245 (1 – A )

D ±ÜÅÍæ°±ÜâÔ¤Pæ¿á®Üá° ñæÃæ¿ááÊÜíñæ ¯ÊÜáWæ £ÚÓÜáÊÜÊÜÃæWÜã C¨Ü®Üá° ñæÃæ¿áPÜãvÜ Üá

±ÜÅÍæ° ±ÜâÔ¤Pæ ÍæÅà~

±ÜÅÍæ° ±ÜâÔ¤Pæ

¯©ìÐÜr ±Ü£ÅPæ (±Ü£ÅPæ II)

ÓÜÊÜá¿á : 2 WÜípæWÜÙÜá WÜÄÐÜu AíPÜWÜÙÜá : 200

ÓÜãaÜ®æWÜÙÜá 1. ±ÜÄàûæ ±ÝÅÃÜí»ÜWæãívÜ ñÜûÜ|Êæà J.Gí.BÃ…. EñܤÃÜÖÝÙæ¿áÈÉ ±ÜÅÍæ° ±ÜâÔ¤Pæ ÍæÅà~¿á®Üá° WÜáÃÜáñÜá ÊÜÞvÜáÊÜ Êæã¨ÜÆá, D ±ÜÅÍæ° ±ÜâÔ¤Pæ¿áÈÉ

ÊÜáá©ÅñÜÊÝWÜ Ü A¥ÜÊÝ ÖÜÄ©ÃÜáÊÜ A¥ÜÊÝ ¿ÞÊÜâ æà ±Üâo CÆÉ©ÃÜáÊÜ A¥ÜÊÝ ÊÜáá©ÅñÜÊÝWÜ Ü ±ÜÅÍæ°WÜÙÜá CñÝ© JÙÜWæãíwÆÉÊæíŸá¨Ü®Üá° ¯àÊÜâ ±ÜÄàüÓÜñÜPÜR Üáª. Êæáà騆 ¿ÞÊÜâ æà ¨æãàÐÜ PÜívÜáŸí ÜÈÉ A¨Ü®Üá° ×í£ÃÜáXÔ Æ»ÜÂËÃÜáÊÜ ÍæÅà~¿á ±ÜıÜä|ìÊÝ Ü ¸æàÃæ ±ÜÅÍæ° ±ÜâÔ¤Pæ¿á®Üá° ±Üvæ¿áñÜPÜR¨Üáª.

2. A»Ü¦ì¿áá ±ÜÅÍæ° ±ÜâÔ¤Pæ¿á ÍæÅà~ A, B, C A¥ÜÊÝ D A®Üá° ËÐÜ¿á ÓÜíPæàñÜ ÊÜáñÜᤠ®æãàí Ü~ ÓÜíTæ¿á®Üá° OMR EñܤÃÜ ±Ü£ÅPæ¿áÈÉ A¨ÜPÝRX J¨ÜXÓÜÇÝXÃÜáÊÜ ÓܧÙܨÜÈÉ ŸÃæ¨Üá ÓÜíPæàñÜ (G®… Pæãàv…) WæãÚÓܸæàPÜá. ÖÝWÜã ¯WÜ©ñÜ ÓܧÙÜ ÜÈÉ ñÝÊÜâ ÊÜáñÜᤠÓÜíËàûÜPÜÃÜá ÓÜ× ÊÜÞwÃÜáÊÜâ¨Ü®Üá° SbñÜ ±ÜwÔPæãÙÜÛ æàPÜá. J.Gí.BÃ…. ÖÝÙæ¿áÈÉ £ÚÔÃÜáÊÜ ¿ÞÊÜâ¨æà ÊÜÞ×£¿á®Üá° »Ü£ì ÊÜÞvÜáÊÜâ Üá/G®… Pæãàv… ÊÜÞvÜáÊÜâ¨Üá A»Ü¦ìWÜÙÜ gÊݸݪĿÞXÃÜáñܤ¨æ. Jí¨Üá ÊæàÙæ »Ü£ì ÊÜÞvÜ©¨ÜªÈÉ/ñܲ³¨ÜÈÉ AíñÜÖÜ J.Gí.BÃ…. EñܤÃÜ ÖÝÙæ¿á®Üá° £ÃÜÓÜRÄÓÜÇÝWÜáÊÜâ Üá.

3. ±ÜPÜR ÜÈÉ J ÜXÔÃÜáÊÜ aèPÜ ÜÇæÉà ¯ÊÜá¾ ®æãàí Ü~ ÓÜíTæ¿á®Üá°

®ÜÊÜáã©ÓÜ æàPÜá. ±ÜÅÍæ° ±ÜâÔ¤Pæ¿áÈÉ ¸æàÃæ H®Ü®Üã° ŸÃæ¿á¸ÝÃܨÜá.

4. D ±ÜÅÍæ° ±ÜâÔ¤Pæ 100 ±ÜÅÍæ°WÜÙÜ®Üá° JÙÜWæãíwÃÜáñܤ æ. ±ÜÅ£Áãí¨Üá ±ÜÅÍæ°¿áá 4 ±ÜÅ£QÅÁáWÜÙÜ®Üá° (EñܤÃÜWÜÙÜ®Üá°) JÙÜWæãíwÃÜáñܤ æ. ¯àÊÜâ EñܤÃÜ ÖÝÙæ¿áÈÉ WÜáÃÜáñÜá ÊÜÞvܸæàPæ¯ÓÜáÊÜ EñܤÃÜÊÜ®Üá° BÁáR ÊÜÞwPæãÚÛ. Jí Üá ÊæàÙæ AÈÉ Jí¨ÜQRíñÜ ÖæaÜác ÓÜÄ¿Þ Ü EñܤÃÜWÜÚÊæÁáí¨Üá ¯àÊÜâ »ÝËÔ¨ÜÃæ ¯ÊÜáWæ AñÜáÂñܤÊÜáÊæ ÓÜáÊÜ EñܤÃÜPæR WÜáÃÜáñÜá ÊÜÞw. H®æà A¨ÜÃÜã ±ÜÅ£ ±ÜÅÍæ°Wæ ¯àÊÜâ PæàÊÜÆ Jí Üá EñܤÃÜÊÜ®Üá° ÊÜÞñÜÅ BÁáR ÊÜÞvÜ æàPÜá.

5. GÇÝÉ EñܤÃÜWÜÙÜ®Üá° ¯ÊÜáWæ J ÜXÓÜÇÝXÃÜáÊÜ ±ÜÅñæÂàPÜ EñܤÃÜ ÖÝÙæ¿á ÊæáàÇæ PæàÊÜÆ PܱÜâ³ A¥ÜÊÝ ¯àÈ ÍÝÀá¿á ¸ÝÇ…±ÝÀáíp… ±æ °®ÜÈÉ ÊÜÞñÜÅ WÜáÃÜáñÜá ÊÜÞvÜ æàPÜá. J.Gí.BÃ…. EñܤÃÜ ±Ü£ÅPæ ÖÝÙæ¿áÈÉ®Ü ËÊÜÃÜÊÝ¨Ü ÓÜãaÜ®æWÜÙÜ®Üá° WÜÊÜá¯ÓÜáÊÜâ¨Üá.

6. GÇÝÉ ±ÜÅÍæ°WÜÚWæ ÓÜÊÜÞ®Ü AíPÜWÜÙÜá. GÇÝÉ ±ÜÅÍæ°WÜÚWæ EñܤÄÔÄ. ±ÜÅ£ ñܱÜâ³ EñܤÃÜPæR ±ÜÅÍæ°Wæ ¯WÜ©±ÜwÔ Ü AíPÜWÜÙÜ ¼ (0.25) ÃÜÐÜár AíPÜWÜÙÜ®Üá° PÜÙæ¿áÇÝWÜáÊÜâ Üá.

7. bñÜᤠPæÆÓÜPÝRX ÖÝÙæWÜÙÜ®Üá° ±ÜÅÍæ° ±ÜâÔ¤Pæ¿á Pæã®æ¿áÈÉ ÓæàÄÓÜÇÝX¨æ. ±ÜÅÍæ° ±ÜâÔ¤Pæ¿á C®Üá°Ú Ü ¿ÞÊÜ »ÝWܨÜÈÉ¿áã ¯àÊÜâ ¿ÞÊÜ Äࣿá WÜáÃÜáñÜ®Üá° ÊÜÞvÜñÜPÜR ܪÆÉ.

8. ±ÜÄàûæ¿á ÊÜááPݤ¿áÊÜ®Üá° ÓÜãbÓÜáÊÜ Aí£ÊÜá WÜípæ ¸ÝÄÔ Ü ñÜûÜ|Êæà EñܤÃÜ ±Ü£ÅPæ ÖÝÙæ¿áÈÉ C®Ý°ÊÜâ¨æà WÜáÃÜáñÜá ÊÜÞvÜáÊÜâ Ü®Üá° ¯ÈÉÓܸæàPÜá. ÓÜíËàûÜPÜÃÜá Ÿí¨Üá ¯ÊÜá¾ÈÉÃÜáÊÜ EñܤÃÜ ÖÝÙæ¿á®Üá° ñÜÊÜá¾ ÊÜÍÜPæR ±Üvæ ÜáPæãívÜá ÇæPÜRPæR ñæWæ¨ÜáPæãÙÜáÛÊÜÊÜÃæWÜã ¯ÊÜá¾ ¯ÊÜá¾ BÓÜ®Ü ÜÈÉÁáà PÜáÚ£ÃÜñÜPÜR Üáª.

9. ±ÜÅÍæ°WÜÙÜá PܮܰvÜ ÊÜáñÜᤠBíWÜÉ »ÝÐæ¿áÈÉÃÜáñܤÊæ. PܮܰvÜ ±ÜÅÍæ°WÜÙÜÈÉ ÓÜí¨æàÖÜ EípÝ ÜÃæ, Ü¿áËoár BíWÜÉ »ÝÐæ¿á ±ÜÅÍæ°WÜÙÜ®Üá° WÜÊÜá¯ÓÜáÊÜâ¨Üá. ±ÜÅÍæ° ±Ü£ÅPæ¿á ±ÜÅÍæ°WÜÙÜÈÉ ¿ÞÊÜâ¨æà Wæãí¨ÜÆWÜڨܪÃÜã BíWÜÉ»ÝÐæ¿á ±ÜÅÍæ°WÜÙæà Aí£ÊÜáÊÝXÃÜáñܤ¨æ.

Note : English version of the instructions is printed on the back cover of this booklet.

A ËÐÜ¿á ÓÜíPæàñÜ : 245

*245/A*

®æãàí¨Ü~ ÓÜíTæÂ

¿ÞÊÜâ æà Äࣿá Êæã æçÇ… ¶æäà®…, PÝÂÇ…PÜáÂÇæàoÃ… ÊÜáñÜᤠCñÜÃæ Äࣿá GÇæPÝó¯P…/PÜÊÜáã¯PæàÐÜ®… ÓÝ«Ü®ÜWÜÙÜá CñÝ©WÜÙÜ®Üá° ±ÜÄàûÝ Pæàí¨ÜÅ Ü BÊÜÃÜ|¨æãÙÜWæ ñÜÃÜáÊÜâ Ü®Üá° ¯Ðæà˜Ô¨æ.

245 (2 – A )

1. ¨ÁåAQ£À°è §¼ÀPÉAiÀiÁUÀĪÀ MICR vÀAvÀæeÁÕ£ÀzÀ «¸ÀÛøvÀ gÀÆ¥À:

(1) ªÀiÁåUÉßnPï EAPï PÁågÀPÀÖgï gÉPÀVß±À£ï

(2) ªÀiÁåUÉßnPï EAPï PÀ£ÀÆìªÀÄgï gÉPÀVß±À£ï

(3) ªÀiÁåUÉßnPï EAPï PÀ¸ÀÖªÀÄgï gÉPÀVß±À£ï

(4) ªÀiÁåUÉßnPï E£ï¥sÀgïªÉÄñÀ£ï PÁågÀPÀÖgï gÉPÀVß±À£ï

2. IFSC ¸ÀAPÉÃvÀªÀÅ :

(1) D¯Áá£ÀÆåªÀÄjPï 11 rfmï PÉÆÃqï ¸ÀASÉå

(2) D¯Áá£ÀÆåªÀÄjPï 12 rfmï PÉÆÃqï ¸ÀASÉå

(3) D¯Áá£ÀÆåªÀÄjPï 17 rfmï PÉÆÃqï ¸ÀASÉå

(4) D¯Áá£ÀÆåªÀÄjPï 10 rfmï PÉÆÃqï ¸ÀASÉå

3. ¨ÁåAQAUï ªÀåªÀºÁgÀzÀ°è£À ‘£ÀUÀzÀÄ ¸Á®’ JAzÀgÉ :

(1) ¸Á®UÁgÀgÀÄ vÀªÀÄä ‘£ÀUÀzÀÄ ¸Á® SÁvÉ’¬ÄAzÀ ¤UÀ¢vÀ «ÄwAiÀÄ°è »AvÉUÉ¿ááªÀÅzÀÄ.

