drishti csat 2015 mock

8/20/2019 Drishti CSAT 2015 Mock

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CIVIL SERVICES APTITUDE TEST – 2015

DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

TEST BOOKLET SERIES

TEST BOOKLETCivil Services Aptitude Test (CSAT)

General Studies

(Paper-II)

Time Allowed : Two Hours Maximum Marks : 200

INSTRUCTIONS

1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT

THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS,

ETC., IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.

2. ENCODE CLEARLY THE TEST BOOKLET SERIES

CODE A, B, C OR D AS THE CASE MAY BE IN THE

APPROPRIATE PLACE IN THE ANSWER SHEET.

3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test Booklet

in the Box provided alongside this line. DO NOT write

anything else on the Test Booklet.

4. This Test Booklet contains 80 items (questions). Each question is printed both in Hindi and English. Each

item comprises four responses (answers). You will select the respose which you want to mark on the Answer

Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you considerthe best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.

5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in the

Answer sheet.

6. All items carry equal marks.

7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test Booklet, you have

to ll in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your admission certicate.

8. After you have completed lling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and examination has concluded,

you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet . You are permitted to take away with you

the Test Booklet.

9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.

10. Penalty for wrong answers:

THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVETYPE QUESTION PAPERS.

(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong

answer has been given by the candidate, One-Third of the marks assigned to that question will be

deducted as penalty.

(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the

given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question.

(iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that

question.


è;ku nsa % vuq ns'kks a dk fgUnh :ikUrj bl iqfLrdk ds fiNys i` "B ij Nik gSA

Test Code:DC-1500


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Directions for the following 7 (Seven) items: Read the

following two passages and answer the items that follow

each passage. Your answers to these items should be

based on the passages Only.

PASSAGE–1

This strategy of intensied acquisition of equity

oil has also met with considerable scepticism from

international oil market analysts. They argue that

overseas investments are unlikely to shelter countries

from oil market volatility. They argue that equity

investments by China (or India) in distant producing

elds in Africa, Latin America, or West Asia are not

likely to improve the physical security of energy

supply. Whether purchased in the open market, or produced by its national oil companies, they will have

to effectively pay the world market price either directly

or in foregone revenues if China were to ship every

barrel of equity oil back home. In fact, according to

industry press reports, most of the oil currently

produced by Chinese oil companies abroad is not

shipped back to China, but instead it is sold in markets

closer to production.

Crude oil is fungible and the market for this

commodity is globally integrated. Due to the laws ofsupply and demand, any oil that is pumped from the

earth and added to the world market will increase

supply relative to demand and tend to have a downward

effect on price. Any increase in demand relative to

supply would tend to push prices upward. Even if

national oil companies continue their acquisition

strategy, it is very unlikely that they would be

successful in satisfying demand or insulate its economy

through their acquisitions and will continue to be

affected by the world market like other countries.

They also argue that in their rush to stake claims

around the world, Chinese and Indian companies accept

terms that would often not be considered commercially

viable for the oil majors, who base their investment

criteria assuming a long-term average price of oil at

between $20-30 per barrel. If oil continues selling for

$50-60 per barrel, these assets may be an advantage,

but if prices drop considerably, the results could be

quite painful.

1. Why oil market analysts are not very much excited

about acquisition strategy of oil companies?

1. Volatility of oil market.

2. Wrong assumption of Crude Oil Prices.

3. Since, Crude oil is a rare commodity.

4. Acquisition or any investment abroad may not

help in achieving domestic demands.

Select the correct answers from the codes given

below:

(a) 2 and 4 only (b) 1 and 4 only

(c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) All 1, 2, 3 and 4.

2. According to the passage, how inherent nature of

laws of supply and demand affect the Chinese (or

Indian) oil companies?

1. As demand and supply are not co-relative.

2. Demand relative to supply is directly

proportional to the price.

3. Supply relative to demand is indirectly

proportional to the price.


below:


(c) 1 and 2 only (d) All 1, 2 and 3.

3. Which of the following can act as a rm advice for

Chinese and Indian oil companies?

(a) Explore oil resources domestically.

(b) Aggressive buying or acquisition should be

given a second thought.

(c) Explore crude oil abroad but sell it domestically.

(d) None of the above.

2641, First Floor, Mukherjee Nagar, Delhi-09Cont.: 011-47532596, (+91) 8130392354-56-57-58-59

E-mail: [email protected], Website: www.drishtiias.com, Facebook : https://www.facebook.com/drishtithevisionfoundation

Copyright – Drishti The Vision Foundation


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fuEufyf[kr 7 (lkr) iz'uka'kks a ds fy, funsZ 'k% fuEufyf[kr

nks x|ka'kksa dks ifku ns [kus dks feyrk gSA vxj jk"Vª h; da ifu;k¡ viuhvfèkxz g.k j.kuhfr dks tkjh j[krh gS a rc Hkh bl ckr dh cgq r gh

de la Hkkouk gS fd os eka x dks iw jk djus es a liQy gks ik,¡ xh vFkokviuh vfèkxz g.k uhfr ls vFkZ O;oLFkk dks cpk ik,¡xh vkS j vU;

ns 'kks a dh rjg yxkrkj fo'o ck”kkj ls çHkkfor gksrh jgsa xhA

mudk ;g Hkh ekuuk gS fd nqfu;k Hkj es a viuk gd trkus ds pDdj esa phuh vkS j Hkkjrh; dEifu;k¡ ,slh 'krs Z a Lohdkj dj ys rh gSa ftUgsa O;kolkf;d n`f"V ls rs y mRikndks a ds fy, O;ogk;Z ugha ekuk tkrk] tks nh?kkZ ofèkd n`f"V ls rsy dh vkSlr dher

dks $50–60 ls $20–30 çfr cS jy ekudj viuh fuos 'k :ijs[kk rS;kj djrs gSa A vxj rs y dh fcØh fuja rj $50–60 çfr cS jy jgrh gS rks ;s ifjlaifÙk;k¡ ykHkçn gks ldrh gSa ] ysfdu vxj dherks a es a cM+ h fxjkoV vkbZ rks blds ifj.kke d"Vnk;h gks ldrs gS a A

1- rs y da ifu;ks a dh vfèkxzg.k uhfr dks ys dj rs y ck”kkj ds

fo'ys "kd cgqr vfèkd mRlq d D;ks a ugha gSa \

1- rsy ck”kkj dh vfLFkjrk ds dkj.kA

2- dPps rs y dh dherksa dks ys dj xyr èkkj.kk ds

dkj.kA

3- D;ks afd dPpk rs y ,d nq yZHk oLrq gSA

4- vfèkxzg.k vFkok fons 'k es a fd;k x;k dks bZ Hkh fuos 'k

?kjs yw ekax dks iw jk djus esa lgk;d ugha gks ldsxkA

uhps fn, x, dw Vksa es a ls lgh mÙkj dk p;u djs a%

(a) dsoy 2 vkS j 4 (b) ds oy 1 vkSj 4

(c) dsoy 1, 2 vkS j 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 vkS j 4 lHkhA

2- x|ka 'k ds vuq lkj] eka x vkS j vkiwfrZ ds fu;eksa dh va rfuZ fgr

çÑfr phuh (vFkok Hkkjrh;) rs y da ifu;ks a dks fdl çdkj

çHkkfor djrh gS\

1- D;ks afd ekax vkS j vkiw frZ ijLij&laca fèkr ugha gSa A

2- vkiw frZ ds lkis{k ekax dher ds lekuq ikrh gks rh gSA

3- ekax ds lkis{k vkiwfrZ dher ds O;qRØekuqikrh

gks rh gSA

uhps fn, x, dw Vksa es a ls lgh mÙkj dk p;u djs a %

(a) dsoy 1 vkS j 3 (b) ds oy 2 vkSj 3

(c) dsoy 1 vkS j 2 (d) 1, 2 vkSj 3 lHkhA

3- fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkS u&lh phuh vkSj Hkkjrh; daifu;ksa ds

fy, ,d Bksl lykg gks ldrh gS\

(a) ?kjs yw Lrj ij gh rs y la lkèkuks a dh [kks t djsa A

(b) mxz [kjhnnkjh vFkok vfèkxzg.k ij nksckjk fopkj

fd;k tkuk pkfg,A

(c) dPps rsy dks fons'k esa [kks ts a vkS j ?kjs yw Lrj ij

bldh fcØh djsa A

(d) mi;q ZDr esa ls dks bZ ughaA

3641, çFke ry] MkW - eq[kthZ uxj] fnYyh&9 iQksu : 011-47532596, (+91) 8130392354-56-57-58-59

bZ&es y : [email protected], os c : www.drishtiias.com, is Qlcq d : https://www.facebook.com/drishtithevisionfoundation Copyright – Drishti The Vision Foundation


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PASSAGE–2

More recent approaches to structural change view

economic growth as a process of transformation and not

convergence to a steady state growth path. Technological

changes are seen to lie at the heart of economic growthas they provide the incentives for capital accumulation

to drive efciency and yield the benets of increasing

returns to scale. The evolution of the industrial structure

should involve technological sophistication and up

gradation, which generates a premium for aggregate

productivity growth in the manufacturing sector. This

means that economic growth is characterized by the

creation of high tech industries and the replacement of

old industries. The former drives growth processes by

accelerating the pace at which output, employment and

productivity in the economy grow.Increasingly, development practitioners and

policymakers recognize that economic development

requires continuous diversifying and upgrading from

existing sectors/industries to new high productivity

ones. Convergence in labor productivity at the sector

and industry level is seen as an important aspect of

growth. The catching up process in manufacturing

results from technology transfer and is a key driver of

rapid productivity growth. Within manufacturing,

convergence is more rapid in technology- and

knowledge-intensive modern sectors rather than in primary and traditional sectors; it appears to be least

rapid in low technology intensive textiles and clothing

sectors and most rapid in sectors that are technology

intensive. Technology and knowledge intensive sectors/

industries produce tradable goods and can be rapidly

integrated into global production networks, facilitating

technology transfer and absorption. Even when they

produce just for the home market, they operate under

competitive threat from efcient suppliers from abroad,

requiring that they upgrade their operations and remain

efcient. If, instead poor economies get their resources

stuck in traditional agriculture, selected non-tradable

services, and especially informal economic activities,

the forces of convergence may be blunted or failed

entirely. The lack of productivity growth and the lack of

structural change can thus reinforce each other trapping

the economy in a low growth trajectory.

