birds migrate from Northern

hemisphere to tropics to escape from the intolerable winter. During periods of dormancy, the BMR of animals decreases. Mammals from colder climates generally have shorter ears and limbs to minimise heat loss.

160. Thermoregulation is a property of birds

and mammals. When a mammal is exposed to a cold climate it shivers to gain heat. It helps to raise temperature. Shivering is a bodily function in response to cold in warm-blooded animals. When the core body temperature drops, the shivering reflex is triggered to maintain

homeostasis. Skeletal muscles begin to shake in small movements, creating warmth by expending energy. It is not 100% efficient, meaning while some of the energy becomes heat, a portion is transferred to the kinetic energy that produces its characteristic muscular twitches. No productive movement is produced in shivering because antagonistic muscle pairs are simultaneously activated.

161. Niche is the function or position of a

species within an ecological community. A species's niche includes the physical environment to which it has become adapted as well as its role as producer and consumer of food resources.

162. Age pyramid with narrow base (urn-

shaped) has fewer numbers of pre-reproductive individuals and indicates low birth rate. It depicts a declining population. A pyramid with board base indicates expanding population with high birth rate.

163. A logistic growth curve is an S-shaped

(sigmoidal) curve that can be used to model functions that increase gradually at first, more rapidly in the middle growth period, and slowly at the end, leveling off at a maximum value after some period of time. During the initial lag phase, growth is minimum as the species is getting familiarized with the environment. Most natural populations show this type of growth curve.

164. “r” value of a population is the intrinsic

rate of natural increase or biotic potential. It is the difference between per capital birth rate “b” and per capita death rate “d”. “r” value of Indian population was 0.0205 in 1981 and now it is 0.0126.

165. N is the total number of individuals

within a population, and K is the carrying capacity. At equilibrium or asymptote, N is equal to K or birth rate is equal to death rate and population shows zero growth.



166. The average temperature in tropical rainforests ranges from 70 to 85°F (20 to 25°C). The environment is pretty wet in tropical rainforests, maintaining a high humidity of 77% to 88% year-round. The climate of tropical rainforest biome is perfect for plant and animals growth. The hot and humid conditions create an ideal environment for the growth of bacteria and other microorganisms. They cover about 6% of the Earth‘s surface and are found all over the world but mostly in South America in Brazil.

167. Cardiac glycosides are steroidal organic

compounds containing a glycoside (sugar) that act on the contractile force of the cardiac muscle. Because of their potency in disrupting the function of the heart, most are extremely toxic. These glycosides are found as secondary metabolites in several plants (eg.Calotropis), and in some insects, such as the milkweed butterflies (Monarch butterfly), that consume the plants.

168. Resource partitioning is the process

whereby similar species exploit the limited resources in an ecological area without one species driving the others into extinction. Through natural selection, each species adopts a pattern of resource usage that isn't competitive. Resource partitioning helps to reduce the intensity of interspecific competition. It permits co-existence rather than exclusion of species.

169. Prickly pears (Opuntia stricta) were

imported into Australia in the 19th century. Many of these quickly became widespread invasive species. The moth Cactoblastis cactorum from South America, whose larvae eat prickly pear, was introduced in 1925 and almost wiped out the population. This case is often cited as an example of successful biological pest control.

170. Biological control is a method of controlling pests such as insects, mites, weeds and plant diseases using other organisms. It relies on predation, parasitism, herbivory, or other natural mechanisms, but typically also involves an active human management role. It can be an important component of integrated pest management (IPM) programs. Predation helps to keep prey population under manageable level.

171. The female wasp uses the fruit of fig not

only as an oviposition (egg-laying) site but uses the developing seeds within the fruit for nourishing its larvae. The wasp pollinates the fig inflorescence while searching for suitable egg-laying sites. In return for the favour of pollination the fig offers the wasp some of its developing seeds, as food for the developing wasp larvae.

172. The Mediterranean orchid Ophrys is

called “master of sexual deception”. These plants are remarkable in that they successfully reproduce through pseudocopulation, that is, their flowers mimic female insects to such a degree that males are fooled into mating with the flowers, thereby pollinating them.

173. Cattle egret is a commessal. Warblers

exhibit resource partitioning. Chathamalaus and Balanus exhibits competition exclusion. Staphylococcus & Penicillium exhibts amensalism.

174. The integral form of the exponential

growth equation is Nt = N0 ert . Here Nt = Population density after time t; N0 = Population density at time zero; r = intrinsic rate of natural increase; e = the base of natural logarithms (2.71828).

175. Resource partitioning is the process

whereby similar species exploit the limited resources in an ecological area without one species driving the others into extinction. Through natural selection, each species adopts a pattern of



resource usage that isn't competitive. Resource partitioning helps to reduce the intensity of interspecific competition. It permits co-existence rather than exclusion of species.

176. Percapita birth rate is the number of

births per individual. Here it is 8/32 = 0.25

177. Competition is s struggle between two or

more individuals for some resource which is in short supply. Gause put forward the principle of competition exclusion (Gauses’s principle) which says that two competing species cannot co-exist together indefinitely; eventually one will exclude or replace the other. Gause experimented with two species of Paramecium (P.aurelia and P.caudatum).

178. It can be calculated by using the

exponential equation dN/dt =rN (r=rate of increase; N=total number). Here it is 0.125 x 48 = 6. Then 48+6=54

179. Here Natality (B) = 350; Mortality (D) =

210; Immigration (I) = 40; Emigration (E) = 60.

Net increase is ie Nt+1 = Nt+ [(B+I)–(D+E)] ie [(350+40) – (210+60)] =120

180. Cuckoo bird is only a brood parasite. It

never depends on another animal for its basic resources. Female mosquito receives its normal food requirements from plant juice. It depends on human blood only for certain substances to facilitate oogenesis.

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