(2) ¸Á®UÁgÀgÀÄ vÀªÀÄä ‘£ÀUÀzÀÄ ¸Á® SÁvÉ’¬ÄAzÀ C¤¢ðµÀÖ «ÄwAiÀÄ°è »AvÉUÉzÀÄPÉƼÀÄîªÀÅzÀÄ.

(3) ¸Á®UÁgÀgÀÄ ‘Overdraft’ SÁvɬÄAzÀ ºÀt ×íñæWæ¿ááÊÜâ Üá.

(4) ¸Á®UÁgÀgÀÄ ZÁ°Û SÁvɬÄAzÀ ºÀt vÉUÉAiÀÄĪÀÅzÀÄ.

4. ‘Overdraft’ ¸Ë®¨sÀåªÀÅ ®¨sÀåªÁUÀĪÀÅzÀÄ EzÀgÀ ªÉÄïÉ

(1) ¯ÎcñÜ sæàÊÜOæ

(2) G½vÁAiÀÄ ¸ÝÂíP… SÁvÉ

(3) ZÁ°Û SÁvɬÄAzÀ ªÀiÁvÀæ

(4) G½vÁAiÀÄ SÁvÉ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ZÁ°Û SÁvÉ JgÀqÀÆ

5. RTGS £À «¸ÀÛøvÀ gÀÆ¥À:

(1) jAiÀįï N£ï mÉÊA UÁæ¸ï ¸ÉmïèèªÉÄAmï

(2) jAiÀįï mÉÊA UÁæ¸ï ¸ÉmïèèªÉÄAmï

(3) gÉÃgï mÉÊA UÁæ¸ï ¸ÉmïèèªÉÄAmï

(4) gÉÃgï N£ï mÉÊA UÁæ¸ï ¸ÉmïèèªÉÄAmï

6. MAzÀÄ HUF £ÀÄß ¤ªÀð»¸ÀĪÀªÀgÀÄ :

(1) ªÀiÁå£ÉÃdgï

(2) PÀvÁð

(3) PÀÄlÄA§zÀ CvÀåAvÀ »jAiÀÄ ªÀÄ»¼É

(4) PÀÄlÄA§zÀ CvÀåAvÀ QjAiÀÄ ¥ÀÄgÀĵÀ

7. ¨sÁgÀwÃAiÀÄ ¥Á®ÄUÁjPÉ PÁAiÉÄÝ eÁjUÉ §AzÀ ªÀµÀð

(1) 1935

(2) 1936

(3) 1932

(4) 1947

245 (3 – A )

1. MICR technology in banks stands for

(1) Magnetic Ink Character Recognition

(2) Magnetic Ink Consumer Recognition

(3) Magnetic Ink Customer Recognition

(4) Magnetic Information Character

Recognition

2. IFSC code is

(1) Alpha numeric 11 digit code number

(2) Alpha numeric 12 digit code number

(3) Alpha numeric 17 digit code number

(4) Alpha numeric 10 digit code number

3. Cash Credit in banking business stands

for

(1) The borrower can withdraw up to a

specified limit from cash credit

account.

(2) The borrower can withdraw up to

unspecified limit from cash credit

account.

(3) The borrower can withdraw from

overdraft account.

(4) The borrower can withdraw from

current account.

4. Overdraft facility is available on

(1) Fixed deposit

(2) Savings bank a/c

(3) Only Current account

(4) Both Current and SB a/c

5. RTGS stands for

(1) Real own time gross settlement

(2) Real time gross settlement

(3) Rare time gross settlement

(4) Rare own time gross settlement

6. An HUF is managed by

(1) The Manager

(2) The Karta

(3) The seniormost woman in the family

(4) The youngest male member of the

family

7. The Indian Partnership Act came into

existence in the year

(1) 1935

(2) 1936

(3) 1932

(4) 1947

245 (4 – A )

8. «¤ªÀÄAiÀÄ ¨ÁåAPïUÀ¼ÀÄ JAzÀgÉ

(1) zÉñÀzÀ DAvÀjPÀ ªÁå¥ÁgÀPÁÌV EgÀĪÀ ¨ÁåAPï

(2) ªÀÄÄRåªÁV «zÉò «¤ªÀÄAiÀÄ ªÀåªÀºÁgÀPÁÌV ºÀtPÁ¹£À £ÉgÀªÀÅ ¤ÃqÀĪÀÅzÀÄ.

(3) gÀ¥sÀÄÛ ªÀiÁqÀ®Ä DªÀÄzÀÄ ªÀiÁrPÉƼÀÄîªÀ ¸À®ÄªÁV ºÀtPÁ¹£À £ÉgÀªÀÅ ¤ÃqÀĪÀÅzÀÄ.

(4) PÀȶUÁV ªÀiÁvÀæ ¸Á® ¤ÃqÀĪÀÅzÀÄ

9. F ¢£ÀzÀAzÀÄ RBI ¸Áܦ¸À®ànÖvÀÄ.

(1) K¦æ¯ï 1, 1945

(2) K¦æ¯ï 1, 1935

(3) ¸É¥ÉÖA§gï 1, 1936

(4) K¦æ¯ï 1, 1931

10. ‘¦æëÄAiÀÄA’ JAzÀgÉ

(1) «ªÉÄUÉ M¼À¥ÀlÖ ªÀåQÛAiÀÄÄ ‘«ªÀiÁ PÀA¥À¤UÉ’ ¥ÁªÀw ªÀiÁqÀĪÀÅzÀÄ.

(2) «ªÉÄUÉ M¼À¥ÀlÖ ªÀåQÛUÉ ¥ÁªÀw¹zÀ ªÉÆvÀÛ.

(3) MlÄÖ ¨sÀj¸À¨ÉÃPÁVgÀĪÀÅzÀgÀ°è£À ¨sÁUÀ±ÀB ¥ÁªÀw.

(4) zÀAiÉĬÄAzÀ ¥ÁªÀw ªÀiÁqÀĪÀÅzÀÄ.

11. ¢é-«ªÉÄ JAzÀgÉ

(1) «ªÉÄ ªÀiÁr¸ÀĪÀªÀ¤AzÀ MAzÉà «µÀAiÀÄ

ªÀ¸ÀÄÛ«£À ªÉÄÃ¯É JgÀqÀÄ CxÀªÁ ºÉaÑ£À

«ªÀiÁzÁgÀgÀ£ÀÄß (CzÉà UÀAqÁAvÀgÀzÀ

M¼ÀUÉƼÀÄî«PÉUÁV) M¼À¥Àr¸ÀĪÀÅzÀÄ

(2) MAzÀÄ jÃwAiÀÄ ¥ÀÄ£Àgï «ªÉÄ

(3) ¸À¨ïgÉÆÃUɵÀ£ï£À vÀvÀé

(4) CvÀÄåZÀÒ M¼ÉîAiÀÄ £ÀA©PÉAiÀÄ

vÀvÀéÊÜ®æã°ÙÜWæãÙÜáÛñܤ æ

12. DzÀåvÁ µÉÃj£À ªÉÄÃ¯É ¤ÃqÀĪÀ r«qÉAqï zÀgÀªÀÅ :

(1) ªÀµÀð¢AzÀ ªÀµÀðPÉÌ ¹ÜgÀªÁVgÀÄvÀÛzÉ.

(2) ªÀµÀð¢AzÀ ªÀµÀðPÉÌ KgÀÄ¥ÉÃgÁUÀÄvÀÛzÉ.

(3) UÀ½¹zÀ ¯Á¨sÀzÀ ªÉÆvÀÛzÀ ªÉÄïÉ

CªÀ®A©vÀªÁVgÀÄvÀÛzÉ.

(4) PBIT ªÉÄÃ¯É CªÀ®A©vÀªÁVgÀÄvÀÛzÉ.

13. ‘Ploughing back profit’ AiÀÄÄ C¨ÜÃÜ ¥ÀæªÀÄÄR DPÀgÀUÀ¼À¯ÉÆèAzÀÄ.

(1) C¯ÁàªÀ¢ü ºÀtPÁ¸ÀÄ

(2) ¢ÃWÁðªÀ¢ü ºÀtPÁ¸ÀÄ

(3) ªÀÄzsÀåªÀiÁªÀ¢üAiÀÄ ºÀtPÁ¸ÀÄ

(4) C¯ÁàªÀ¢ü ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ªÀÄzsÀåªÀiÁªÀ¢ü JgÀqÀÆ

245 (5 – A )

8. Exchange banks refers to

(1) Banks meant for internal trade of

the country

(2) Which finance mainly the foreign

exchange business

(3) Which finance only entrepot trade

(4) Which finance only agriculture

9. The RBI came into existence on

(1) 1st April, 1945

(2) 1st April, 1935

(3) 1st September, 1936

(4) 1st April, 1931

10. Premium refers to

(1) The payment made to the insurer by

the insured

(2) The claim amount paid to the

insured

(3) Part payment of the total claim

amount

(4) The payment made in kind

11. Double insurance refers to

(1) The same subject matter is insured

by the insured with 2 or more

insurers to cover the same risk

(2) It is type of re-insurance

(3) It refers to principle of subrogation

(4) It covers the principle of utmost

good faith

12. The rate of dividend on preference shares

is

(1) Fixed from year to year

(2) Fluctuates from year to year

(3) Depends upon amount of profit

earned

(4) Depends on PBIT

13. Ploughing back profit is one of the

important source of

(1) Short term finance

(2) Long term finance

(3) Medium term finance

(4) Both short and medium term

finance

245 (6 – A )

14. MAzÀÄ PÀA¥À¤AiÀÄÄ ¸ÁªÀðd¤PÀ ºÀÆrPÉUÀ¼À£ÀÄß M¦àPÉƼÀÄîªÀÅzÀÄ.

(1) CzÀgÀ Paid Up §AqÀªÁ¼À ªÀÄvÀÄÛ

j¸Àªïð£À PÀ¤µÀ× 25% ªÀgÉUÉ ªÀiÁvÀæ.

(2) CzÀgÀ Paid Up §AqÀªÁ¼À ªÀÄvÀÄÛ

j¸Àªïð£À PÀ¤µÀ× 20% ªÀgÉUÉ ªÀiÁvÀæ

(3) CzÀgÀ Paid Up §AqÀªÁ¼À ªÀÄvÀÄÛ

j¸Àªïð£À ±ÉÃPÀqÀ 10% ªÀgÉUÉ ªÀiÁvÀæ

(4) CzÀgÀ Paid Up §AqÀªÁ¼À ªÀÄvÀÄÛ

j¸Àªïð£À ±ÉÃPÀqÀ 12% ªÀgÉUÉ ªÀiÁvÀæ

15. ‘GDR’ _________ zÀ°è ¥ÀnÖ ªÀiÁqÀ®ànÖzÉ.

(1) CªÉÄjPÀ£ï µÉÃgÀÄ «¤ªÀÄAiÀÄ PÉÃAzÀæ

(2) AiÀÄÄgÉÆæAiÀÄ£ï µÉÃgÀÄ «¤ªÀÄAiÀÄ PÉÃAzÀæ

(3) ªÀÄÄA¨ÉÊ µÉÃgÀÄ «¤ªÀÄAiÀÄ PÉÃAzÀæ

(4) gÁ¶ÖçÃAiÀÄ µÉÃgÀÄ «¤ªÀÄAiÀÄ PÉÃAzÀæ

16. ADRs WÜÙÜ®Üá° ______ £À°è ºÉüÀ¯ÁVgÀÄvÀÛzÉ.

(1) AiÀÄÆgÉÆà PÀgɤìUÀ¼ÀÄ

(2) US qÁ®gïUÀ¼ÀÄ

(3) d¥Á¤Ã¸ï Áá®…

(4) gÀµÀå£ï gÀƨɯï

17. ¤¢ðµÀÖ voyage UÉ ¸ÀA§A¢ü¹zÀAvÉ M¥ÀàAzÀ ªÀiÁrPÉƼÀÄîªÀÅzÀ£ÀÄß ___________ JAzÀÄ PÀgÉAiÀÄÄvÁÛgÉ.