Structural change should therefore remove constraints

from productivity growth. When labor and other resources

move from less productive to more productive activities,

economy grows even if there is no productivity growth

within sectors. 4. According to passage, how knowledge intensive

modern sectors will be benecial for economic

growth?

1. It helps in production of those goods that can

be sell in the global market.

2. It helps in bringing competition from abroad.

3. It brings new technology and eventually

productivity growth.

Select the correct answer from the codes given

below: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only (d) Only 1

5. Structural change in the Economic Growth can be

viewed as–

(a) Clearing obstacles in the path of productivity

growth.

(b) Avoiding agriculture and other least productive

sectors.

(c) Increasing labour productivity.

(d) Technological upgradation in primary andtraditional sectors.

6. According to passage, what is/are the benet/benets

of convergence of technologies in manufacturing

sector?

1. High productive growth.

2. Industries understanding the importance of

being technologically efcient.

3. Bringing new changes in low technological

industries like textile and clothing.

Select the correct answers from the codes given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 2 only

(d) 2 and 3 only





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x|ka'k&2

lajpukRed ifjorZu ds vfèkdka'k gkfy;k mikxe vkfFkZ d fodkl dks :ikarj.k dh çfØ;k ds :i es a ns[krs gS a u fd fLFkj fodkl iFk dh vksj >qdko ds :i esa A çkS |ks fxdh; ifjorZ uksa dks vkfFkZd fodkl dk ân; ekuk tkrk gS D;ks afd os n{krk dks c


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7. What is the essential message of the passage?

(a) Evolution of Technology in the Manufacturing

Sector.

(b) Transforming production capacity through

different sets of technology. (c) By means of technology, shifting from

Agriculture and non-tradeable services to the

high productive growth industry.

(d) Bringi ng produc tive growth through

technological advancement.

8. There are 5 boxes and each box contains 5 balls of

different colours. i.e. Red, Yellow, White, Orange

and Black. A person wants to pick 5 balls of different

colours, a different coloured ball from each box. If

from the rst box in the rst draw, he has drawn anorange ball and from the second box, he has drawn

a red ball, nd the maximum number of trials that

are needed to be made by the person to accomplish

his task if a ball picked is not replaced?

(a) 12 (b) 11

(c) 20 (d) 60

9. There are two pipes, one having a larger diameter

and the other having a smaller diameter. If one pipe

takes 3 minutes more than the other to ll the cistern,

then nd the time taken by the larger diameter pipe

to ll the cistern, if together they can ll the cistern

in1

313

minutes.

(a) 8 minutes (b) 5 minutes

(c) 10 minutes (d) 7 minutes

10.HIGHWAYA B HIGHWAY C

Three villages A, B and C lie on an highway. There

are 5 more routes connecting A to B, 4 more routesconnecting B to C and 2 more routes connecting

A to C. In how many ways a person can go from

B to C?

(a) 20 (b) 17

(c) 30 (d) 22

11. If selling price is doubled, then prot tripled. Find

the prot percent.

(a)2

663

(b) 100

(c) 11053

(d) 120

12. Police ofcers of a particular batch are preparing

for a drill and are made to stand in different rows.

If 4 ofcers are extra in each row, then there would

be 2 rows less. But there would be 4 more rows if 4

ofcers are less in each row. Find the number of

ofcers in the batch?

(a) 96 (b) 56

(c) 69 (d) 65

13. When political establishments fail, institutions stop

working and various democratic organizations lost

their value then military may supersede the political

parties and take functioning of governance in their

hand. But, mentioned fact is not the only proper

reason for military takeover of government, there

are some hidden motives as well.

In the context of failure of political establishment

and subsequent military intervention in government,

which of the following assumption is correct?(a) Political establishments do not produced the

effective and desired results.

(b) Military rule is the best alternative if political

establishments do not work in a proactive

manner.

(c) Though military can interfere if political

establishment fail, but military intervention is

often question marked as well.

(d) None of these.

14. The number of deaths due to Ebola virus in Western

Africa is 8000 out of 20,000 cases that were reported,

but in other parts of Africa mortality rate due to

Ebola virus is quite low. Which one of the following

inference can be drawn from the statement?

(a) Quality of life is far better in other parts of

Africa rather than Western Africa.





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7- x|ka 'k dk vR;ko';d lUns 'k D;k gS\ (a) fofuekZ .k {ks=k esa çkS|ks fxdh; fodklA (b) çkS |ks fxdh dh fofHkUu Jsf.k;ks a ds ekè;e ls mRiknu

{kerk dk :ika rj.k djukA (c) çkS |ksfxdh ds ekè;e ls Ñf"k ,oa xS j&O;kikj;ksX;

lsokvks a ls mPp mRikndrk o` f¼ okys m|ks xks a esa LFkkukarj.kA

(d) çkS|ksfxdh; fodkl ds ekè;e ls mRikndrk o ̀f¼ ykukA

8- 5 ckWDl gSa vkS j mues a ls gj ckWDl esa vyx&vyx ja x dh 5 xsa ns a gSa ] tS ls yky] ihyh] liQsn] ukja xh vkSj dkyhA ,d O;fDr çR;sd ckW Dl ls ,d fHkUu ja x dh xsa n ys djvyx&vyx jax dh 5 xs ansa fudkyuk pkgrk gSA ;fn igyh

gh ckj es a mlus igys ckW Dl ls ,d ukjaxh jax dh xs an fudkyh gks vkS j nw ljs ckWDl ls yky ja x dh xsa n fudkyh gksA ;fn ,d ckj esa pq uh xbZ xs an cnyh u tk, rks ml O;fDr dks viuk dk;Z iw jk djus ds fy, vfèkdre fdrus ç;klksa dh vko';drk gksxh\

(a) 12 (b) 11

(c) 20 (d) 60

9- nks ikbi gS a] ftues a ls ,d dk O;kl vfèkd gS tcfd nwljs dk deA ;fn ,d ikbi ikuh dh Vadh dks iw jk Hkjus

esa nw ljs ikbi ls 3 feuV vfèkd le; ysrk gS rks vfèkd O;kl okys ikbi }kjk Va dh dks Hkjus es a yxus okyk le;

Kkr dhft,] ;fn nksuks a ikbi feydj Vadh dks 1313 feuV

esa Hkjrs gks aA (a) 8 feuV (b) 5 feuV (c) 10 feuV (d) 7 feuV

10. jktekxZA B jktekxZ C

,d jktekxZ ij rhu xk¡ o A, B vkS j C iM+rs gS aA buesa ls

A ls B dk s vkil es a tks M+us okys 5 vkS j Hkh jkLrs gSa ] ,s ls gh B ls C dks tks M+ us okys 4 rFkk A ls C dks tksM+us okys 2 vkS j jkLrs gS aA dks bZ O;fDr B ls C rd fdrus jkLrks a ls gksdj tk ldrk gS\

(a) 20 (b) 17

(c) 30 (d) 22

11- ;fn foØ; ew Y; nqxuk gks tk,] rks ykHk rhu xquk gks tkrk gSA ykHk çfr'kr Kkr dhft,A

(a)2

663

(b) 100

(c) 11053

(d) 120

12- fdlh cSp ds iqfyl vfèkdkfj;ksa dks O;k;ke gs rq fofHkUu iafDr;ks a esa [kM+ k fd;k x;k gSA ;fn çR;s d iafDr es a 4vfèkdkjh vfèkd gks a rks 2 ia fDr;k¡ de gksa xhA ysfdu ;fn çR;s d ia fDr es a 4 vfèkdkjh de gksa rks 4 iafDr;k¡ vkSj gks axhA crkb, fd cS p esa dqy fdrus iqfyl vfèkdkjh gSa \

(a) 96 (b) 56

(c) 69 (d) 65

13- tc jktuhfrd ra =k vliQy gks tkrk gS] la LFkk,¡ dk;Z djuk ca n dj nsrh gSa vkSj fofHkUu yksdrka f=kd laxBuvius ewY; [kks ns rs gS a rks ,sls es a ls uk jktuhfrd nyks a dk LFkku ys dj 'kklu dh dk;Z ç.kkyh dks vius gkFk es a ys ldrh gSA ys fdu dsoy mfYyf[kr rF; gh lsuk }kjk ljdkj dks vius fu;a=k.k es a ys us dk mi;qDr dkj.k ugha gS] blds ihNs dq N vUrfuZfgr vfHkçsjd Hkh gS aA

jktuhfrd ra=k ds vliQy gksus vkS j iQyLo:i lsuk }kjk ljdkj es a gLr{ksi djus ds lanHkZ esa fuEufyf[kr es a ls dkS u&lh iw oZ èkkj.kk lgh gS\

(a) jktuhfrd ra =k çHkko'kkyh ,oa vis f{kr ifj.kke çnku ugha djrkA

(b) ;fn jktuhfrd ra =k igydkjh


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(b) Ebola Virus is more prevalent in Western Africa

compared to other regions of Africa.

(c) Those two regions cannot be compared to each

other.

(d) Western Africa is not prepared to handle theEpidemic of Ebola Virus.