(1) PÁ® ¸À£ÀßzÀÄ ¥ÀPÀë

(2) ¸ÀªÀÄÄzÀæ ¥ÀæAiÀiÁt ¸À£ÀßzÀÄ ¥ÀPÀë

(3) ²¦àAUï DzÉñÀ

(4) §¼ÀPÉzÁgÀ zsÁgÀuÉ¥ÀnÖ

18. EXIM ¨ÁåAPï ¸ÁÜ¥À£ÉAiÀiÁzÀzÀÄÝ _____ gÀ°è.

(1) 1947

(2) 1962

(3) 1965

(4) 1982

19. ECGC AiÀÄ «¸ÀÛøvÀ gÀÆ¥À §gɬÄj.

(1) JPïì¥ÉÆÃmïð PÉærmï CAqï UÁågÀAn

PÁ¥ÉÆÃðgÉõÀ£ï D¥sï EArAiÀiÁ

(2) JPïì¥ÉÆÃmïð PÉærmï CAqï UÀÆqïì

PÁ¥ÉÆÃðgÉõÀ£ï D¥sï EArAiÀiÁ

(3) JPïìZÉÃAeï PÉærmï CAqï UÁågÀAn

PÁ¥ÉÆÃðgÉõÀ£ï D¥sï EArAiÀiÁ

(4) JPïì¥ÉÆÃmïð PÀªÀiÁrn CAqï UÁågÀAn

PÁ¥ÉÆÃðgÉõÀ£ï D¥sï EArAiÀiÁ

245 (7 – A )

14. A company accepts public deposits

(1) Only up to a minimum of 25% of its

paid up capital and reserves

(2) Only up to a minimum of 20% of its

paid up capital and reserves

(3) Only up to minimum of 10% of its

paid up capital and reserves

(4) Only up to a minimum of 12% of its

paid up capital and reserves

15. GDRs are listed in

(1) American stock exchanges

(2) European stock exchanges

(3) Bombay stock exchange

(4) National stock exchange

16. ADRs are quoted in

(1) Euro currencies

(2) US Dollars

(3) Japanese Yen

(4) Russian Rouble

17. A contract which is entered for a definite

voyage is called as

(1) Time charter party

(2) Voyage charter party

(3) Shipping order

(4) Consumer invoice

18. EXIM bank was established in the year

(1) 1947

(2) 1962

(3) 1965

(4) 1982

19. ECGC refers to

(1) Export Credit and Guarantee

Corporation of India

(2) Export Credit and Goods

Corporation of India

(3) Exchange Credit and Guarantee

Corporation of India

(4) Export Commodity and Guarantee

Corporation of India

245 (8 – A )

20. GATS £ÀÄß «¸ÀÛj¹ §gɬÄj.

(1) d£ÀgÀ¯ï CVæªÉÄAmï D£ï mÉæÃrAUï ¸À«Ãð¸À¸ï

(2) d£ÀgÀ¯ï CVæªÉÄAmï D£ï mÉæÃqï E£ï ¸À«Ãð¸À¸ï

(3) UÉÆèç¯ï CVæªÉÄAmï D£ï mÉæÃrAUï ¸À«Ãð¸À¸ï

(4) fAiÉÆà CVæªÉÄAmï D£ï mÉæÃrAUï ¸À«Ãð¸À¸ï

21. ‘Sole Proprietorship’ (KPÀ ªÀåQÛ

¥ÉÆæ¥ÉæöÊlgï²¥ï) £À°è dªÁ¨ÁÝjAiÀÄÄ

(1) ¤AiÀÄ«ÄvÀªÁzÀÄzÀÄ

(2) C¤AiÀÄ«ÄvÀªÁzÀÄzÀÄ

(3) ªÁå¥ÁgÀzÀ°è£À ºÀÆrPÉAiÀÄ ªÁå¦ÛUÉ ¤AiÀÄ«ÄvÀªÁVgÀÄvÀÛzÉ

(4) F ªÉÄð£À AiÀiÁªÀÅzÀÆ C®è

22. dAn ¸ÁÖPï PÀA¥À¤UÀ¼À PÁAiÉÄÝ eÁjUÉ §AzÀ

ªÀµÀð

(1) 1947

(2) 1955

(3) 1956

(4) 1972

23. »AzÀÆ C«¨sÀPÀÛ PÀÄlÄA§zÀ ¯Á¨sÀ CxÀªÁ £ÀµÀÖUÀ¼À£ÀÄß ºÀAZÀ¯ÁUÀĪÀÅzÀÄ.

(1) PÀÄlÄA§zÀ ¸ÀzÀ¸ÀågÀÄUÀ¼À (¸ÀªÀĨsÁVUÀ¼À) £ÀqÀĪÉ

(2) PÀÄlÄA§zÀ »jAiÀÄ ¸ÀzÀ¸ÀågÀÄUÀ¼À £ÀqÀĪÉ

(3) PÀÄlÄA§zÀ QjAiÀÄ ¸ÀzÀ¸ÀågÀÄUÀ¼À £ÀqÀĪÉ

(4) PÀvÀð¤UÉ ªÀiÁvÀæ

24. PɼÀV£ÀªÀÅUÀ¼À°è AiÀiÁªÀÅzÀÄ ªÀåªÀºÁgÀ

ZÀlĪÀnPÉAiÀÄ DyðPÀ GzÉÝñÀªÀ®è?

(1) ¸ÁPÀµÀÄÖ ¯Á¨sÀ CxÀªÁ ºÀÆrPÉAiÀÄ ªÉÄÃ¯É vÀȦÛzÁAiÀÄPÀ UÀ½PÉAiÀÄ£ÀÄß UÀ½¸ÀĪÀÅzÀÄ.

(2) GzÉÆåÃUÀ CªÀPÁ±ÀUÀ¼À£ÀÄß MzÀV¸ÀĪÀÅzÀÄ.

(3) ¥ÀæUÀwAiÀÄ£ÀÄß ¸Á¢ü¸À®Ä ¥ÉÊ¥ÉÆÃn ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ¨É¼ÀªÀtÂUÉAiÀÄ ¸ÀAzÀ¨sÀðzÀ°è C¹ÛvÀé.

(4) ªÉÄð£À AiÀiÁªÀÅzÀÆ C®è

25. PÉÊUÁjPÁ PÁæAwAiÀÄ ªÀÄÄAZÉ, dªÀ½ GvÁàzÀ£É

ªÀÄvÀÄÛ gÀ¥sÀÄÛ ªÀiÁqÀĪÀ°è AiÀiÁªÀ zÉñÀªÀÅ «±ÀézÀ

£ÁAiÀÄPÀ ¸ÁÜ£ÀzÀ°èvÀÄÛ?

(1) UÉæÃmï ©æl£ï

(2) ¨sÁgÀvÀ

(3) ZÉÊ£Á

(4) gÀµÁå

245 (9 – A )

20. GATS stands for

(1) General Agreement on Trading

Services

(2) General Agreement on Trade in

Services

(3) Global Agreement on Trading

Services

(4) Geo Agreement on Trading Services

21. In case of sole proprietorship the liability

is

(1) Limited

(2) Unlimited

(3) Limited to the extent of investment

made in business

(4) None of the above

22. The Joint Stock Companies Act was

enacted in the year

(1) 1947

(2) 1955

(3) 1956

(4) 1972

23. The profits and losses of Joint Hindu

Family are shared

(1) Between the co-parceners of the

family

(2) Between the senior members of the

family

(3) Between the junior members of the

family

(4) Only the Karta

24. Which of the following is not an economic

objective of business activity?

(1) Earning adequate profit or

satisfactory return on investment

(2) Providing employment opportunities

(3) Survival in the case of competition

and growth to maintain the progress

(4) None of the above

25. Before the industrial revolution, which

country was the world leader in textile

manufacturing and exporting ?

(1) Great Britain

(2) India

(3) China

(4) Russia

245 (10 – A )

26. ¨sÁgÀvÀzÀ ºÉƸÀ PÉÊUÁjPÁ ¤Ãw 1991gÀ J¯Áè ¥ÀæªÀÄÄR GzÉÝñÀUÀ¼ÀÄ AiÀiÁªÀŪÀÅ?

I. ±ÜÃܪÁ£ÀVUÀ¼ÀÄ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ¤AiÀÄAvÀætUÀ¼ÀAvÀºÀ ¤AiÀÄAvÀæPÀ ¸ÁzsÀ£ÀUÀ½AzÀ GzÀåªÀĪÀ£ÀÄß ¸ÀévÀAvÀæUÉƽ¸ÀĪÀÅzÀÄ.

II. ¸ÀtÚ ¥ÀæªÀiÁtzÀ PÉëÃvÀæPÉÌ ¨ÉA§®ªÀ£ÀÄß ºÉaÑ ÀĪÀÅzÀÄ.

III. ¸ÁªÀiÁ£Àå ªÀÄ£ÀĵÀå£À ¥ÀæAiÉÆÃd£ÀPÁÌV PÉÊUÁjPÉUÀ¼À ¸ÀàzsÁðvÀäPÀvÉAiÀÄ£ÀÄß ºÉaÑ ÀĪÀÅzÀÄ.

IV. »AzÀĽzÀ ¥ÀæzÉñÀUÀ¼À PÉÊUÁjQÃPÀgÀtPÁÌV ºÉaÑ£À GvÉÛÃdPÀUÀ¼À£ÀÄß MzÀV¸ÀĪÀÅzÀÄ.

F PɼÀV£ÀªÀÅUÀ¼À°è ¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ GvÀÛgÀUÀ¼À£ÀÄß DAiÉÄÌ ªÀiÁr :

(1) I, II & IV

(2) I, II & III

(3) I, III & IV

(4) I, II, III & IV

27. PÁgÉÆæïï CªÀgÀ “PÁ¥ÉÆÃðgÉÃmïì ¸ÁªÀÄÄzÁ¬ÄPÀ, ¸ÁªÀiÁfPÀ dªÁ¨ÁÝjAiÀÄ ¦gÀ«Äqï” ¥ÀæPÁgÀ PɼÀV£ÀªÀÅUÀ¼À£ÀÄß eÉÆÃr¹ : I. ¯ÉÆÃPÉÆÃ¥ÀPÁj dªÁ¨ÁÝjUÀ¼ÀÄ II. PÁ£ÀÆ£ÀÄ dªÁ¨ÁÝjUÀ¼ÀÄ III. DyðPÀ dªÁ¨ÁÝjUÀ¼ÀÄ IV. £ÉÊwPÀ dªÁ¨ÁÝjUÀ¼ÀÄ F PɼÀV£ÀªÀÅUÀ¼À°è ¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ GvÀÛgÀUÀ¼À£ÀÄß DAiÉÄÌ ªÀiÁr :

(1) I II III IV

(2) III II IV I

(3) I III IV II

(4) I III II IV

28. PɼÀV£ÀªÀÅUÀ¼À£ÀÄß ºÉÆð¹ : ¥ÀnÖÖ – 1 (ªÀåªÀºÁgÀzÀ

ºÉÆuÉUÁjPÉUÀ¼ÀÄ) ¥ÀnÖ – 2

(®PÀëtUÀ¼ÀÄ) A. ªÀiÁ°ÃPÀgÀ dªÁ¨ÁÝj

I. ªÀåªÀºÁgÀPÉÌ ¸ÀºÀPÁgÀ

B. ºÀÆrPÉzÁgÀgÀ dªÁ¨ÁÝj

II. PÀvÀðªÀåUÀ¼À£ÀÄß ¤ªÀð»¸ÀĪÀÅzÀÄ

C. GzÉÆåÃVUÀ¼À dªÁ¨ÁÝj

III. ²PÀët MzÀV¸ÀĪÀÅzÀÄ

D. ªÀÈwÛ¥ÀgÀ ¸ÀA¸ÉÜUÀ¼À dªÁ¨ÁÝj

IV. ¤AiÀÄAwæ¸ÀĪÀ C¢üPÁgÀ

F PɼÀV£ÀªÀÅUÀ¼À°è ¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ GvÀÛgÀUÀ¼À£ÀÄß DAiÉÄÌ ªÀiÁr :

A B C D

(1) I II III IV

(2) IV III II I

(3) IV III I II

(4) IV I II III

29. GzÀåªÀÄ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ªÁtÂdå «µÀAiÀÄUÀ½UÉ ¸ÀA§A¢ü¹zÀAvÉ PɼÀV£À AiÀiÁªÀ ºÉýPÉAiÀÄÄ vÀ¥ÁàVzÉ?

(1) GzÀåªÀĪÀÅ ¸ÀgÀPÀÄ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ¸ÉêÉUÀ¼À£ÀÄß ¸ÀgÀ§gÁdÄ ªÀiÁqÀÄvÀÛªÉ, DzÀgÉ ªÁtÂdåªÀÅ ¸ÀgÀPÀÄ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ¸ÉêÉUÀ½UÉ ¨ÉÃrPÉ GAlÄ ªÀiÁqÀÄvÀÛªÉ.

(2) GzÀåªÀĪÀÅ GvÁàzÀ£Á ¸ÀܼÀzÀ°è ªÀiÁvÀæ PÉÊUÉƼÀî®àqÀÄvÀÛzÉ. DzÀgÉ ªÁtÂdåªÀÅ GvÁàzÀ£É ªÀÄvÀÄÛ G¥À¨sÉÆÃUÀ ¸ÀܼÀzÀ°è PÉÊUÉƼÀî®àqÀÄvÀÛzÉ.