15. "More people have lost their lives due to accidents

on highway compared to some law and order crisis".

Which of the following conclusion can we draw from

the above statement?

(a) Law and order crisis is not a bigger problem

any more.

(b) Law and order maintenance authorities are

more skilled than vehicle drivers. (c) There is no law and order mechanism on

highways.

(d) It is improper to generalize these two different

cases.

16.

The Shaded gure can be represented as:

(a) (Q ∪ R) – (Q ∩ R)

(b) (Q ∪ R) – (P∩ Q ∩ R)

(c) (Q ∪ R) – [(P ∩ (Q ∩ R)]

(d) None of these.

17. Six playing cards are lying face down on the table.

Two and only two of them are kings, but you do not

know the positions of kings. You pick two cards atrandom and turn them face up.

Which of the following is most likely to happen–

(1) At least one king among the two cards.

(2) No king among the two cards.

(3) Both kings among the two cards.

Select the correct answer from the given options–

(a) Occurrence of (1) is more than (2) and (3).

(b) Occurrence of (2) is more than (1) and (3).

(c) Occurrence of (3) is more than (1) and (2). (d) Occurrence of both (1) and (3) will be same.

18. If a cricket ball weighs 105 gm plus half its own

weight, how much does it weigh?

(a) 157.5 gm (b) 210 gm

(c) 190 gm (d) 180 gm

19. A Hexagon is a six-sided gure. A diagonal is a line

segment connecting any two non-adjacent vertices

(as shown is the gure). How many diagonals are

possible?

Diagonal

(a) 18 (b) 729

(c) 10 (d) 9

20. “If I am going to run the marathon, then I will buy

new shoes. If I buy new shoes, I will not buy a

television.”

Based on above statement, which of the following

argument would be valid?

(a) If I do not buy a television, then i will run the

marathon.

(b) If I do not buy a television, then I will buy new

shoes.

(c) If I buy a television, then I will not run the

marathon.

(d) If I buy a television, then I will run the

marathon.





9/51

(b) viz Qhdk ds vU; fgLlks a dh vis{kk if'peh viz Qhdk esa bcks yk ok;jl dk çdksi dkiQh vfèkd gSA

(c) bu nks uks a {ks =kksa dh vkil es a dks bZ rqyuk ugha dh tk ldrh gSA

(d) bcks yk ok;jl dh egkekjh ls fuiVus ds fy, if'pehviz Qhdk rS ;kj ugha gSA

15- ¶dkuwu ,oa O;oLFkk dh leL;k dh vis{kk jktekxks± ij gks us okyh nq ?kZ Vukvks a ds dkj.k yks x vfèkd tkus a xa okrs gS a A¸

mi;qZ Dr dFku ls fuEufyf[kr es a ls dkS u&lk fu"d"kZ çkIr fd;k tk ldrk gS\

(a) dkuwu ,oa O;oLFkk dks bZ cgqr cM+h leL;k ugha gSA (b) okgu pkydks a dh vis{kk dkuwu ,oa O;oLFkk çcaèku

çkfèkdkjh vfèkd n{k gSa A

(c) jktekxks± ij dks bZ dkuwu ,oa O;oLFkk ra =k ekStwn gh ugha gSA

(d) bu nks fHkUu&fHkUu ekeyksa dks lkekU;hÑr djukvuqi;qDr gSA

16.

Nk;kafdr vkÑfr dks bl :i es a iz nf'kZ r fd;k tk ldrk gS% (a) (Q ∪ R) – (Q ∩ R)

(b) (Q ∪ R) – (P∩ Q ∩ R)

(c) (Q ∪ R) – [(P ∩ (Q ∩ R)]

(d) bues a ls dksbZ ughaA

17. N% rk'k ds iÙks ,d es t ij iM+s gS a] ftuds eq [ki`"B uhps dh vksj gSa A mues a ls ds oy nks ckn'kkg gSa ] ys fdu vkidks ;s irk ugha gS fd ckn'kkg okys iÙks dkSu&ls gS aA vki

;kn ̀fPNd


10/51

Directions for the following 8 (Eight) items: Read the

following two passages and answer the items that follow



PASSAGE–1

The Himalayan ecosystem is fragile and diverse. It

includes over 51 million people who practice hill

agriculture and remains vulnerable. The Himalayan

ecosystem is vital to the ecological security of the

Indian landmass, through providing forest cover,

feeding perennial rivers that are the source of drinking

water, irrigation, and hydropower, conserving

biodiversity, providing a rich base for high value

agriculture, and spectacular landscapes for sustainable

tourism.

The Himalayan ecosystem is vulnerable and

susceptible to the impacts and consequences of (a)

changes on account of natural causes, (b) climate

change resulting from anthropogenic emissions and (c)

developmental paradigms of the modern society.

The Himalayas house one of the largest resources

of snow and ice and its glaciers which form a source

of fresh water for the perennial rivers such as the Indus,

the Ganga, and the Brahmaputra. Glacial melt may

impact their long-term lean season ows, with adverse

impacts on the economy in terms of water availabilityand hydropower generation. Recession of Himalayan

glaciers will pose a major danger to the country.

Currently available data gathered by multiples of

institutions without a coordinated effort do not indicate

systematic trends of recession of Himalayan glaciers.

The National Action Plan on Climate Change

(NAPCC) Launched National Mission for Sustaining

the Himalayan Ecosystem. The Mission needs to

deliver better understanding of the coupling between

the Himalayan ecosystem and the climate factors and

provides inputs for Himalayan Sustainable Developmentwhile addressing also the protection of a fragile

ecosystem. This will require the joint effort of

climatologists, glaciologists and other experts.

Exchange of information with the South Asian

countries and countries sharing the Himalayan ecology

will also be required. There is a need to establish an

observational and monitoring network for the

Himalayan environment to assess freshwater resources

and health of the ecosystem.

21. Primary objective of National Action Plan on

Climate Change can be met successfully if –

1. Climatologists, glaciologists and other experts

become indisputable in their theory of climate

change.

2. Environment becomes more sustainable

especially Himalayan ecosystem.


below:

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

22. Fragility and Vulnerability of Himalayan Ecosystem

is due to –

1. Natural reasons.

2. Man-made activities.

3. Society, in general.


below:


(c) 1 and 3 only (d) All 1, 2 and 3

23. According to passage, why and how melting ofglaciers poses some serious challenges to the Indian

landmass?

(a) Glacial melt will adversely impact the natural

water bodies of Indian landmass.

(b) Glacial melt will alter the biodiversity and

eventually affect the tourism.

(c) Glacial melt will change the ow of some

perennial rivers and affect the hydro-power

generation in Indian landmass also.

(d) Though glacial melt will have some adverse

impact on the ecosystem but we are yet to

ascertained it nally.

24. Preserving the natural biodiversity of Himalayan

Ecosystem is possible through the channels of –

1. Inter country scientific co-ordination for

Himalayan Ecology.





11/51

fuEufyf[kr 8 (vkB) iz'uka'kksa ds fy, funsZ'k% fuEufyf[krnks x|ka'kksa dks if


12/51

2. Protective mechanism and better understanding

of Himalayan ecosystem and climate impact

on it.

3. Pursuing developmental activities in

Himalayan Ecosystem but with adequatecaution.


below:

(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 only


PASSAGE–2

Rural development is primarily concerned with

uplifting people out of poverty. The impact of globalization

on rural societies, there economy, environment must

therefore be viewed through this perspective.

Major aspects of globalization that are related to

rural life or its development include the commercialization

of agriculture and expansion of agro-industries,

liberlization of international trade and marketing for

food and other agricultural products, intensication

and internal labour migraton, increase in privatization

of resources, services and the wider use of information

and communicaton technologies. Thus, the wave of

globalization which hit India at the end of the last century

and it affected all spheres of life. Labour migration tocities from rural areas in search of employment was a

common phenomenon earlier. This was for various

reasons especially for luxurious life, handsome salary

and for numerous job opportunities. Similarly, earlier

there was a ‘minimum wage act’ and now equal wage

for all is provided due to the impact of globalisation.

Today the percentage of village people attending

the call of nature in open elds is reduced. The good

road infrastructure makes them successful to sale

agricultural products from villages to goods markets

in cities and towns. As a result they can earn good price

of their product. Life in rural India was miserable due

to non-availability of electricity. Several villages have

been elec tr if ied now. It is a big benefi t of rura l

development. Globalization is creating much difference

to rural life through electricity.

The impact of globalization on Indian urban and

rural life has a tremendous inuence which is both

positive as well as negative. The Indian urban and rural

life is viewed as the two faces of the same coin. They are

mutually interdependent and both shows a greaterimpact of globalization.

The impact of globalization on Indian rural economy

has given a new face to modern India. There is a rapid

and positive progress towards society. Globalization has

changed India as one of the global superpowers.

However, rural India must tread cautiously on the path

of globalization as its negative effects can prove to be

catastrophic.

25. Which of the following can be inferred as the

outcome of gloablization on rural India? 1. More options to sale various agriculture

products.

2. Improvement in quality of life.

3. Change in labour migration.


below:


(c) 1 and 2 only (d) 2 and 3 only

26. Why author is showing some concern regarding

globalisation towards the end of the passage?

(a) Globalisation sometimes fails to achieve its

objective.

(b) Globalisation with all its welcoming outcomes

has some negative impacts as well.

(c) Globalisation may not pull people out of

poverty.

(d) Globalisation has changed India but not the

rural life and rural India.

27. Which of the following can be concluded as the

change from pre-globalization era to post-

globalization era?

1. Rural electrication.

2. Luxurious life.

3. Increase in technological facilities.

4. Low labour migration.





13/51

2- fgeky;h ikfjra=k vkSj bl ij tyok;q ds çHkko dks csgrj us ds fy, lq j{kk ra =kA

3- fgeky;h ikfjra=k esa fodklh; xfrfofèk;ksa dks lapkfyr djuk] ys fdu i;kZ Ir lkoèkkuh ds lkFkA

uhps fn, x, dw Vksa es a ls lgh mÙkj dk p;u djsa % (a) dsoy 1 vkS j 3 (b) dsoy 2 (c) dsoy 1 vkS j 2 (d) 1, 2 vkSj 3 lHkhA

x|ka'k&2

xz keh.k fodkl dk la caèk çkFkfed :i ls yks xksa dks fuèkZ urk ls ckgj fudkyus ls gSA xz keh.k lektksa ] ogk¡ dh vFkZO;oLFkkvkSj i;kZoj.k ij oS 'ohdj.k ds çHkko dks Hkh blh ifjçs{; esa ns [kk tkuk pkfg,A

oS 'ohdj.k ds çeq[k igyw ftUgsa xz keh.k tu&thou ;k fiQj blds fodkl ds lkFk tksM+ k tkrk gS] muds varxZr Ñf"k ds okf.kT;hdj.k rFkk Ñf"k&m|ksxks a ds foLrkj] [kk| ,oa vU; Ñf"k mRiknks a ds fy, va rjkZ"Vª h; O;kikj ,oa foi.ku ds mnkjhdj.k] xgurk vkSj vkrafjd Je çolu] la lkèkuks a vkS j lsokvks a ds c


14/51


below:

(a) 1, 3 and 4 only (b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 4 only (d) All 1, 2, 3 and 4

28. The author of this passage is most likely to agree

with which of the following?

(a) Globalization changes our perception about

rural India.

(b) Globalization is the solution to stop labour

migration from rural India.

(c) Modern India gets its new refined image

because of globalization.

(d) All of the above are correct.

Directions (Qs. 29-31):Answer the following questions

based on the information given below:

(i) A, B, C, D, E and F are six friends sitting in a row

to watch a movie.

(ii) E and A are immediate neighbor of C.

(iii) There are three persons between F and D.

(iv) B is fourth to the right of E.

(v) A is immediate neighbor of C and D.

29. Who is sitting at the extreme left end?

(a) E (b) B (c) C (d) F

30. Who is sitting to the right of D?

(a) B (b) C

(c) A (d) E

31. Between which of the following persons is E sitting?

(a) D and B (b) F and C

(c) F and A (d) C and A

32. Find the missing value.

5 56 9

7 72 11

9 ? 13

(a) 92 (b) 88

(c) 96 (d) 108

33. A college awarded 38 medals in volleyball, 15 in

hockey and 20 in football. These medals were

received by a total of 58 students and 3 students got

medals in all the three sports, how many students

received medals in exactly two of the three sports?

(a) 8 (b) 9

(c) 7 (d) 10

34. Five bells begin to toll together and toll respectively

at intervals of 5, 6, 7, 10 and 12 seconds. How many

times they will toll together in half an hour excluding

the one at the start.

(a) 7 times (b) 4 times

(c) 3 times (d) 5 times

35. There is a bucket which has to be lled with 10

stones and all stones are lying in the same line. The

bucket is placed 5 m. away from the rst stone and

the stones are 3 m away from each other. A person

starts from the bucket and pick the nearest stone,

runs back with it, drops it in the bucket, then again

run towards the nearest stone, picks it then runs back

with it and again drops in the bucket, in this way he

drops all the stones in the bucket, what is the total

distance he has to cover in this process?(a) 360

(b) 380

(c) 370

(d) None of these.

36. The population of bacteria culture doubles every 2

minutes. Approximately, how many minutes will it

take for the population to grow from 1000 to

5,00,000 bacterias?

(a) 10 (b) 12

(c) 14 (d) 18

Directions (Q.37 – 40): The following graph shows

the production cost of two commodities X and Y (in

thousand per year) from the year 1991 to 1996. Consider

the graph and answer the 4 questions that follows.





15/51

uhps fn, x, dw Vksa es a ls lgh mÙkj dk p;u djsa % (a) dsoy 1, 3 vkS j 4 (b) dsoy 1 vkS j 3 (c) dsoy 2 vkS j 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 vkSj 4 lHkhA

28. bl x|ka'k dk ys[kd fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdlds lkFk lokZfèkd lger gks ldrk gS\ (a) oS 'ohdj.k us xz keh.k Hkkjr ds la caèk esa gekjh èkkj.kk

dks cny fn;k gSA (b) xz keh.k Hkkjr ls gksus okys çolu dks jksdus ds fy,

oS 'ohdj.k ,d lekèkku gSA (c) oS 'ohdj.k ds dkj.k gh vkèkqfud Hkkjr dks viuh

uohu ifj"Ñr Nfo çkIr gq bZ gSA (d) mi;q Z Dr lHkh lgh gSa A

funsZ 'k (ç-la - 29&31)% uhps nh xbZ lwpuk ds vkèkkj ij fuEufyf[kr ç'uksa ds mÙkj nhft,A (i) A, B, C, D, E vkSj F N% fe=k ,d ew oh ns[kus ds

fy, ,d iafDr es a cSBs gq, gS aA (ii) C ds lfUudV iM+ ks lh E vkS j A gS a A (iii) F vkSj D ds chp es a rhu yksx gS aA (iv) B, E ds nk,¡ ls pkSFkk gSA (v) C vkSj D dk lfUudV iM+kslh A gSA

29- ck;ha rjiQ lcls va r esa dkS u cSBk gS\ (a) E (b) B

(c) C (d) F

30- D ds nk;ha rjiQ dkSu cS Bk gS\ (a) B (b) C

(c) A (d) E

31- E fdu nks yks xks a ds chp es a cS Bk gq vk gS\ (a) D vkS j B (b) F vkS j C

(c) F vkSj A (d) C vkS j A

32.

foyq Ir la [;k Kkr dhft,A5 56 9

7 72 11

9 ? 13

(a) 92 (b) 88

(c) 96 (d) 108

33- ,d dkW ys t us okWyhckWy es a 38 esMy] gkWdh es a 15 esMyvkS j iQq VckW y es a 20 es My forfjr fd,A dq y 58 fo|kfFkZ ;ks a us ;s esMy çkIr fd,] tcfd bues a ls 3 fo|kfFkZ;ksa dks rhuks a gh [ks yksa esa esMy çkIr gq ,] fdrus fo|kfFkZ ;ks a dks bu rhuks a [ks yks a esa ls nks esa es My çkIr gq ,\

(a) 8 (b) 9

(c) 7 (d) 10

34- ik¡ p ?ka fV;k¡ ,d&lkFk ctuk 'kq: gksrh gS a vkS j Øe'k%5, 6, 7, 10 vkSj 12 ls ds aM ds varjky ij ctrh gS aA 'kq #vkr esa igyh ckj dks NksM+dj vkèks ?kaVs esa os fdruh ckj ,d&lkFk cts axh\

(a) 7 ckj (b) 4 ckj

(c) 3 ckj (d) 5 ckj 35- ,d Vksdjh esa nl iRFkj Hkjs tkus gSa ] tks ,d leku iafDr

esa iM+ s gq, gS aA Vksdjh dks igys iRFkj ls 5 ehVj nwj f[kldk fn;k tkrk gS] vkS j lHkh iRFkj vkil esa 3&3 ehVj dh nw jh ij gS aA ,d O;fDr Vksdjh ls 'kq : djds lcls fudV dk iRFkj mBkrk gS vkSj bls ys dj okil Vksdjh rd vkrk gS vkS j ml iRFkj dks Vks djh esa Mky ns rk gS] iqu% og lcls utnhdh iRFkj dks mBkrk gS vkSj mls Hkh ykdj Vks djh esa Mky ns rk gSA bl rjg og lHkh

iRFkjks a dks mBkdj Vksdjh es a Mkyrk gSA bl iwjh çfØ;k es a mls fdruh nwjh r; djuh iM+ h\ (a) 360

(b) 380

(c) 370

(d) bues a ls dksbZ ughaA

36- thok.kq vksa dh tula [;k gj nks feuV es a nq xq uh gks tkrh gSA thok.kq vksa dh la [;k dks 1000 ls 5,00,000 rd igq ¡pus esa yxHkx fdrus feuV yxsa xs\

(a) 10 (b) 12 (c) 14 (d) 18

funsZ 'k (ç-la - 37–40)% uhps fn, x, vkjs[k es a o"kZ 1991 ls 1996 rd nks enksa X vkS j Y dh mRiknu ykxr (gtkj çfro"kZ esa ) dks fn[kk;k x;k gSA vkjs[k dks è;ku ls ns[krs gq , uhps fn, x, 4 ç'uksa ds mÙkj nhft,A




16/51

37. In which year the difference of the cost production

between X and Y is maximum?(a) 1991 (b) 1993

(c) 1994 (d) None of these.

38. In which year the prot of Y is maximum?

(a) 1996 (b) 1995

(c) 1992 (d) Cannot be determined.

39. Which commodity has shown a steady rise in the

cost?

(a) X (b) Y

(c) Both X and Y (d) None of these.

40. Which of the following pair of years has shown

the maximum increase and decrease respectively

for the commodity X?

(a) 1992 and 1993 (b) 1993 and 1994

(c) 1994 and 1995 (d) 1995 and 1996

41. On a straight road AB, 100 m long, ve balls are

placed two metres apart, rst ball is 2m from end A.

Now a worker, starting at A, has to transport all the

balls to B, by carrying only one ball at a time. The

minimum distance he has to travel (in metres) is:

(a) 472 (b) 422

(c) 744 (d) 844

42. Out of the given gures, except one all of the gures

make a proper sequence, which does not belong in

this sequence?