(3) GzÀåªÀĪÀÅ ºÉaÑ£À C¥ÁAiÀĪÀ£ÀÄß M¼ÀUÉÆArgÀÄvÀÛzÉ, DzÀgÉ ªÁtÂdåzÀ°è PÀrªÉÄ C¥ÁAiÀÄ«zÉ.

(4) ªÉÄð£À AiÀiÁªÀÅzÀÆ C®è

245 (11 – A )

26. What all are the major objectives of

India’s New Industrial Policy 1991 ?

I. Liberalizing the industry from the

regulatory devices such as licenses

and controls.

II. Enhancing support to the small

scale sector.

III. Increasing competitiveness of

industries for the benefit of the

common man.

IV. Providing more incentives for

industrialization of the backward

areas.

Select the code for the correct answer

from the options given below :

(1) I, II & IV

(2) I, II & III

(3) I, III & IV

(4) I, II, III & IV

27. Arrange the following as per Carroll’s

“Pyramid of corporate social

responsibility” :

I. Philanthropic responsibilities

II. Legal responsibilities

III. Economic responsibilities

IV. Ethical responsibilities

Select the code for the correct answer

from the options given below :

(1) I II III IV

(2) III II IV I

(3) I III IV II

(4) I III II IV

28. Match the following :

List-I (Responsibilities

of Business)

List-II (Features)

A. Responsibility of

owner

I. Cooperation to

the business

B. Responsibility of

investors

II. Perform the

duties

C. Responsibility of

employees

III. Provide

education

D. Responsibility of

professional

institutions

IV. Controlling

Power

Select the code for correct answer from the

options given below :

A B C D

(1) I II III IV

(2) IV III II I

(3) IV III I II

(4) IV I II III

29. Which of the following statements is

wrong with regard to industry and

commerce ?

(1) Industry supplies goods and services

whereas commerce demands goods

and services.

(2) Industry carries on at production

place only whereas commerce

carries on production and

consumption.

(3) Industry involves with more risk

whereas commerce involves less risk.

(4) None of the above

245 (12 – A )

30. PɼÀV£ÀªÀÅUÀ¼À£ÀÄß ºÉÆA¢¹ : I II

A. ªÁå¥ÁgÀ I. ¥sÁªÀiïð G¥ÀAiÀÄÄPÀÛvÉAiÀÄ£ÀÄß ¸Àȶ׸ÀÄvÀÛzÉ

B. GzÀåªÀÄ II. ¸ÀªÀÄAiÀÄ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ¸ÀܼÀzÀ G¥ÀAiÀÄÄPÀÛvÉAiÀÄ£ÀÄß ¸Àȶ׸ÀÄvÀÛzÉ

C. ªÁtÂdå III. ¸ÀªÀÄAiÀÄ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ¸ÀܼÀzÀ G¥ÀAiÀÄÄPÀÛvÉAiÀÄ£ÀÄß ¸Àȶ׸ÀÄvÀÛzÉ. ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ªÀåQÛUÀ¼À CqÀvÀqÉUÀ¼À£ÀÄß vÉUÉzÀĺÁPÀÄvÀÛzÉ

F PɼÀV£ÀªÀÅUÀ¼À°è ¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ GvÀÛgÀUÀ¼À£ÀÄß DAiÉÄÌ ªÀiÁr : A B C (1) I II III

(2) III I II

(3) III II I

(4) II III I

31. NASSCOM JA§ÄzÀÄ MAzÀÄ ¨sÁgÀwÃAiÀÄ ªÀiÁ»w vÀAvÀæeÁÕ£À (L.n.) ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ªÀåªÀºÁgÀ ¥ÀæQæAiÉÄ ºÉÆgÀUÀÄwÛUÉ (©.¦.M.) GzÀåªÀÄzÀ ªÁå¥ÁgÀ ¸ÀA¸ÉÜAiÀiÁVzÉ. NASSCOM EzÀgÀ «¸ÀÛgÀuÉ?

(1) £ÁåµÀ£À¯ï C¸ÉÆùAiÉÄõÀ£ï D¥sï ¸Á¥sïÖªÉÃgï CAqï ¸À«Ãð¸À¸ï PÀA¥À¤Ã¸ï

(2) £ÁåµÀ£À¯ï C¸ÉÆùAiÉÄñÀ£ï D¥sï ¸Á¥sÀÖªÉÃgï ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ¸À«Ãð¸ï ZÉÃA§gï

(3) £ÁåµÀ£À¯ï C¸ÉÆùAiÉÄõÀ£ï D¥sï ¸Á¥sïÖªÉÃgï CAqï ¸À«Ãð¸À¸ï PÀA¥À¤Ã¸ï Omï¸ÉÆÃjìAUï ªÉÄPÁ夸ÀA

(4) £ÁåµÀ£À¯ï C¸ÉÆùAiÉÄõÀ£ï D¥sï ¸Á¥sïÖªÉÃgï CAqï ¸À«Ãð¸À¸ï Omï ¸ÉÆùðAUï ªÉÄPÁ夸ÀA

32. ªÀiÁ»w vÀAvÀæeÁÕ£À PÁ¬ÄzÉAiÀÄÄ ¸Éʧgï C¥ÀgÁzsÀ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ E-ªÁtÂdåUÀ¼À §UÉÎ ªÀåªÀºÀj¸ÀĪÀ ¨sÁgÀvÀzÀ°è£À ¥ÁæxÀ«ÄPÀ PÁ£ÀÆ£ÀÄ DVzÉ. F PÁ¬ÄzÉAiÀÄÄ AiÀiÁªÁUÀ eÁjUÉ §A¢vÀÄ?

(1) 17£Éà CPÉÆÖçgï 2000

(2) 19£Éà £ÀªÉA§gï 2000

(3) 19£Éà CPÉÆÖçgï 2000

(4) 17£Éà £ÀªÉA§gï 2000

33. Dgï.n.f.J¸ï. ªÀåªÀ¸ÉÜAiÀÄ §UÉÎ F PɼÀV£À AiÀiÁªÀ ºÉýPÉAiÀÄÄ vÀ¥ÁàVzÉ?

(1) ªÀåªÀºÁgÀUÀ¼ÀÄ ªÁ¸ÀÛªÀ ¸ÀªÀÄAiÀÄzÀ°è £ÀqÉAiÀÄÄvÀÛzÉ.

(2) qÉ¥sÀqïð £Émï ¸ÉlèªÉÄAmï DzsÁgÀzÀ ªÉÄÃ¯É F ªÀåªÀ¸ÉÜAiÀÄÄ PÁAiÀÄð¤ªÀð»¸ÀÄvÀÛzÉ.

(3) Dgï.n.f.J¸ï. ªÀåªÀºÁgÀUÀ¼À°è PÀ¤µÀ× gÀÆ. 2 ®PÀë ªÀUÁð¬Ä¸À§ºÀÄzÀÄ.

(4) RTGS ªÀåªÀºÁgÀUÀ½UÉ ¸ÉêÁ ±ÀÄ®ÌUÀ¼ÀÄ MAzÀÄ ¨ÁåAQ¤AzÀ ªÀÄvÉÆÛAzÀPÉÌ §zÀ¯ÁUÀÄvÀÛzÉ.

34. PÉærmï E£ÀágÀªÉÄõÀ£ï §ÆågÉÆà EArAiÀiÁ °«ÄmÉqï (¹.L.©.L.J¯ï.) C£ÀÄß ¸Áܦ¹zÀ JgÀqÀÄ ¨ÁåAPÀÄUÀ¼ÀÄ AiÀiÁªÀŪÀÅ?

(1) J¸ï.©.L. & L.¹.L.¹.L.

(2) J¸ï.©.L. & JZï.r.J¥sï.¹.

(3) L.¹.L.¹.L. & JZï.r.J¥sï.¹.

(4) Dgï.©.L. & J¸ï.©.L.

245 (13 – A )

30. Match the following :

I

II

A. Trade I. Creates Form Utility

B. Industry II. Creates Time and

Place Utility

C. Commerce III. Creates Time and Place

Utility and removes

hindrances of persons

Select the code for the correct answer from

the options given below :

A B C

(1) I II III

(2) III I II

(3) III II I

(4) II III I

31. NASSCOM is a trade association of

Indian Information Technology (IT) and

Business Process Outsourcing (BPO)

industry. What does NASSCOM stand

for ?

(1) National Association of Software

and Services Companies

(2) National Association of Software

and Services Chamber

(3) National Association of Software

and Services Companies

Outsourcing Mechanism

(4) National Association of Software

and Services Outsourcing

Mechanism

32. The Information Technology Act is the

primary law in India dealing with

cybercrime and e-Commerce. The Act

came into force on

(1) 17th October 2000

(2) 19th November 2000

(3) 19th October 2000

(4) 17th November 2000

33. Which of the following statements is

incorrect regarding RTGS system?

(1) The transactions take place in real

time.

(2) The system operates on Deferred

Net Settlement basis.

(3) The minimum amount that can be

remitted is rupees 2 lakhs.

(4) Service charges for RTGS

transactions vary from one bank to

another.

34. Which two banks established Credit

Information Bureau India Limited

(CIBIL)?

(1) SBI and ICICI

(2) SBI and HDFC

(3) ICICI and HDFC

(4) RBI and SBI

245 (14 – A )

35. £ÀµÀÖzÀ vÀvÀéªÀÅ PÉêÀ® D ¥ÀæPÀgÀtzÀ°è ªÀiÁvÀæ

C£Àé¬Ä¸ÀÄvÀÛzÉ.

(1) CVß «ªÉÄ

(2) PÀqÀ® «ªÉÄ

(3) (1) ªÀÄvÀÄ (2) JgÀqÀÆ

(4) ¦üqÉ°n «ªÉÄ

36. AË»ÜPܤ »AzÀÆ PÀÄlÄA§ ªÀåªÀºÁgÀPÉÌ

¸ÀA§A¢ü¹zÀAvÉ F PɼÀV£À AiÀiÁªÀ ºÉýPÉAiÀÄÄ

¸ÀjAiÀÄ®è?

(1) PÀÄlÄA§zÀ »jAiÀÄ ¥ÀÄgÀĵÀ ¸ÀzÀ¸Àå£À£ÀÄß

PÀvÁð JAzÀÄ PÀgÉAiÀįÁUÀÄvÀÛzÉ.

(2) ¸ÀzÀ¸ÀågÀ ºÉÆuÉUÁjPÉAiÀÄÄ AiÀiÁªÁUÀ®Æ

C¤AiÀÄ«ÄvÀªÁVgÀÄvÀÛzÉ.

(3) AiÀiÁªÀÅzÉà DqÀ½vÀ zÁR¯ÉUÀ½®è ªÀÄvÀÄÛ

CzÀgÀ ¸ÀzÀ¸ÀågÀ PÀ¤µÀ× ªÀÄvÀÄÛ UÀjµÀ× «Äw

E®è.

(4) EzÀÄ vÀ£Àß ¸ÀzÀ¸ÀåjAzÀ ¥ÀævÉåÃPÀ PÁ£ÀÆ£ÀÄ

C¹ÛvÀé ºÉÆA¢zÉ.

37. ¥Á®ÄzÁgÀ£À PÁ£ÀÆ£ÀħzÀÞ ºÀPÀÄÌUÀ¼ÀÄ AiÀiÁªÀŪÀÅ?

I) ªÀåªÀºÁgÀ ZÀlĪÀnPÉUÀ¼À°è ¸ÀQæAiÀĪÁV ¥Á¯ÉÆμÀÄîªÀ ºÀPÀÄÌ.

II) ªÀåªÀºÁgÀzÀ ¯Á¨sÀUÀ¼À£ÀÄß ºÀAaPÉƼÀÄîªÀ ºÀPÀÄÌ.

III) ¸ÀºÀPÁgÀ«®èzÀ ¥Á®ÄzÁgÀ£À£ÀÄß

GaÝfn¸ÀĪÀ ºÀPÀÄÌ.

IV) §AqÀªÁ¼ÀQÌAvÀ®Æ ºÉaÑWæ CÃÜáÊÜ CqÁé£ïìUÀ¼À ªÉÄð£À §rØAiÀÄ£ÀÄß ¥ÀqÉAiÀÄĪÀ ºÀPÀÄÌ.

F PɼÀV£ÀªÀÅUÀ¼À°è ¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ GvÀÛgÀUÀ¼À£ÀÄß DAiÉÄÌ ªÀiÁr :

(1) I & II

(2) I, II, III & IV

(3) I, II & IV

(4) I, II & III

38. F PɼÀV£À ºÉýPÉUÀ¼À°è ¸ÀºÀPÁgÀ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ¸ÀºÀPÁgÀ ¸ÀAWÀUÀ½UÉ ¸ÀA§A¢ü¹zÀ AiÀiÁªÀ ºÉýPÉAiÀÄÄ vÀ¥ÀÄà?

(1) ¸ÀºÀPÁgÀ ZÀ¼ÀĪÀ½ EAUÉèAqï £À°è

ªÉÆzÀ®Ä ºÀÄnÖPÉÆArvÀÄ.