A

D

B

E

C

F

(a) D (b) B

(c) F (d) E

Directions: Given below is a statement followed by

two Assumptions. An assumption is something not written

directly but can be considered as the implicit understanding

before writing any text, document or writing. Choose the

implicit assumption in the following question:

43. Statement: It is a paradox that one country which

is full of potential, resources, opportunities and hope

is still suffering from abject poverty, class difference

and social inequality.

Assumptions: I. Nothing substantial has been

done to remove this paradox.

II. Possi bilit y of posit ive and

negative for one thing at the

same time implies a situation of

paradox.

Select the correct answer from the codes given

below:

(a) Only (I) is implicit.

(b) Only (II) is implicit.

(c) Both (I) and (II) are implicit.

(d) Neither (I) nor (II) is implicit.

44. “As price of crude oil increases, harmony among

nations decreases sharply.”. If this statement is

represented on a Mathematical curve, then which of

the following curve is correctly representing it?





17/51

37- fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdl o"kZ X vkS j Y ds chp mRiknu

ykxr dk va rj vfèkdre jgk\ (a) 1991 (b) 1993

(c) 1994 (d) bues a ls dksbZ ughaA

38- fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdl o"kZ Y ij ykHk vfèkdre jgk\(a) 1996 (b) 1995

(c) 1992 (d) fuèkkZ fjr ugha fd;k tk ldrkA

39- fuEufyf[kr es a ls dkS u&lh en ykxr es a fLFkj ò f¼ dks n'kkZ rh gS\

(a) X (b) Y

(c) X vkS j Y nksuks a (d) bues a ls dksbZ ughaA

40- fuEufyf[kr es a ls o"kks ± dk dkS u&lk ;q Xe X en ds lUnHkZ es a Øe'k% vfèkdre ò f¼ vkS j vfèkdre deh dks çnf'kZ r djrk gS\

(a) 1992 o 1993 (b) 1993 o 1994 (c) 1994 o 1995 (d) 1995 o 1996

41- 100 ehVj ya ch ,d lM+d AB ij 2&2 ehVj dh nwjh ij ik¡ p xs anksa dks j[kk x;k gS] ftles a igyh xa sn Nksj A ls 2 ehVj dh nw jh ij gSA vc ,d Jfed dks bu lHkh xs anks a dks Nksj A ls B rd ys tkuk gS] ys fdu ,d ckj esa ds oy ,d dh xsa n dks ys tkuk gSA mls U;w ure fdruh nw jh (ehVj es a ) r; djuh gS\

(a) 472 (b) 422 (c) 744 (d) 844

42. uhps nh xbZ vkÑfr;ks a esa ls ,d dks NksM+dj 'ks "k lHkh ,d fuèkkZ fjr Øe cukrh gS a] fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkS u&lhvkÑfr bl Øe ls fHkUu gS\

A

D

B

E

C

F

(a) D (b) B

(c) F (d) E

funsZ'k% uhps ,d dFku vkS j mlds ckn nks iw oZ èkkj.kk,¡ nh xbZ gS a A fdlh iwoZèkkj.kk dks çR;{kr% rks ugha fy[kk tkrk gS ys fdu fdlh Hkh fo"k;oLrq ] nLrkos t vFkok ys[k dks fy[kus ls iw oZ bls ml fo"k; dh vUrfuZ fgr le> ekuk tk ldrk gSA fuEufyf[kr ç'u esa vUrfuZ fgr iwoZ èkkj.kk dk p;u djs aA

43. dFku : ;g ,d foMacuk gh gS fd ,d ns'k tks laHkkoukvksa ] lalkèkuksa ] voljksa vkS j mEehnks a ls Hkjiw j gS] og vHkh HkhHk;a dj xjhch] oxZ foHksnhdj.k vkS j lkekftd vlekurk ls ihfM+ r gSA

iwoZèkkj.kk,¡ : I. bl foMa cuk dks lekIr djus ds fy,

dks bZ Bksl mik; ugha fd;k x;kA II. ,d gh le; fdlh ckr ds

ldkjkRed vkSj udkjkRed gks us dh laHkkouk foMa cuk ds ,d i{k dks n'kkZrh gSA

uhps fn, x, dw Vks a es a ls lgh mÙkj dk p;u djs a% (a) dsoy (I) va rfuZ fgr gSA (b) dsoy (II) va rfuZ fgr gSA (c) (I) vkS j (II) nksuks a va rfuZfgr gSa A (d) u rks (I) u gh (II) va rfuZfgr gSA

44. ¶T;ks a&T;ksa dPps rsy dh dherksa esa o ̀f¼ gksrh gS] jk"Vª ks a ds eè; lkSgkæZ esa rsth ls deh vkrh gS¸A ;fn bl dFku dks ,d xf.krh; oØ ds ekè;e ls fn[kk;k tk, rks fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkS u&lk oØ bls lgh rjhds ls n'kkZ ,xk\




18/51

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Directions(Qs. 45-46): Five students P, Q, R, S and

T are sitting around a circular table facing the centre. Few

conditions are also given:

z 3 students are sitting between T and R.

z Q is not adjacent to T.

z R and P are neighbours.

45. Which of the following is correct?

I. R is immediate right to T.

II. There can be two or three persons between S

and P. Select the correct answer from the codes given

below:

(a) Only I

(b) Only II

(c) Both I and II

(d) Neither I nor II

46. Who all are neighbours?

(a) P and S (b) R and S

(c) R and T (d) All (a), (b) and (c).

Directions for the following 7 (Seven) items: Read the following two passages and answer the items that follow



PASSAGE–1

Few people in America today sew all their own

clothes, grow all their own food, build their own

houses, or buy only products made in their own states.

It would cost too much and take too much time,especially since Americans can acquire such items

in the open market with relative ease. The same

pr inci ple of prac ti cal it y an d cos t app li es on an

international scale. It makes economic sense to buy

a product from another who specializes in such

production or who can make it more easily or for less

cost. Indeed, access to a greater variety of goods and

services is the purpose of trade.

Imports, then, are not a sacrice, a necessary evilfor the good of exporting. One exports so that one may

acquire goods and services in return. This logic is

evident on a personal level as well. A person works so

that he has the means to buy necessities and possibly

even luxuries. One does not make purchases in order

to justify working.

Free trade is the only type of truly fair trade

because it offers consumers the most choices and the

best opportunities to improve their standard of living.It fosters competition, spurring companies to innovate

and develop better products and to bring more of

their goods and services to market, keeping prices

low and quality high in order to retain or increase their

market share.





19/51

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

funsZ'k (iz-la- 45&46)% ik¡p Nk=k P, Q, R, S vkS j T ,d o`Ùkkdkj est ij ds a æ dh vks j eq ¡g djds cSBs gS a A bl la caèk esa dqN 'krs ± Hkh nh xbZ gS a%

z T vkS j R ds chp 3 Nk=k cSBs gq, gS a Az Q, T ds lfUudV ugha gSA z R vkS j P ,d&nw ljs ds iM+ ks lh gSa A

45. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkS u&lk lgh gS\ I. R, T ds ,dne nk,¡ cSBk gSA

II. S vkSj P ds chp nks ;k rhu yks x gks ldrs gS aA uhps fn, x, dw Vksa es a ls lgh mÙkj dk p;u djsa %

(a) dsoy I(b) dsoy II

(c) I vkSj II nks uks a (d) u rks I u gh II

46. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkS u&dkS u ls ,d&nw ljs ds iM+ ks lh gSa \ (a) P vkS j S (b) R vkS j S (c) R vkS j T (d) (a), (b) vkS j (c) lHkhAfuEufyf[kr 7 (lkr) iz'uka 'kksa ds fy, funsZ'k% fuEufyf[krnks x|ka'kksa dks if


20/51

47. Buying specialized products or services helps us in:

1. Saving time and money.

2. Improved quality of product.

3. More options to select.


below:



48. ‘‘Free Trade is the only type of truly fair trade’’.

What can we conclude about this statement?

(a) Benet of free trade is not limited to companies

but to nal consumers as well.

(b) Economics of countries under free trade haschanged drastically.

(c) Compared to other trade principle, it is more

practical.

(d) Both (a) and (c) are correct.

49. Example of American Consumers highlights the fact

that :

(a) Americans are more rationalistic while

purchasing a new product.

(b) Availability of improved goods and servicesis the idea of free trade.

(c) Americans do not spend time on low productive

areas.

(d) Americans know the importance of free trade

better than anyone else.

PASSAGE–2

Enhancing food security at the household level is an

issue of great importance for a developing country like

India where millions of poor suffer from lack of purchasing power and malnutrition. Food and nutritional

security implies the availability of food at all times, that

all persons can have access to it, that it is nutritionally

adequate in terms of quantity, quality and variety, and that

is acceptable within the given culture.

It is being increasingly recognized that rights

approach would be useful to achieve food and nutritional

security in the country. It may be difcult to make the

right completely justiciable. However, rights approach

puts pressures on public action and would lead to effective

implementation of the policies and programmes.

Right to food is part of an overall goal of achieving

right to development. The adoption by the United Nations

in 1986 of the Declaration on the Right to Development

was the culmination of a long process of international

deliberation on human rights which was perceived from

the very beginning as an integrated whole of all civil,

political, economic, social, and cultural rights.

50. Which of the following would be True about FoodSecurity?

1. Adequate availability of food products for all.

2. It has same parameter everywhere or all over

the world.


below:



51. Rights based approach towards food and nutritional

security would lead to:

(a) More Public scrutiny.

(b) Challenging it before the court of law if not

implemented properly.

(c) Public development.

(d) All of the above.

52. Why having food security is of utmost importance

for a country like India?