(2) ¸ÀºÀPÁgÀ ¸ÀAWÀUÀ¼À PÁ¬ÄzÉ 1919 gÀ°è

¨sÁgÀvÀzÀ°è eÁjAiÀiÁ¬ÄvÀÄ.

(3) ‘’MAzÀÄ ªÀåQÛ MAzÀÄ ªÀÄvÀ’’vÀvÀéªÀ£ÀÄß

ªÀiÁåPÁèöåUÀ£ï ¸À«Äw¬ÄAzÀ ²¥sÁgÀ¸ÀÄì

ªÀiÁqÀ¯Á¬ÄvÀÄ.

(4) ¥sÉqÀgÀ¯ï ¸ÁA¹ÜPÀ gÀZÀ£ÉAiÀÄÄ ¨sÁgÀvÀzÀ°è£À

¸ÀºÀPÁjUÀ½AzÀ C£ÀĸÀj¸À®àqÀÄvÀÛzÉ.

245 (15 – A )

35. Principle of Indemnity is only applicable

in the case of

(1) Fire Insurance

(2) Marine Insurance

(3) Both (1) and (2)

(4) Fidelity Insurance

36. Which of the following statements is

incorrect regarding Joint Hindu Family

Business ?

(1) The eldest male member in the

family is called Karta.

(2) Liability of members is always

unlimited.

(3) There is no governing documents

and there is no minimum and

maximum limit of its members.

(4) It is separate legal entity from its

members.

37. What all are the legal rights of a

partner ?

I. Right to take an active part in the

business activities

II. Right to share profits of the business

III. Right to expel a non-cooperative

partner

IV. Right to get interest on advances in

excess of capital

Select the code for the correct answer

from the options given below :

(1) I and II

(2) I, II, III and IV

(3) I, II and IV

(4) I, II and III

38. Which of the following statements is

wrong regarding cooperation and

cooperative societies ?

(1) Cooperative movement originated

first in England.

(2) The Cooperative Societies Act was

passed in India in the year 1919.

(3) “One Man One Vote” principle was

recommended by Maclagan

Committee.

(4) Federal organizational structure is

followed by cooperatives in India.

245 (16 – A )

39. ¸ÁªÀðd¤PÀ PÀA¥À¤UÉ ¸ÀA§A¢ü¹zÀAvÉ F PɼÀV£À AiÀiÁªÀ ºÉýPÉAiÀÄÄ ¸ÀjAiÀÄ®è?

(1) PÀ¤µÀÖ ¸ÀzÀ¸ÀågÀÄ 7 ªÀÄvÀÄÛ AiÀiÁªÀÅzÉÃ

UÀjµÀÖ «Äw¬Ä®è.

(2) ¸ÁªÀðd¤PÀ PÀA¥À¤AiÀÄÄ µÉÃgÀÄUÀ¼À GavÀ

ªÀUÁðªÀuÉAiÀÄ£ÀÄß C£ÀĪÀÄw¸ÀÄvÀÛzÉ.

(3) PÀA¥À¤UÀ¼ÀÄ (wzÀÄÝ¥Àr) PÁ¬ÄzÉ 2000 gÀ

¥ÀæPÁgÀ ¸ÁªÀðd¤PÀ PÀA¥À¤AiÀÄ PÀ¤µÀ×

¥ÁªÀw¹zÀ §AqÀªÁ¼À gÀÆ. 5,00,000

DVgÀ¨ÉÃPÀÄ.

(4) PÀA¥À¤UÀ¼ÀÄ (wzÀÄÝ¥Àr) PÁ¬ÄzÉ 2000 gÀ

¥ÀæPÁgÀ PÀ¤µÀ× ¥ÁªÀw¹zÀ §AqÀªÁ¼ÀªÀÅ

gÀÆ. 10,00,000 DVgÀ¨ÉÃPÀÄ.

40. PɼÀV£ÀªÀÅUÀ¼À£ÀÄß ºÉÆA¢¹:

¥ÀnÖ – I ¥ÀnÖ – II

A. zÀÆgÀzÀ±Àð£À I. ¸ÀPÁðj PÀA¥À¤ B. AiÀÄƤmï læ¸ïÖ D¥sï EArAiÀiÁ

II. E¯ÁSÉAiÀÄ CAqÀgï mÉÃQAUï (¸ÁéªÀÄåzÀ)

C. JZï.JA.n III. ¸ÁªÀðd¤PÀ ¤UÀªÀÄ

IV. SÁ¸ÀV PÀA¥À¤

F PɼÀV£ÀªÀÅUÀ¼À°è ¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ GvÀÛgÀUÀ¼À£ÀÄß DAiÉÄÌ ªÀiÁr :

A B C

(1) I II IV

(2) II III I

(3) I III IV

(4) II I IV

41. ¥ÉÆÃZÀÄðVøï F¸ïÖ EArAiÀiÁ F jÃwAiÀÄ PÀA¥À¤UÉ GzÁºÀgÀuÉAiÀiÁVzÉ.

(1) ¸À£ÀßzÀÄ ¥ÀqÉzÀ PÀA¥À¤

(2) ±Á¸À£À §zÀÞ PÀA¥À¤

(3) £ÉÆÃAzÁ¬ÄvÀ PÀA¥À¤

(4) ¸ÁªÀðd¤PÀ PÀA¥À¤

42. F PɼÀV£ÀªÀÅUÀ¼À°è AiÀiÁªÀÅzÀÄ ±Á¸À£À§zÀÞ PÀA¥À¤UÉ GzÁºÀgÀuÉAiÀiÁVzÉ?

(1) J¸ï.©.L.

(2) J¯ï.L.¹.

(3) AiÀÄÄ.n.L. (4) ªÉÄð£À J¯Áè

43. EwÛÃa£À ªÀµÀðUÀ¼À°è ¥ÀjZÀ¬Ä¸À¯ÁzÀ ¥ÀæªÀÄÄR ¸ÁªÀðd¤PÀ ªÀ®AiÀÄzÀ ¸ÀÄzsÁgÀuÉUÀ¼ÀÄ AiÀiÁªÀŪÀÅ?

I. ªÀåªÀ¸ÁÜ¥ÀPÀ ¸ÁéAiÀÄvÀÛvÉAiÀÄ£ÀÄß C£ÀĪÀÄw¸ÀĪÀÅzÀÄ.

II. gÉÆÃUÀUÀæ¸ÀÛ ¦.J¸ï.E.UÀ¼À ¥ÀÄ£ÀgÀÄfÓêÀ£À ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ¥ÀÄ£Àgï gÀZÀ£É.

III. ºÀÆrPÉ gÀ»vÀvÉ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ SÁ¸ÀVÃPÀgÀt.

IV. ¦.J¸ï.E.UÀ¼ÀÄ §AqÀªÁ¼À ªÀiÁgÀÄPÀmÉÖUÉ ¥ÀæªÉò¸À®Ä C£ÀĪÀÄw¸ÀĪÀÅ¢®è.

V. DzsÀĤÃPÀgÀt F PɼÀV£ÀªÀÅUÀ¼À°è ¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ GvÀÛgÀUÀ¼À£ÀÄß DAiÉÄÌ ÊÜÞw :

(1) I II & IV

(2) II, III & V

(3) II, III & IV

(4) I, II, III & V

245 (17 – A )

39. Which of the following statements is

incorrect regarding a public company ?

(1) Minimum number of members is 7

and there is no maximum limit

(2) Public company allows free transfer

of shares.

(3) Minimum paid up capital of a public

company should be Rs.5,00,000

according to Companies

(Amendment) Act 2000.

(4) Minimum paid up capital of a public

company should be Rs. 10,00,000

according to Companies

(Amendment) Act 2000.

40. Match the following :

List I List II

A. Doordarshan

I. Government

Company

B. Unit Trust of

India

II. Departmental

Undertaking

C. HMT

III. Public

Corporation

IV. Private

Company

Select the code for the correct answer

from the options given below :

A B C

(1) I II IV

(2) II III I

(3) I III IV

(4) II I IV

41. Portuguese East India Company is an

example for

(1) Chartered Company

(2) Statutory Company

(3) Registered Company

(4) Public Company

42. Which of the following is an example of a

Statutory Company ?

(1) SBI

(2) LIC

(3) UTI

(4) All of the above

43. What are the important public sector

reforms introduced in the recent years?

I. Allowing managerial autonomy

II. Revival and restructuring of sick

PSEs

III. Disinvestment and Privatization

IV. Not allowing PSEs to enter capital

market

V. Modernization

Select the code for the correct answer

from the options given below :

(1) I, II & IV

(2) II, III & V

(3) II, III & IV

(4) I, II, III & V

245 (18 – A )

44. PÀA¥À¤AiÀÄ gÀZÀ£É ¥ÀæPÁgÀ ºÀAvÀUÀ¼À£ÀÄß ªÀåªÀ¸ÉÜUÉƽ¹.

(1) ªÀÈ¢Þ, ªÀåªÀºÁgÀ ¥ÁægÀA¨sÀ, £ÉÆÃAzÀtÂ,

§AqÀªÁ¼À ZÀAzÁzÁjPÉ

(2) ªÀÈ¢Þ, £ÉÆÃAzÀtÂ, §AqÀªÁ¼À

ZÀAzÁzÁjPÉ, ªÀåªÀºÁgÀ ¥ÁægÀA¨sÀ

(3) ªÀÈ¢Þ, ªÀåªÀºÁgÀ ¥ÁægÀA¨sÀ, §AqÀªÁ¼À

ZÀAzÁzÁjPÉ, £ÉÆÃAzÀtÂ

(4) £ÉÆÃAzÀtÂ, ªÀÈ¢Þ, §AqÀªÁ¼À

ZÀAzÁzÁjPÉ, ªÀåªÀºÁgÀzÀ ¥ÁægÀA¨sÀ

45. PÀA¥À¤AiÀÄ ªÀÈ¢ÞAiÀÄ°è M¼ÀUÉÆArgÀĪÀ ºÀAvÀUÀ¼À£ÀÄß eÉÆÃr¹.

I. ªÀåªÀºÁgÀ PÀ®à£ÉAiÀÄ C£ÉéõÀuÉ

II. vÀ¤SÉ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ¥Àj²Ã®£É

III. eÉÆÃqÀuÉ

IV. ºÀtPÁ¸ÀÄ ¥Àæw¥ÁzÀ£É

F PɼÀV£ÀªÀÅUÀ¼À°è ¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ GvÀÛgÀUÀ¼À£ÀÄß DAiÉÄÌ ÊÜÞw :

(1) I II III IV

(2) I III II IV

(3) I II IV III

(4) I III IV II

46. F PɼÀV£ÀªÀÅUÀ¼À°è AiÀiÁªÀÅzÀÄ £ÉÆÃAzÀtÂAiÀÄ ªÁå¦ÛAiÉƼÀUÉ §gÀĪÀÅ¢®è?

(1) ºÉ¸Àj£À C£ÀĪÉÆÃzÀ£É

(2) M/A & A/A £ÀAvÀºÀ zÁR¯ÉUÀ¼À ¸À°èPÉ

(3) £ÉÆÃAzÀtÂAiÉÆA¢UÉ ¥ÀjZÀAiÀÄ ¥ÀwæPÉ ¸À°èPÉ

(4) ªÉÄð£À AiÀiÁªÀÅzÀÆ C®è

47. F PɼÀV£À AiÀiÁªÀ ¸ÀAzÀ¨sÀðzÀ°è PÀA¥À¤AiÀÄÄ PÀqÁØAiÀĪÁV «¸Àdð£ÉUÉƼÀî¨ÉÃPÁV®è?

(1) PÀ¤µÀ× ¸ÀASÉåAiÀÄ ¸ÀzÀ¸ÀågÀÄ ¤UÀ¢vÀ «ÄwVAvÀ PÀrªÉÄAiÀiÁzÁUÀ

(2) ¸ÀAAiÉÆÃd£ÉUÀ¼ÉƼÀUÉ ¢£ÁAPÀ¢AzÀ 6 wAUÀ¼ÀÄUÀ¼ÉƼÀUÉ ±Á¸À£À§zÀÞ ¸À¨sÉAiÀÄ£ÀÄß £ÀqɸÀ¯ÁUÀ¢zÁÝUÀ

(3) £ÉÆÃAzÀt ¥ÀæªÀiÁt ¥ÀvÀæªÀ£ÀÄß ¹éÃPÀj¹zÀ ¢£ÁAPÀ¢AzÀ MAzÀÄ ªÀµÀðzÉƼÀUÁV ªÀåªÀºÁgÀ ¥ÁægÀA©ü¸À¢zÁÝUÀ

(4) ºÉaÑ£À ¸ÀzÀ¸ÀåjAzÀ ¸ÁªÀiÁ£Àå ¤tðAiÀĪÀÅ eÁjAiÀiÁzÁUÀ

48. ºÉZÀÄѪÀj ¸ÁªÀiÁ£Àå µÉÃgÀÄUÀ¼À£ÀÄß ¤ÃqÀĪÀ «ZÁgÀªÀ£ÀÄß ________________ ¤AzÀ C¢üPÀÈvÀUÉƽ¹gÀ¨ÉÃPÀÄ.

(1) DnðPÀ¯ïì D¥sï C¸ÉÆùAiÉÄõÀ£ï

(2) £ÁåµÀ£À¯ï PÀA¥À¤ ¯Á ¨ÉÆÃqïð

(3) ¸É©

(4) PÉÃAzÀæ ¸ÀPÁðgÀ

245 (19 – A )

44. Arrange the stages according to the

formation of a company.

(1) Promotion, Commencement of

Business, Incorporation, Capital

Subscription

(2) Promotion, Incorporation, Capital

Subscription, Commencement of

Business

(3) Promotion, Commencement of

Business, Capital Subscription,

Incorporation

(4) Incorporation, Promotion, Capital

Subscription, Commencement of

Business

45. Arrange the steps involved in promotion

of a company.

I. Discovery of a business idea

II. Investigation and verification

III. Assembling

IV. Financing the proposition

Select the code for the correct answer

from the options given below :

(1) I II III IV

(2) I III II IV

(3) I II IV III

(4) I III IV II

46. Which of the following won’t come under

incorporation stage ?

(1) Approval of name

(2) Filing of documents such as M/A &

A/A

(3) Filing of prospectus with the

Registrar of Companies

(4) None of the above

47. Which of the following is not a

circumstance for the company to be

compulsorily wound up ?

(1) When minimum number of members

falls below the prescribed limit

(2) When it cannot held a statutory

meeting within 6 months from the

date of incorporation

(3) When it cannot commence the

business within a year from the date

of receiving the incorporation

certificate

(4) By passing an ordinary resolution

by majority of members

48. The issue of additional equity shares

should be authorized by

(1) Articles of Association

(2) National Company Law Board

(3) SEBI

(4) Central Government

245 (20 – A )

49. ¸Á®¥ÀvÀæPÉÌ ¸ÀA§A¢ü¹zÀAvÉ F PɼÀV£À AiÀiÁªÀ ºÉýPÉUÀ¼ÀÄ ¸ÀvÀå?

I) jAiÀiÁ¬Äw ¤ÃqÀ¯ÁzÀ MAzÀÄ ¸Á® ¥ÀvÀæªÀ£ÀÄß ¦æëÄAiÀÄA£À°è ªÀÄgÀÄ ¥ÁªÀw ªÀiÁqÀ§ºÀÄzÀÄ.

II) ¸Á® ¥ÀvÀæzÀ MqÉvÀ£À §AqÀªÁ¼ÀzÀ ¨sÁUÀªÁVzÉ.

III) ¸Á®¥ÀvÀæUÀ¼À «vÀgÀuÉAiÀÄ ªÉÄð£À £ÀµÀÖªÀÅ ««zsÀ ªÉZÀÑUÀ¼À MAzÀÄ CA±ÀªÁVzÉ.

IV) ¸Á® ¥ÀvÀæªÀ£ÀÄß §AqÀªÁ¼ÀzÀ £ÀµÀÖªÀ£ÀÄß vÀÄA§®Ä §¼À À§ºÀÄzÀÄ.

F PɼÀV£ÀªÀÅUÀ¼À°è ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ GvÀÛgÀUÀ¼À£ÀÄß DAiÉÄÌ ªÀiÁr :

(1) I, II & III

(2) I, III & IV

(3) I & III

(4) I, II, III & IV

50. F PɼÀV£ÀªÀÅUÀ¼À°è AiÀiÁªÀÅzÀÄ GDR UÀ¼À «²µÀÖ ®PÀëtªÀ®è?

(1) EzÀÄ C¸ÀÄgÀQëvÀ ¨sÀzÀævÉAiÀiÁVzÉ

(2) EzÀ£ÀÄß µÉÃgÀÄUÀ¼À ¸ÀASÉåAiÀiÁV ¥ÀjªÀwð¸À§ºÀÄzÀÄ.

(3) f.r.Dgï. MqÉvÀ£À ºÉÆA¢gÀĪÀªÀgÀÄ ªÀÄvÀzÁ£ÀzÀ ºÀPÀÄÌ ºÉÆA¢gÀÄvÁÛgÉ.

(4) GDR ºÀÆrPÉzÁgÀgÀÄ PÀA¥À¤UÉ ¸À®ºÉ ¤ÃqÀĪÀ ªÀÄÆ®PÀ vÀªÀÄä gÀ²Ã¢AiÀÄ£ÀÄß gÀzÀÄÝUÉƽ¸À§ºÀÄzÀÄ.

51. ªÀÄÆåZÀĪÀ¯ï ¤¢üUÀ¼À£ÀÄß AiÀiÁªÀ ¸ÀA¸ÉÜ ¤AiÀÄAwæ¸ÀÄvÀÛzÉ?

(1) ¸É©

(2) AiÀÄÄ.n.L.

(3) J.JªÀiï.J¥sï.L

(4) Dgï.©.L.

52. £Á£ï¨ÁåAQAUï ºÀtPÁ¸ÀÄ PÀA¥À¤UÀ½UÉ ¸ÀA§A¢ü¹zÀAvÉ F PɼÀV£ÀªÀÅUÀ¼À°è AiÀiÁªÀÅzÀÄ ¸ÀjAiÀÄ®è?

(1) J£ï.©.J¥sï.¹. AiÀÄÄ rªÀiÁåAqï oÉêÀtÂUÀ¼À£ÀÄß ¹éÃPÀj¸ÀĪÀÅ¢®è.

(2) J£ï.©.J¥sï.¹. AiÀÄÄ ¥ÁªÀwAiÀÄ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ¸Él¯ïªÉÄAmï ªÀåªÀ¸ÉÜAiÀÄ MAzÀÄ ¨sÁUÀªÀ®è.

(3) J£ï.©.J¥sï.¹.AiÀÄÄ CzÀPÁÌV ¸É¼ÉzÀ ZÉPï UÀ¼À£ÀÄß ¤ÃqÀ§ºÀÄzÀÄ.

(4) ªÉÄð£À AiÀiÁªÀÅzÀÆ C®è

53. ºÉýPÉUÀ¼ÀÄ : I. MAzÀÄ ºÉÊ¥Àgï ªÀiÁPÉðmï, MAzÀÄ

ÀÆ¥Àgï ªÀiÁPÉðmï ªÀÄvÀÄÛ r¥ÁmïðªÉÄAl¯ï ¸ÉÆÖÃgïUÀ¼À£ÀÄß ÀAAiÉÆÃV¹zÀ MAzÀÄ ¸ÀÆ¥Àgï ¸ÉÆÖÃgï

DVzÉ. II. ºÉÊ¥Àgï ªÀiÁPÉðmï JA§ ±À§ÝªÀ£ÀÄß

1968 gÀ°è ¥sÉæAZï ªÁå¥ÁgÀ vÀdÕ eÁPÉés¸ï ¦PÉÖmï Àȶ׹zÀgÀÄ.

(1) I ¸ÀjAiÀiÁVzÉ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ II vÀ¥ÁàVzÉ

(2) II ¸ÀjAiÀiÁVzÉ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ I vÀ¥ÁàVzÉ

(3) I ªÀÄvÀÄ II JgÀqÀÆ ¸ÀjAiÀiÁVzÉ

(4) I ªÀÄvÀÄ II JgÀqÀÆ vÀ¥ÁàVzÉ

245 (21 – A )

49. Which of the following statements are

true regarding debentures ?

I. A debenture issued at a discount

can be redeemed at a premium.

II. Debenture is a part of owned

capital.

III. Loss on issue of debentures is an

item of miscellaneous expenditure.

IV. Debenture can be used to write off

capital loss.

Select the code for the correct answer

from the options given below :

(1) I, II & III

(2) I, III & IV

(3) I & III

(4) I, II, III & IV

50. Which of the following is not a

characteristic of GDRs ?

(1) It is an unsecured security.

(2) It may be converted into number of

shares.

(3) GDR holders do have voting right.

(4) GDR investors may cancel their

receipt by advising the company.

51. Mutual Funds are regulated by

(1) SEBI

(2) UTI

(3) AMFI

(4) RBI

52. Which of the following is not true with

regard to a Non-Banking Financial

Company ?

(1) An NBFC cannot accept demand

deposits.

(2) An NBFC is not a part of the

payment and settlement system.

(3) An NBFC can issue cheques drawn

on itself.

(4) None of the above

53. Statements :

I. A hypermarket is a super store

combing a supermarket and a

departmental store.

II. The term hypermarket was coined in

1968 by a French trade expert

Jacques Pictet.

(1) I is correct and II is incorrect

(2) II is correct and I is incorrect

(3) Both I and II are correct

(4) Both I and II are incorrect

245 (22 – A )

54. ºÉÆïï¸Éîgï, ¸ÉêÁ¸ÀA¸ÉÜ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ vÀAiÀiÁgÀPÀgÀ

£ÀqÀÄ«£À PÀgÁjUÉ ¸ÀA§A¢ü¹zÀ

M¥ÀàAzÀªÁVzÀÄÝ, EzÀgÀ ªÉÄÃgÉUÉ ªÀåªÀºÁgÀ¸ÀÜgÀÄ

¸ÀéAvÀ AiÀÄƤmïUÀ¼À£ÀÄß ºÉÆAzÀĪÀ ºÀPÀÄÌUÀ¼À£ÀÄß

ºÉÆA¢zÀÄÝ, EzÀ£ÀÄß »ÃUÉAzÀÄ

ªÀVÃðPÀj¸À¯ÁVzÉ

(1) PÁAiÀÄðvÀAvÀæzÀ MPÀÆÌl

(2) dAn ¸ÁºÀ¸À

(3) ¥sÁæöåAZÉʹAUï

(4) ªÉÄð£À AiÀiÁªÀÅzÀÆ C®è

55. £ÉÃgÀ ªÀiÁgÁlzÀ CA±ÀUÀ¼ÀÄ AiÀiÁªÀŪÀÅ?

I. EAlgÉßmï ªÀiÁPÉðnAUï

II. mÉ°ªÀiÁPÉnðAUï

III. £ÉÃgÀ ªÉÄïï

IV. ªÉƨÉÊ¯ï ªÀiÁPÉðnAUï

V. qÉÊgÉPïÖ gɸÁà£ïì n«

F PɼÀV£ÀªÀÅUÀ¼À°è ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ GvÀÛgÀUÀ¼À£ÀÄß DAiÉÄÌ ªÀiÁr :

(1) I, II, III, & IV

(2) I, II, III & V

(3) I, II, & IV

(4) I, II, III, IV & V

56. gÀ¥sÀÄÛ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ DªÀÄzÀÄUÀ¼ÀÄ C¨ÜÃÜ ªÁå¦ÛAiÀÄ°è

§gÀÄvÀÛzÉ.

(1) ºÀtPÁ¸ÀÄ ¸ÀaªÁ®AiÀÄ

(2) ªÁtÂdå ªÀÄvÀÄÛ PÉÊUÁjPÁ ¸ÀaªÁ®AiÀÄ

(3) «zÉñÁAUÀ ªÀåªÀºÁgÀUÀ¼À ¸ÀaªÁ®AiÀÄ

(4) UÀȺÀ ªÀåªÀºÁgÀUÀ¼À ¸ÀaªÁ®AiÀÄ

57. DªÀÄzÀÄzÁgÀ£ÀÄ ¸ÀgÀPÀÄUÀ¼À §lªÁqÉAiÀÄ£ÀÄß F zÁR¯É ¤ÃqÀzÉ vÉUÉzÀÄPÉƼÀî®Ä ¸ÁzsÀå«®è.

(1) £ÉÆÃlzÀ ©¯ï

(2) ²¦àAUï ©¯ï

(3) ªÀÄÆ®zÀ ¥ÀæªÀiÁt ¥ÀvÀæ

(4) ºÉÆgÉ¥ÀnÖ ©¯ï

58. ºÉýPÉUÀ¼ÀÄ :

I. AiÀiÁªÀÅzÉà SÁ ÀV/¸ÁªÀðd¤PÀ/ dAnªÀ®AiÀÄ CxÀªÁ gÁdå ÀPÁðgÀ CxÀªÁ CzÀgÀ KeɤìUÀ¼ÀÄ SEZ C£ÀÄß ¸Áܦ À§ºÀÄzÀÄ.

II. «zÉò ÀA¸ÉÜAiÀÄÄ ¨sÁgÀvÀzÀ°è SEZ C£ÀÄß ¸Áܦ À®Ä ¸ÁzsÀå«®è.

(1) I ¸ÀjAiÀiÁVzÉ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ II vÀ¥ÁàVzÉ

(2) II ¸ÀjAiÀiÁVzÉ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ I vÀ¥ÁàVzÉ

(3) I ªÀÄvÀÄÛ II JgÀqÀÆ ¸Àj

(4) I DUÀ°Ã CxÀªÁ II DUÀ°Ã vÀ¥ÁàVzÉ

245 (23 – A )

54. Contractual agreement between

wholesaler, service organization and

manufacturer according to which

business people have rights to own units

is classified as

(1) Strategic Alliance

(2) Joint Venture

(3) Franchising

(4) None of the above

55. Elements of direct marketing are

I. Internet marketing

II. Telemarketing

III. Direct mail

IV. Mobile marketing

V. Direct response TV

Select the code for the correct answer

from the options given below :

(1) I, II, III & IV

(2) I, II, III & V

(3) I, II & IV

(4) I, II, III, IV & V

56. Exports and Imports come under the

purview of

(1) Ministry of Finance

(2) Ministry of Commerce and Industry

(3) Ministry of External Affairs

(4) Ministry of Home Affairs

57. The importer cannot take delivery of

goods unless he produces the

(1) Bill of sight

(2) Shipping bill

(3) Certificate of origin

(4) Bill of lading

58. Statements :

I. Any private/public/joint sector or

state government or its agencies can

set up an SEZ.