1. It will make her people nutritionally empowered.

2. Quality food would be ensured to those whocannot afford it.


below:







21/51

47- fo'ks "khÑr mRiknksa vFkok lsokvks a dks [kjhnuk gekjs fy, lgk;d gksrk gS%

1- le; vkS j èku dh cpr djus es aA 2- mRiknksa dh xq .koÙkk dks csgrj cukus esa A 3- p;u ds fy, vfèkdkfèkd fodYi miyCèk djkus es aA

uhps fn, x, dw Vksa es a ls lgh mÙkj dk p;u djsa % (a) dsoy 1 vkS j 2 (b) dsoy 2 vkS j 3 (c) dsoy 1 vkS j 3 (d) 1, 2 vkSj 3 lHkhA

48- ¶ds oy eqDr O;kikj gh lgh vFkks ± es a vPNk O;kikj gS¸A bl dFku ls ge D;k fu"d"kZ fudky ldrs gS a \

(a) eqDr O;kikj dk ykHk dsoy da ifu;ks a rd gh lhfer ugha gS a] cfYd bldk ykHk vafre miHkks Drkvks a dks

Hkh çkIr gksrk gSA (b) eqDr O;kikj ds varxZr vkus okys ns'kks a dhvFkZ O;oLFkkvksa es a vkewypw y ifjorZ u gq vk gSA

(c) vU; O;kikj fl¼ka rksa dh rq yuk es a ;g vfèkd O;kogkfjd gSA

(d) (a) vkSj (c) nks uks a gh lgh gS aA

49- ves fjdh miHkksDrkvksa dk mnkgj.k bl rF; ij çdk'k Mkyrk gS fd%

(a) dks bZ Hkh u;k mRikn [kjhnrs le; ves fjdh yks x

vfèkd rdZ cqf¼ dk ç;ksx djrs gSa A (b) cs grj oLrq vks a ,oa ls okvks a dh miyCèkrk eq Dr O;kikj

dk gh fopkj gSA (c) ves fjdh yks x de mRikndrk okys {ks=kks a ij T;knk

le; u"V ugha djrsA (d) fdlh Hkh vU; dh vis{kk ves fjdh yks x eqDr O;kikj

dk egÙo cs grj rjhds ls tkurs gSa A

x|ka'k&2

ifjokj ds Lrj ij [kk| lqj{kk dks c jgs gSa A [kk| ,oa iks "k.k lq j{kk dk rkRi;Z gS gj le; Hkks tu dh miyCèkrk] lHkh yks xksa dh bl rd igq ¡p gks lds] lkFk gh ek=kk] xq.koÙkk vkSj fofoèkrk dh n ̀f"V ls Hkh ;g iks "kd ,oa i;kZ Ir gks]vkSj çpfyr thou&'kS yh ds vuq:i gksA

bl ckr dh yxkrkj ekU;rk c


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53. Which of the following can be concluded about

Right to Food?

(a) India needs it more than any other country.

(b) It is co-related with basic human rights andwas in discussion even before 1986.

(c) It is an offshoot of various other human rights

and contemplated by United Nations in 1986.

(d) It is not as justiciable as other human rights do.

54. Two candles of the same height are lighted at the

same time. The rst is consumed in 4 hours and the

second in 3 hours. Assuming that each candle burns

at a constant rate, in how many hours after lighted,

the rst candle will be twice the height of the second?

(a)3

4 hrs. (b) 1

1

2 hrs.

(c) 2 hrs. (d) 22

5 hrs.

55. A bus starts from city A. The number of men in the

bus is twice the number of women. In city Z, 5

women enter and 20 men leave the bus. Now, the

number of women and men are equal. In the

beginning, how many passengers entered the bus?

(a) 25 (b) 50

(c) 100 (d) 75

56. An annual report consists of 20 sheets each of 55

lines and each line consists of 65 characters. This

report is reduced into sheets each of 65 lines such

that each line consists of 70 characters. The

percentage reduction in the number of sheets will be:

(a) 30% (b) 20%

(c) 5% (d) 35%

57. If 1st April, 2003 was Monday, then which day of

the week will be 25th November of the same year?

(a) Thursday (b) Sunday

(c) Monday (d) Friday

58. What is the angle between the minute hand and the

hour hand at 25 minutes past 5?

(a) 0° (b) 5°

(c) 12.5° (d) None of these. 59. A watch reads 4:30. If the minute hand points East,

in which direction will the hour hand point?

(a) North (b) North-West

(c) South-East (d) North-East

60. In a row of 40 girls, when Komal was shifted to her

left by 4 places her number from the left end of the

row become 10. What was the number of Swati from

the right end of the row if Swati was three places to

the right of Komal's original position?

(a) 22 (b) 23

(c) 25 (d) 24

61. A boy climbing up a greased pole ascends 12 m and

slips down 5 m in alternate minutes. If the pole is

63 m high, then how long will it take the boy to reach

the top?

(a) 177

12 min (b) 18 min

(c) 16

7

12 min (d) None of these.

62. "If proven guilty law makers and its protectors

should be given the same treatment as it would have

been with any ordinary citizen. Then it would be a

ultimate case of ‘Equality before the law".

Which of the following can be adjudged as the best

justication of the above statement?

(a) Law makers and its protectors should hold

more moral responsibility.

(b) Ethos of equality can be maintained ifeverybody is treated with the same yard-stick.

(c) There should be no equality for law makers

and its protectors in a democratic system.

(d) Equality before the law is more relevant for

ordinary citizens compared to law makers.





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53- Hkks tu ds vfèkdkj ds la caèk es a fuEufyf[kr es a ls D;k fu"d"kZ fudkyk tk ldrk gS\

(a) fdlh Hkh vU; ns 'k dh rq yuk es a Hkkjr dks bldhvfèkd vko';drk gSA

(b) ;g ew yHkw r ekuokfèkdkj ls tqM+k gq vk gS] vkSj 1986 ds igys ls gh ppkZ es a gSA

(c) ;g vU; ekuokfèkdkjks a ls gh mitk gS ftl ij la;q Dr jk"Vª us 1986 es a è;ku fn;kA

(d) ;g vU; ekuokfèkdkjks a ftruk U;k;ksfpr ugha gSA

54- leku yEckbZ dh nks eksecfÙk;ksa dks ,d&lkFk tyk;k tkrk gSA igyh eksecÙkh 4 ?kaVs esa tyrh gS tcfd nwljh eksecÙkh 3 ?kaVs esaA vxj ;g eku fy;k tk, fd çR;sd eksecÙkh ,d fu;r nj ls tyrh gS] rks crkb,

fd tykus ds fdruh ns j ckn igyh eks ecÙkh nwljh eksecÙkh ls yEckbZ esa nq xquh gks xh\

(a)3

4 ?kaVs (b) 1

1

2 ?kaVs

(c) 2 ?kaVs (d) 2 25

?kaVs

55- ,d cl 'kgj A ls pyuk 'kq: djrh gSA cl esa iq #"kksa dh la[;k efgykvksa dh la[;k dh nq xq uh gSA 'kgj Z esa 5 efgyk,¡ cl es a p


24/51

63. "Price of crude oil is not the same thing as its value",

Though value of crude oil in the international market

is rapidly declining but its value factor does not.

After all, security of energy product is high in

demand for every country irrespective of the price

tag associated with it".

Which of the following is the best conclusion of the

above statement?

(a) Crude oil is not the same as other commodity.

(b) Value of a product does not decline with its

price.

(c) Price and value of a product may have arelation but for crude oil it is always a high

priority among nations.

(d) If price of a commodity comes down its value

also declines rapidly.

64. "Theory of Climate Change is not as confusing as

it has been portrayed by various Earth Scientists and

other Environmentalists. Anyone can easily

understand what Climate Change is but problem

occurs when it's impact been discussed in the

international summits." Nobody is buying their

opponent's arguments.

What can be the inference of the above passage?

(a) Theory of Climate Change is not clear, it will

take sometime before it gets easily acceptable.

(b) Earth scientists and environmentalists do not

hold any ground on the theory of Climate

Change.

(c) Climate change talks are complete failure.

(d) Climate change theory do not create confusion

but when its proponent gather to discuss it,

they seems to be old rivals.

Direction (Qs. 65 –66): Study the following tables and

answer the questions based on these.

Table-1 Table-2 (Flight No. SQ401)

City

Position of

clocks at a

specifc time

City Departure Arrival

Delhi 12:50 Delhi 13:17

(IST)

–

Singapore 15:20 Singapore — 20:47

(SST)

I.S.T. – Indian Standard Time

S.S.T.– Singapore Standard Time

The distance between Delhi to Singapore is 2500 km.

65. What was the speed of ight number SQ401?

(a) 500 km/h

(b) 450 km/h

(c) 400 km/h

(d) 520 km/h

66. Due to fog the ight is delayed for an hour but pilot

wants to reach Singapore at scheduled time, he has

to keep the speed of plane as –

(a) 580 km/h (b) 625 km/h

(c) 450 km/h

(d) 600 km/h

67. Which number will be opposite to the number ‘4’?

2 4

3 66 5

(a) 1

(b) 2

(c) 3

(d) 6





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63- ¶dPps rsy dh dher vkS j bldk ewY; ,d leku ckrsa

ugha gS aA¸ ;|fi va rjkZ "Vªh; ck”kkj esa rs y dk ewY; rks rsth

ls fxj jgk gS] ysfdu bldk egÙo de ugha gks jgk gSA

vkf[kjdkj] rs y dh dher ij è;ku fn, fcuk] çR;s d ns'k esa ÅtkZ mRiknks a dh lq j{kk dh eka x dkiQh vfèkd gSA

fuEufyf[kr es a ls dkSu&lk mi;qZ Dr dFku dk loZJs "B

fu"d"kZ gS\

(a) dPpk rsy vU; enksa dh rjg ugha gSA

(b) fdlh mRikn dk ew Y; mldh dher ds lkFk de

ugha gks rkA

(c) gks ldrk gS fd fdlh mRikn dh dher ,oa mlds

ewY; es a ijLij laca èk gks ysfdu dPps rsy dks fy;k tk, rks ;g ges 'kk fofHkUu ns 'kks a ds chp mPp

çkFkfedrk ij jgrk gSA

(d) ;fn fdlh oLrq dh dher esa deh vk, rks blds

ewY; esa Hkh rhoz fxjkoV vkrh gSA

64- ¶tyok;q ifjorZu dk fl¼kar mruk Hkz ked ugha gS ftruk

fd bls fofHkUu Hkw &oSKkfudks a rFkk vU; i;kZ oj.kfonksa }kjk

çLrqr fd;k x;k gSA dksbZ Hkh cgq r gh lgtrk ls le>

ldrk gS fd tyok;q ifjorZu D;k gS ysfdu leL;k rc mRiUu gks rh gS tc blds çHkkoksa dks ys dj varjkZ "Vª h;

f'k[kj lEesyuksa esa ppkZ gks rh gSA¸ dks bZ Hkh blds fojksèkh

rdks ± dks Lohdkjus ds fy, rS ;kj ugha gSA

mi;qZ Dr x|ka'k dk fu"d"kZ D;k gks ldrk gS\

(a) tyok;q ifjorZ u dk fl¼kar Li"V ugha gS] lgtrk

ls Lohdkjus ls iw oZ bles a FkksM+ k oDr yxsxkA

(b) Hkw&oSKkfudksa ,oa i;kZ oj.kfonksa ds ikl tyok;q

ifjorZ u ds fl¼kar dks ysdj dksbZ vkèkkj ugha gSA

(c) tyok;q ifjorZ u la ca èkh okrkZ ,¡ iw .kZ r% vliQy jgh gS a A

(d) tyok;q ifjorZ u fl¼ka r dks bZ Hkz e mRiUu ugha djrk

ysfdu tc blds leFkZ d okrkZ gsrq tq Vrs gS a rks os

iqjkus çfr}a nh çrhr gks rs gS aA

funsZ 'k (ç-la- 65&66)% uhps nh x;h lkjf.k;ks a dk vè;;u djs a rFkk muds vkèkkj ij iw Ns x;s ç'uksa ds mÙkj ns aA

lkj.kh&1 lkj.kh&2 ( mM+ku la [;k SQ 401)

'kgj fdlh fo'ks"k l e ; i j ?k fM +; ks a dh fLFkfr

'kgj çLFkku vkxeu

fnYyh 12:50 fnYyh 13:17

(Hkk-ek-l-) —

fla xkiq j 15:20 flaxkiqj — 20:47

( fl-ek-l-)

Hkk-ek-l-& Hkkjrh; ekud le; fl-ek-l-& fla xkiq j ekud le;

fnYyh rFkk flaxkiqj ds chp dh nw jh 2500 fdeh- gSA

65. mM+ku la[;k SQ 401 dh xfr D;k Fkh\ (a) 500 fdeh@?ka Vk (b) 450 fdeh@?ka Vk (c) 400 fdeh@?ka Vk (d) 520 fdeh@?ka Vk

66. dks gjs ds dkj.k mM+ ku esa 1 ?kaVs dk foyEc gks tkrk gS] ijarq ikbyV r; le; ij mM+ ku dks fla xkiqj igq¡ pkuk pkgrk

gS] mls gokbZ &tgkt dh pky j[kuh gksxh –(a) 580 fdeh@?ka Vk (b) 625 fdeh@?ka Vk

(c) 450 fdeh@?ka Vk (d) 600 fdeh@?ka Vk

67. la[;k ^4* ds foijhr iQyd ij dkSu&lh la [;k gksxh\

2 4

3 66 5

(a) 1

(b) 2

(c) 3

(d) 6




26/51

Directions for the following 4 (Four) items: Read the

following passage and answer the items that follows.

Your answers to these items should be based on the

passage only.

PASSAGE

The main greenhouse gas is water vapour (H2O),

which is responsible for about two-thirds of the natural

greenhouse effect. In the atmosphere, water molecules

capture the heat that the earth radiates and then re-

radiate into all directions, warming earth’s surface,

before it is eventually radiated back to space. Water

vapour in the atmosphere is part of the hydrological

cycle, a closed system circulating water of which there

is a nite amount on earth from the oceans and land tothe atmosphere and back again through evaporation

and transpiration, condensation and precipitation.

Human activities do not add water vapour to the

atmosphere. However, warmer air can hold much more

moisture, so increasing temperatures further intensify

climate change. The main contributor to the enhanced

(manmade) greenhouse effect is carbon dioxide (CO2).

Globally, it accounts for over 60% of the enhanced

greenhouse gas effect. In industrialised countries, CO2

makes up more than 80% of greenhouse gas emissions.There is a nite amount of carbon on earth, which, like

water, is part of a cycle – the carbon cycle. This is a

very complex system in which carbon moves through

the atmosphere, the terrestrial biosphere and oceans.

Plants absorb CO2 from the atmosphere during

photosynthesis. They use the carbon to build their

tissue, and they release it back to the atmosphere when

they die and decompose. The bodies of animals (and

humans) also contain carbon since they are built from

carbon taken in from eaten plants - or animals that eat

plants . This carbon is released as CO2 when they

breathe (respiration) and when they die and decompose.

Fossil fuels are the fossilised remains of dead plants

and animals formed over millions of years under certain

conditions, and that's why they contain a lot of carbon.

Broadly speaking, coal is the remnant of buried forests

while oil is converted oceanic plant life. (Oceans

absorb CO2 which, in dissolved form, is used by marine

life in photosynthesis.).

68. More intensication of Climate Change is mainly

due to:

1. Fossil fuels.

2. Green house effect.

3. Both natural and man-made activities.


below:



69. If we say that Carbon Cycle is equally responsible

for Climate Change, then what would be the correct

justication for it?

(a) Carbon cycle increases the chances of green

house gas effect.

(b) Because of the inherent natural process of

plants and animals life cycle, net carbon ow

does not change in the atmosphere.

(c) Carbon cycle increases the availability of CO2

in the atmosphere.

(d) None of these.

70. Which of the following can be properly consider as

the assumption of the author, with reference to Green

house gases?

1. Elements of greenhouse gases are always

present on Earth.

2. Industrialised countries should hold more

responsibility to cut greenhouse gases emission.

3. It would be incorrect to hold human activities

responsible for greenhouse gases emission.

Select the correct answers from the codes given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 1 and 2 only

(d) All 1, 2 and 3





27/51

fuEufyf[kr 4 (pkj) iz'uka'kksa ds fy, funsZ'k% fuEufyf[krx|ka 'k dks if


28/51

71. This passage is most likely to be an excerpt of:

(a) Environmental Science

(b) Impact of Greenhouse Gases Emissions

(c) Principle of Carbon Cycle

(d) Few causes of Greenhouse EffectDirections (Qs.72–74): Read th e fol lo wing

information carefully and answer the questions:

At a party that consists of ve persons A, B, C, D and

E and all are sitting in a circle. The group comprises a

professor, an industrialist and a businessman. The

businessman is sitting in between the industrialist and his

wife D. A, the professor is married to E, who is the sister

of B. The industrialist is seated to the right of C. Both the

ladies are unemployed.

72. What is A to B? (a) Brother

(b) Uncle

(c) Brother-in-law

(d) Cannot be determined.

73. A is sitting to the right of –

(a) the industrialist

(b) his wife

(c) D


74. Who is the industrialist?

(a) D

(b) A

(c) B


75. Seven women Asha, Babita, Chinni, Dipti, Ellie,

Fatima and Gauhar are standing in a queue in that

order. Each one is wearing a cap of different colours

Violet, Indigo, Blue, Green, Yellow, Orange and

Red. Dipti is able to see in front of her Green and

Blue, but not Violet. Fatima can see Violet and

Yellow, but not Red. Gauhar can see caps of all the

colours other than orange. If Ellie is wearing an

Indigo coloured cap, then the colour of the cap worn

by Babita is:

(a) Blue

(b) Violet

(c) Green


76. The table below shows the average monthly

household expenditure on different items for the

year 2001 to 2004.

ItemsAverage Monthly Expenditure (in Rs.)

2001 2002 2003 2004

Food 4,500 4,800 5,400 5,700

Rent 1,800 1,800 2,200 2,300

Children's

Education

650 800 1000 3,200

Others 2,400 2,600 3,000 1,400 Find in which year the maximum difference in the

average percentage change in the expenditure?

(a) 2001

(b) 2002

(c) 2003

(d) 2004

Directions (Q.77–79): Figures in the Question

Figures are following certain pattern, based on this pattern

fnd the fgure that will replace the question mark.