II. Foreign agency cannot set up SEZs

in India.

(1) I is correct and II is incorrect

(2) II is correct and I is incorrect

(3) Both I and II are correct

(4) Neither I nor II is correct

245 (24 – A )

59. «zÉò «¤ªÀÄAiÀÄ ¤ªÀðºÀuÁ PÁAiÉÄÝ 1999 (FEMA) JAzÀÄ eÁjUÉ §A¢vÀÄ?

(1) 26£Éà DUÀ¸ïÖ 2000

(2) 29£Éà r¸ÉA§gï 2000

(3) 25£Éà dįÉÊ 2000

(4) 27£Éà CPÉÆÖçgï 2000

60. gÀ¦üÛUÉ GvÉÛÃd£À ¤ÃqÀĪÀ°è gÀ¥sÀÄÛ ¥ÀæQæAiÀiÁ

ªÀ®AiÀÄ (EPZ)£À ¥ÀjuÁªÀÄPÁjvÀéªÀ£ÀÄß

KµÁåzÀ°è ªÉÆzÀ®Ä UÀÄgÀÄw¹zÀªÀgÀ°è ¨sÁgÀvÀªÀÇ

¸ÀºÀ MAzÀÄ. 1965gÀ°è _______ £À°è KµÁåzÀ

ªÉÆzÀ® E.¦.gÀhÄqï ¸ÁÜ¥À£ÉAiÀiÁ¬ÄvÀÄ.

(1) ¸ÁAvÁ PÀÆæeï

(2) PÁAqÁè

(3) £ÉÆÃAiÀiÁØ

(4) EAzÉÆÃgï

61. MAzÀÄ ªÀåªÀºÁgÀzÀ°è£À ¯Á¨sÀzÀ ªÀÄÆ® ¥ÁvÀæªÀÅ

PɼÀV£À_______ DVgÀÄvÀÛzÉ.

(1) ªÀåªÀºÁgÀzÀ ¨É¼ÀªÀtÂUÉUÉ PÁgÀtªÁUÀĪÀÅzÀÄ

(2) «±Áé¸À¤ÃAiÀÄ ºÀtPÁ¹£À CUÀvÀåvÉUÀ¼À£ÀÄß ¥ÀÆgÉʸÀ®Ä ¸ÀºÁAiÀÄ ªÀiÁqÀĪÀÅzÀÄ

(3) ªÀåªÀºÁgÀzÀ G½ªÀ£ÀÄß SÁvÀjUÉƽ¸ÀĪÀÅzÀÄ

(4) EªÀÅUÀ¼À°è J®èªÀÇ

62. PɼÀV£ÀªÀÅUÀ¼À°è AiÀiÁªÀÅzÀÄ ¥ÁæxÀ«ÄPÀ PÉÊUÁjPÉ ªÀUÀðPÉÌ ¸ÉÃgÀĪÀÅ¢®è :

(1) £À¸ÀðjUÀ¼ÀÄ

(2) UÀtÂUÁjPÉ GzÀåªÀÄ

(3) PÉÆý ¸ÁPÁtÂPÉ

(4) vÉʯÉÆÃzÀåªÀÄ

63. ªÀåªÀºÁgÀ ¤Ãw±Á¸ÀÛçªÀÅ ¸ÀA§A¢ü¹gÀĪÀÅzÀÄ

(1) M§â ªÀåªÀºÁgÀ¸ÀÛ¤UÉ vÀ£Àß ¤tðAiÀÄUÀ¼ÀÄ ¸Àj CxÀªÁ vÀ¥ÀÄà JAzÀÄ w½¹PÉÆqÀĪÀ PÀ®à£ÉUÀ¼ÀÄ.

(2) ªÀåªÀºÁgÀ ¸ÀA¸ÉÜUÀ¼À £ÀqÁªÀ½UÀ¼À£ÀÄß ¤zÉÃð²¸ÀĪÀ £ÉÊwPÀ vÀvÀéUÀ¼ÀÄ.

(3) ¸ÀªÀiÁd PÀ¯ÁåtªÀ£ÀÄß UÀjµÀ×UÉƽ¸ÀĪÀ ªÀÄÆ® ªÀåªÀºÁgÀ vÀvÀé.

(4) EªÀÅUÀ¼À°è J®èªÀÇ

64. E-ªÁtÂdåzÀ°è J£ïQæ¥Àê£ï JAzÀgÉ _______

(1) ¥ÀPÀëUÀ½UÉ ºÁ¤AiÀiÁUÀĪÀAvÉ ªÀiÁ»wAiÀÄ£ÀÄß ªÀiÁ¥ÁðqÀÄ ªÀiÁqÀĪÀÅzÀÄ.

(2) PÀA¥ÀÆålgï £À°è ¸ÀAUÀ滹zÀ J¯Áè ªÀiÁ»wAiÀÄ£ÀÄß ±ÀÄ¢Þ ªÀiÁqÀĪÀÅzÀÄ.

(3) ªÀiÁ»w ¥ÀqÉAiÀÄĪÀªÀ¤UÉ ªÀiÁvÀæ w½AiÀÄĪÀAvÉ ªÀiÁ»wAiÀÄ£ÀÄß «±ÉõÀ PÉÆÃqïUÀ¼À£ÁßV ªÀiÁqÀĪÀÅzÀÄ.

(4) EªÀÅUÀ¼À°è AiÀiÁªÀÅzÀÆ C®è

245 (25 – A )

59. The Foreign Exchange Management Act

1999 (FEMA) was enacted on

(1) 26th August 2000

(2) 29th December 2000

(3) 25th July 2000

(4) 27th October 2000

60. India was one of the first in Asia to

recognize the effectiveness of the Export

Processing Zone (EPZ) in promoting

export, with Asia’s first EPZ set up in

1965 at :

(1) Santa Cruz

(2) Kandla

(3) Noida

(4) Indore

61. Following is the basic role of profits in a

business :

(1) Leading to growth of business

(2) Helping to meet genuine financial

requirements

(3) Ensuring survival of business

(4) All of these

62. Which one of the following does not

belong to primary industry ?

(1) Nurseries

(2) Mining industry

(3) Poultry farming

(4) Oil industry

63. Business Ethics refer to

(1) Ideas that guide businessman as to

whether his decisions are right or

wrong.

(2) Moral principles which govern the

conduct of business enterprises.

(3) The basic business philosophy that

seeks to maximize social welfare.

(4) All of these

64. Encryption in E-commerce means

(1) Modifying information to harm the

parties.

(2) Cleaning up all information that is

stored in the computer.

(3) Putting information into special

code to make it understandable only

to the recipient.

(4) None of these

245 (26 – A )

65. F PɼÀV£ÀªÀÅUÀ¼À°è ªÀåªÀºÁgÀzÀ UÀAqÁAvÀgÀUÀ½UÉ

AiÀiÁªÀÅzÀÄ ¸ÁªÀiÁfPÀ PÁgÀtªÀ®è :

(1) ¥sÁåµÀ£ïUÀ¼À §zÀ¯ÁªÀuÉ

(2) UÁæºÀPÀgÀ ªÀgÀªÀiÁ£ÀzÀ°è£À §zÀ¯ÁªÀuÉ

(3) C®à ¨ÉÃrPÉUÉ PÁgÀtªÁUÀĪÀ GzÀåªÀÄzÀ°è£À ©PÀÌlÄÖ

(4) ºÉƸÀ fêÀ£À ±ÉÊ°UÉ zÁjªÀiÁqÀĪÀ ¸ÁªÀiÁfPÀ ªÀiË®åUÀ¼À §zÀ¯ÁªÀuÉ

66. ªÀåªÀºÁgÀ¸ÀÜ£ÀÄ ¸ÁªÀiÁfPÀ dªÁ¨ÁÝj

vÉUÉzÀÄPÉƼÀî¨ÉÃPÉA§ÄzÀgÀ ¥ÀgÀªÁzÀ ªÁzÀUÀ¼À°è

___________ M¼ÀUÉƼÀÄîªÀÅ¢®è.

(1) zsÀªÀÄðzÀ²ðvÀé

(2) ¯Á¨sÀªÀ£ÀÄß UÀjµÀ×UÉƽ¸ÀÄ«PÉ

(3) ªÀåªÀºÁgÀzÀ ¢ÃWÁðªÀ¢ü »vÁ¸ÀQÛUÀ¼ÀÄ

(4) ¸ÁªÀðd¤PÀ ¥Àæw©A§

67. ¨ÉÃgÉ GzÀåªÀÄUÀ½UÉ ¨ÉA§® ¸ÉêÉUÀ¼À£ÀÄß

MzÀV¸ÀĪÀ GzÀåªÀÄUÀ¼À£ÀÄß ________ JAzÀÄ

PÀgÉAiÀÄÄvÁÛgÉ.

(1) vÀÈwÃAiÀÄ GzÀåªÀÄUÀ¼ÀÄ

(2) C£ÀĵÀAVPÀ GzÀåªÀÄUÀ¼ÀÄ

(3) ¥ÁæxÀ«ÄPÀ GzÀåªÀÄUÀ¼ÀÄ

(4) ªÁtÂdå GzÀåªÀÄUÀ¼ÀÄ

68. ¦üqÉ°n (£ÀA©PÉ) «ªÉÄ ________ UÀ½AzÀ GAmÁUÀĪÀ £ÀµÀÖzÀ §UÉÎ SÁvÀj MzÀV¸ÀÄvÀÛzÉ.

(1) GzÉÆåÃUÀzÁvÀ£À ªÀÄgÀt

(2) GzÉÆåÃVAiÀÄ ªÀÄgÀt

(3) GzÉÆåÃVAiÀÄ C¥ÁæªÀiÁtÂPÀvÉ

(4) GzÉÆåÃUÀzÁvÀ£À C¥ÁæªÀiÁtÂPÀvÉ

69. ¨sÁgÀvÀ fêÀ«ªÀiÁ ¤UÀªÀÄzÀ PÉÃAzÀæ PÀbÉÃj

________ £À°è EzÉ.

(1) ZÉ£ÉßöÊ

(2) zɺÀ°

(3) PÉÆ®ÌvÁÛ

(4) ªÀÄÄA¨ÉÊ

70. ¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ «zsÀzÀ ªÀåªÀºÁgÀ MqÉvÀ£ÀªÀ£ÀÄß DAiÉÄÌ

ªÀiÁqÀĪÀ ¤nÖ£À°è PɼÀV£À AiÀiÁªÀ ºÉýPÉAiÀÄÄ

¸ÀjAiÀiÁVzÉ?

(1) PÀÆqÀÄ §AqÀªÁ¼À ¸ÀA¸ÉÜ - ¸ÀÄ®¨sÀ PÁAiÀÄð¤ªÀðºÀuÉ zÀȶ׬ÄAzÀ

(2) KPÀªÀåQÛ ¸ÀA¸ÉÜ – ªÀåªÀºÁgÀzÀ ¹ÜgÀvÉ zÀȶ֬ÄAzÀ

(3) ¥Á®ÄzÁgÀ ¸ÀA¸ÉÜ - ¯Á¨sÀUÀ¼À£ÀÄß ºÀAaPÉƼÀÄîªÀ zÀȶ֬ÄAzÀ

(4) KPÀªÀåQÛ ¸ÀA¸ÉÜ – ªÀåªÀºÁgÀzÀ UÀÄlÄÖUÀ¼À£ÀÄß PÁ¥ÁrPÉƼÀÄîªÀ zÀȶ֬ÄAzÀ

245 (27 – A )

65. Following is not a social cause for

business risks :

(1) Change in fashions

(2) Changes in income of consumers

(3) Recession in industry leading to

poor demand

(4) Changing social values leading to a

new pattern of life

66. Arguments in favour of assumption of

social responsibility by the businessman

do not include

(1) Theory of trusteeship

(2) Maximisation of profits

(3) Long-term interests of business

(4) Public image

67. The industries which provide support

services to other industries are known as

(1) Tertiary industries

(2) Secondary industries

(3) Primary industries

(4) Commercial industries

68. Fidelity Insurance guarantees for the loss

out of

(1) The death of the employer

(2) The death of the employee

(3) The employee’s dishonesty

(4) The employer’s dishonesty

69. Central office of the Life Insurance

Corporation of India is located at

(1) Chennai

(2) Delhi

(3) Kolkata

(4) Mumbai

70. Which of the following statements is

correct with respect to choice of suitable

form of business ownership ?