77. Question Figures:

Answer Figures:

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)





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71. x|ka 'k dks fdldk m¼j.k ekus tkus dh lokZ fèkd la Hkkouk gS\

(a) i;kZ oj.kh; foKku(b) gfjr x ̀g xSlksa ds mRltZ u dk çHkko(c) dkcZ u pØ dk fl¼kar(d) gfjr x` g çHkko ds dqN dkj.k

funs Z'k (ç-la - 72&74)% uhps nh x;h lwpuk dks è;kuls if


30/51


Answer Figures:

(a) (b)

(c) (d)


Answer Figures:

(a) (b)

(c) (d)

80. In a queue, Mala is tenth from the front and Neha is

fourth from the back. There is one girl between Mala

and Neha. How many girls are there in the queue

(considering only girls are there in the queue)? (a) 15

(b) 11

(c) 16






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78- ç'u vkÑfr;k¡ %

mÙkj vkÑfr;k¡ %

(a) (b)

(c) (d)

79- ç'u vkÑfr;k¡ %

mÙkj vkÑfr;k¡ %

(a) (b)

(c) (d)

80- ,d iafDr es a ekyk vkxs ls nlos a LFkku ij] vkS j usgk ihNs ls pkSFks LFkku ij gSA ekyk vkS j usgk ds chp es a ds oy ,d gh yM+dh gSA ml iafÙkQ es a dq y fdruh yM+ fd;k¡ gSa ( ;g ekurs gq, fd iafÙkQ esa dsoy yM+fd;k¡ gh gS a )\

(a) 15

(b) 11

(c) 16

(d) fuèkkZ fjr ugha fd;k tk ldrkA




32/51


33/51

CIVIL SERVICES APTITUDE TEST – 2015


TEST BOOKLET SERIES

TEST BOOKLETCivil Services Aptitude Test

General Studies

(Paper - II)

Test CodeDC-1500

Answers & Explanations

ANSWERS

Q.No. Answers Q.No. Answers Q.No. Answers Q.No. Answers

1. (c) 21. (b) 41. (d) 61. (c)

2. (b) 22. (a) 42. (b) 62. (b)

3. (b) 23. (d) 43. (b) 63. (c)

4. (c) 24. (d) 44. (d) 64. (d)

5. (a) 25. (c) 45. (d) 65. (a)

6. (c) 26. (b) 46. (c) 66. (b)

7. (d) 27. (b) 47. (d) 67. (c)8. (a) 28. (c) 48. (a) 68. (c)

9. (b) 29. (d) 49. (b) 69. (b)

10. (b) 30. (a) 50. (a) 70. (c)

11. (b) 31. (b) 51. (a) 71. (d)

12. (a) 32. (b) 52. (c) 72. (c)

13. (c) 33. (b) 53. (b) 73. (d)

14. (b) 34. (b) 54. (d) 74. (c)

15. (d) 35. (c) 55. (d) 75. (d)

16. (d) 36. (d) 56. (b) 76. (c)

17. (a) 37. (c) 57. (c) 77. (d)

18. (b) 38. (d) 58. (c) 78. (d)

19. (d) 39. (d) 59. (d) 79. (d)

20. (c) 40. (a) 60. (d) 80. (d)


34/51




Overall Summary of the Paper [DC-1500 (D)]

A. Area wise division of the questions

S.No. Area No. of Questions

1. Bilingual Comprehension 26

2. Basic Numeracy + General Mental Ability 18

3. Inferential Reasoning + Analytical Reasoning 7

4. Logical Reasoning (Verbal and Non-Verbal Reasoning) 23

5. Graph Representation + Data Interpretation 6

6. Total 80

Important Note:

z As in IAS-2014 question paper, not a single question featured in CSAT from Decision Making, Problem Solving,

and Inter-Personal Communication Skills. Similarly, this paper also do not carry any questions on Decision

Making, Problem Solving or Inter-personal Skills.

z This paper was truly on the lines of CSAT-2014. It carries the same difculty level as it was in CSAT-2014.

z An average score of at least 120 would be very handy for any serious aspirant.

z Almost, all the questions in this paper resembled to last few years CSAT papers.


35/51



1. (c) As discussed in the passage that oil market

analysts think that overseas investments are

unlikely to shelter countries from oil market

volatility. Thus, (1) is correct. Towards the end

of the passage it was mentioned that if oil

continues at $ 50-60 per barrel, then it would

be a protable situation and if prices drop it

could be painful. Thus, (2) is correct. Oil market

analysts are not critical of regarding oil as a rare

commodity. Thus, (3) is incorrect. Example of

China in the rst paragraph shows that every

production abroad may not shipped back to

China. Thus, (4) is correct as well. Hence, (c)

is the correct option.

2. (b) Demand and supply are denitely co-relative

as discussed in second paragraph. Thus, (1) is

incorrect. According to passage, if there is

sufficient or increase in supply relative to

demand it will have a downward impact on

price. Or they are indirectly related. In the same

way, increase in demand relative to supply will

push prices upward or directly co-related. Thus,

both (2) and (3) are correct. Hence, (b) is the

correct option.

3. (b) Author is questioning the acquisition strategy

of equity oil, specially Chinese and Indian

companies. Hence, (b) would be more

appropriate.

4. (c) In the second paragraph it is already mentioned

that knowledge intensive sectors produce

tradable goods and can be integrated with global

production network. Thus, both (1) and (3) arecorrect.

Knowledge intensive modern sectors are having

threat from abroad and it does help in bringing

competition. Thus, (2) is incorrect. Hence, (c)


Explanations

1. (c) tSlk fd x|ka'k esa crk;k x;k gS fd rsy ck”kkj fo'ys "kdks a

dk ekuuk gS fd fons 'kh fuos 'k }kjk ns'kks a dks rs y ck”kkj

dh vfLFkjrk ls cpk ikuk la Hko ugha gSA vr% (1) rks

lgh gSA x|ka'k ds va r es a bl ckr dk mYys [k fd;k x;k

gS fd ;fn rs y dh fcØh fuja rj 50&60 MkWyj çfr cS jy

jgrh gS rks fLFkfr ykHkçn jgs xh] ys fdu ;fn dherksa es a

fxjkoV vkbZ rks blds ifj.kke d"Vnk;h gks ldrs gS aA bl

çdkj (2) Hkh lgh gSA rsy dks ,d nq yZ Hk oLrq ekuus ds

laca / es a rs y ck”kkj fo'ys"kd vfM+ ;y #[k ugha fn[kk

jgs gSa A blfy, (3) lgh ugha gSA çFke ifjPNsn es a fn;k

x;k phu dk mnkgj.k ;g n'kkZ rk gS fd fons 'k es a fd;k

x;k gj mRiknu okil phu ugha Hks tk tk lds xkA bl rjg ls (4) Hkh lgh gSA vr% (c) gh lgh fodYi gSA

2. (b) tSlk fd f}rh; ifjPNsn es a crk;k x;k gS fd eka x vkS j

vkiwfrZ fuf'pr :i ls ijLij&la ca f/r gS aA vr% (1) lgh

ugha gSA x|ka'k ds vuq lkj] ;fn ekax ds lkis{k vkiw frZ

i;kZIr gS vFkok mles a o`f¼ gqbZ gS rks dher ij bldk

v/ksxkeh çHkko iM+ sxk] ;k fiQj ;g dgs a fd os ijks{kr%

ijLij&lacaf/r gSa A blh çdkj] vkiwfrZ ds lkis{k eka x es a

gqbZ o`f¼] dherksa esa vkSj Hkh o ̀f¼ djs xh] ;k fiQj ;g

dgsa fd ;s çR;{kr% ijLij&laca f/r gS aA bl çdkj] (2)vkSj (3) nks uksa lgh gS aA blfy, (b) gh lgh fodYi gSA

3. (b) ys[kd] fo'ks "k :i ls phuh vkS j Hkkjrh; da ifu;ks a

dh] bfDoVh vkW by dh vf/xz g.k j.kuhfr ij ç'u

fpUg yxk jgk gSA bl çdkj] fodYi (b) vf/d

mi;q Dr gksxkA

4. (c) f}rh; ifjPNs n es a] bl ckr dk igys ls gh mYys [k

fd;k x;k gS fd Kku xgu {ks=k O;kikj ;ksX; oLrqvks a

dk mRiknu djrs gSa ] vkSj bUgsa oS f'od mRiknu usVodZ

ds lkFk ,dhÑr Hkh fd;k tk ldrk gSA bl çdkj](1) vkS j (3) nksuks a gh lgh gSa A

Kku xgu vk/qfud {ks=kksa dks fons 'k ls [krjk gS vkSj

lkFk gh ;s çfrLièkkZ ykus es a Hkh lgk;d gS a A bl çdkj]

(2) rks lgh ugha gSA vr% (c) gh lgh fodYi gSA


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5. (a) As discussed in the last paragraph, structural

changes remove constraints from productivity

growth. Thus, (a) is correct. Avoiding agriculture,

increase in labour productivity or technological

upgradation would be too specic. Hence, (a)


6. (c) As per the passage convergence is more rapid

in technology or knowledge intensive sectors

and it clears the way for high productive growth.

Thus, (1) and (2) are correct. Textile and

clothing are less technological intensive sectors

and it is difcult to bring new changes through

convergence of technologies. Thus, (3) is

incorrect. Hence, (c) is the correct option.

7. (d) Passage is all about bringing rapid and high

productive growth with the adoption of cutting

edge technology to re-shape industries. Hence,

(d) is the correct option.

8. (a) Since the person has already picked 2 different

coloured balls. Therefore, for the third coloured

ball other than the previous two coloured balls

maximum attempts would be 3, similarly for

the fourth coloured ball maximum attempts or

trials would be 4 and for the fth coloured ball

maximum attempts would be 5.

Thus, (3) + (4) + (5) = 12

Hence, (a) is the correct option.

9. (b) This question can be easily solved through

options.

Time taken by,

Larger diameter pipe = 5 min.

Smaller diameter pipe = 8 min.

Let the total unit to ll the cistern would be

= LCM of (5, 8) = 40 units

Efciency of Larger diameter pipe in 1 min.

= 8 units

5. (a) tSlk fd vafre ifjPNsn esa crk;k x;k gS fd lajpukRed ifjorZ u mRikndrk o`f¼ ls vojks/ks a dks nw j djrs gS aA bl çdkj] (a) rks lgh gSA Ñf"k dh mis{kk djuk] Je dh mRikndrk es a o`f¼ vFkok çkS |ksfxdh; mÂ;u Hkh dkiQh fof'k"V gks xkA vr% (a) gh lgh fo

drishti csat 2015 mock

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