(1) Joint stock company from the view

point of operational flexibility

(2) Sole proprietorship from the view

point of stability

(3) Partnership firm from the view

point of sharing of profits

(4) Sole proprietorship from the view

point of business secrecy aspect

245 (28 – A )

71. SÁ¸ÀV ¤AiÀÄ«ÄvÀ ¸ÀA¸ÉÜUÀ½UÉ ¸ÀA§A¢ü¹zÀAvÉ PɼÀV£À AiÀiÁªÀ ºÉýPÉAiÀÄÄ ¸Àj¬Ä®è?

(1) EzÀÄ ªÀåªÀºÁgÀ ¥ÁægÀA©ü¸ÀĪÀ ¥ÀæªÀiÁt ¥ÀvÀæªÀ£ÀÄß ¥ÀqÉzÀÄPÉƼÀî¨ÉÃQ®è.

(2) EzÀÄ UÀjµÀ× ªÀAwUÉAiÀÄ£ÀÄß ¹éÃPÀj¸ÀzÉ EzÀÄ µÉÃgÀÄUÀ¼À ºÀAaPÉ ªÀiÁqÀ§ºÀÄzÀÄ.

(3) EzÀÄ vÀ£Àß ¸ÀzÀ¸ÀågÀ µÉÃgÀÄ ªÀUÁðªÀuÉ ºÀQÌ£À ªÉÄÃ¯É AiÀiÁªÀÅzÉà ¤§AzsÀ£ÉUÀ¼À£ÀÄß ºÉÃgÀĪÀÅ¢®è.

(4) EzÀÄ ±Á¸À£À§zÀÞ ¸À¨sÉAiÀÄ£ÀÄß £ÀqɸÀ¨ÉÃPÁV®è ºÁUÀÆ CzÀgÀ ªÀgÀ¢AiÀÄ£ÀÄß PÉÆqÀ¨ÉÃPÁV®è.

72. ¸ÀºÀPÁj ¸ÀA¸ÉÜUÀ¼À UÀÄt®PÀët PɼÀV£À ________ DVgÀĪÀÅ¢®è.

(1) MAzÀÄ µÉÃgÀÄ – MAzÀÄ ªÀÄvÀ

(2) ¸ÉêÉAiÀÄ GzÉÝñÀ

(3) ¸ÀPÁðgÀzÀ ¤AiÀÄAvÀæt

(4) ¤AiÀÄ«ÄvÀ dªÁ¨ÁÝj

73. C«¨sÁdå »AzÀÄ PÀÄlÄA§zÀ ªÀåªÀºÁgÀzÀ°è PÀvÀð£À dªÁ¨ÁÝjAiÀÄÄ ______

(1) ¤AiÀÄ«ÄvÀ dªÁ¨ÁÝj

(2) C¤AiÀÄ«ÄvÀ dªÁ¨ÁÝj

(3) dAn dªÁ¨ÁÝj

(4) dªÁ¨ÁÝj¬Ä®è¢gÀĪÀÅzÀÄ

74. MAzÀÄ PÀÆqÀÄ §AqÀªÁ¼À ¸ÀA¸ÉÜAiÀÄ ¤zÉÃð±ÀPÀ

ªÀÄAqÀ½AiÀÄ£ÀÄß ZÀÄ£Á¬Ä¸ÀĪÀÅzÀÄ.

(1) ¸ÀPÁðgÀzÀ CAUÀ ¸ÀA¸ÉÜUÀ¼ÀÄ

(2) £ËPÀgÀgÀÄ

(3) µÉÃgÀÄzÁgÀgÀÄ

(4) ¸ÁªÀðd¤PÀgÀÄ

75. §ºÀÄgÁ¶ÖçÃAiÀÄ PÀA¥À¤UÀ¼À ¸ÁªÀiÁ£Àå UÀÄt®PÀët

PɼÀV£À ________ DVgÀĪÀÅ¢®è.

(1) ««zsÀ zÉñÀUÀ¼À°è£À PÁAiÀiÁðZÀgÀuÉ

(2) zÉòà GzÀåªÀÄUÀ½UÉ ¨ÉA§®

(3) ªÀÄÄAzÀĪÀjzÀ ºÁUÀÆ DzsÀĤPÀ

vÀAvÀæeÁÕ£À

(4) ¨sÁjà ¥ÀæªÀiÁtzÀ D¹ÛUÀ¼ÀÄ ºÁUÀÆ

ªÀåªÀºÁgÀ

76. ¸ÁªÀðd¤PÀ ¤AiÀÄ«ÄvÀ PÀA¥À¤UÉ ªÀåªÀºÁgÀ

¥ÁægÀA¨sÀ ¥ÀæªÀiÁt¥ÀvÀæªÀ£ÀÄß ______ ¤ÃqÀÄvÀÛzÉ.

(1) PÀA¥À¤ ¯Á ¨ÉÆÃqïð

(2) jf¸ÁÖçgï D¥sï PÀA¥À¤

(3) PÀA¥À¤ ªÀåªÀºÁgÀUÀ¼À ªÀÄAvÁæ®AiÀÄ

(4) ¸É©

245 (29 – A )

71. Which of the following statements is not

correct with respect to a private limited

company ?

(1) It need not obtain a certificate of

commencement of business.

(2) It can allot shares without receiving

the maximum subscription.

(3) It does not put any restrictions on

the right of members to transfer

their shares.

(4) It need not hold a statutory meeting

and file a statutory report.

72. Following is not a feature of co-operative

societies :

(1) One share one vote

(2) Service motive

(3) State control

(4) Limited liability

73. The Karta in a Joint Hindu Family

business has

(1) Limited Liability

(2) Unlimited Liability

(3) Joint Liability

(4) No Liability

74. The Board of Directors of a Joint Stock

Company is elected by

(1) Government bodies

(2) Employees

(3) Shareholders

(4) General public

75. Following is not a common feature of

multinational companies :

(1) Operations in several countries

(2) Support for domestic industries

(3) Advanced and sophisticated

technology

(4) Huge assets and turnover

76. Business commencement certificate for a

public limited company is issued by

(1) Company Law Board

(2) Registrar of Companies

(3) Ministry of Corporate Affairs

(4) SEBI

245 (30 – A )

77. ¸ÁªÀðd¤PÀ ¤AiÀÄ«ÄvÀ PÀA¥À¤AiÀÄ ¤zÉÃð±ÀPÀ ªÀÄAqÀ½AiÀÄ ªÉÆzÀ® ¸À¨sÉAiÀÄ°è C£ÀĪÉÆâ¸À®àlÖ £ÉÆÃAzÀt ¥ÀƪÀð M¥ÀàAzÀUÀ¼ÀÄ PɼÀV£À ________ ¤AiÀĪÀÄ ¥ÀÆgÉʹzÀ £ÀAvÀgÀªÉà PÀA¥À¤UÉ §AzsÀ£ÀPÁgÀPÀªÁVgÀÄvÀÛªÉ.

(1) ¸À¨sÉAiÀÄ «±ÉõÀ ¤tðAiÀĪÀ£ÀÄß jf¸ÁÖçgï D¥sï PÀA¥À¤UÉ ¸À°è¹zÀ £ÀAvÀgÀ

(2) £ÉÆÃAzÀt ¥ÀæªÀiÁt ¥ÀvÀæ ¥ÀqÉzÀ £ÀAvÀgÀ

(3) ªÀåªÀºÁgÀ ¥ÁægÀA¨sÀ ¥ÀæªÀiÁt ¥ÀvÀæ ¥ÀqÉzÀ £ÀAvÀgÀ

(4) PÀ¤µÀ× ªÀAwUÉ ¥ÀqÉzÀ £ÀAvÀgÀ

78. MAzÀÄ ¸ÁªÀðd¤PÀ PÀA¥À¤AiÀÄÄ vÀ£ÀUÉ CUÀvÀåªÁzÀ §AqÀªÁ¼ÀªÀ£ÀÄß SÁ¸ÀV M¥ÀàAzÀUÀ¼À ªÀÄÆ®PÀ ¸ÀAUÀ滸À®Ä ¸ÁzsÀåªÁzÀ°è, CzÀÄ _________ C£ÀÄß ¸À°è¸À¨ÉÃPÀÄ.

(1) «ªÀgÀuÁ ¥ÀvÀæ (¥Áæ¸ÉàPÀÖ¸ï)

(2) «ªÀgÀuÁ ¥ÀvÀæzÀ (¥Áæ¸ÉàPÀÖ¸ï) §zÀ° ºÉýPÉ

(3) ªÀiÁgÁl ¤ªÉÃzÀ£ÉAiÀÄ ¥ÀvÀæ

(4) EªÀÅUÀ¼À°è AiÀiÁªÀÅzÀÆ E®è

79. vÉjUÉ ¥ÁªÀw ¸ÀAzÀ¨sÀðzÀ°è F PɼÀV£À CA±ÀªÀÅ PÀ¼ÉAiÀÄ®àqÀÄvÀÛzÉ :

(1) DzÀåvÁ ±ÉÃgÀÄUÀ¼À ¯Á¨sÁA±À

(2) ¸Á®¥ÀvÀæUÀ¼À ªÉÄð£À §rØ

(3) (FQén) ¸ÁªÀiÁ£Àå ±ÉÃgÀÄUÀ¼À ¯Á¨sÁA±À

(4) EªÀÅUÀ¼À°è J®èªÀÇ

80. MAzÀÄ J£ï.©.J¥sï.¹.AiÀÄÄ vÀ£Àß ¸ÀéAvÀ ºÀtzÀ ºÀÆrPÉAiÀÄ°è _____ VAvÀ ºÉaÑUÉ AiÀiÁªÀÅzÉà MAzÀÄ ªÀåQÛ/¸ÀA¸ÉÜUÉ ¸Á® PÉÆqÀĪÀAw®è.

(1) 15%

(2) 10%

(3) 20%

(4) 18%

81. MAzÀÄ ¤¢ðµÀÖ PÉëÃvÀæzÀ°è vÀ£Àß ¸ÀgÀPÀÄ ºÁUÀÆ ¸ÉêÉUÀ¼À£ÀÄß ªÀiÁgÀ°aÒ¸ÀĪÀªÀjUÉ MAzÀÄ PÀA¥À¤AiÀÄÄ PÉÆqÀĪÀ C¢üPÀÈvÀ ¥ÀgÀªÁ£ÀVAiÀÄ£ÀÄß ________ JAzÀÄ PÀgÉAiÀÄÄvÁÛgÉ.

(1) ¥sÁæAZÉʹAUï

(2) £ÉmïªÀPïð ªÀiÁgÁl

(3) §ºÀĺÀAvÀzÀ ªÀiÁgÁl

(4) EªÀÅUÀ¼À°è AiÀiÁªÀÅzÀÆ C®è

82. PɼÀV£ÀªÀÅUÀ¼À°è AiÀiÁªÀ ºÉýPÉ ¸Àj¬Ä®è :

(1) vÀªÀÄä ªÀåªÀºÁgÀ ¸ÀܼÀªÀ£ÀÄß DUÁUÉÎ

§zÀ°¸ÀĪÀ a®ègÉ ªÀiÁgÁlUÁgÀgÀ£ÀÄß

¸ÀAZÁjà a®ègÉ ªÀiÁgÁlUÁgÀgÉAzÀÄ

PÀgÉAiÀÄÄvÁÛgÉ.

(2) ¸ÀÆ¥Àgï ªÀiÁPÉðmïUÀ¼ÀÄ ¸ÁªÀiÁ£ÀåªÁV

UÁæºÀPÀgÉÆA¢UÉ ªÀåªÀºÀj¸ÀÄvÀÛªÉ.

(3) ¸ÀÆ¥Àgï §eÁgïUÀ¼ÀÄ ¸ÀºÀPÁgÀ

¸ÀAWÀUÀ½AzÀ ¸ÀAWÀn¸À®àlÖ a®ègÉ

ªÀiÁgÁl ªÀĽUÉUÀ¼ÀÄ.

(4) UÁæºÀPÀ ¸ÀºÀPÁj ¸ÀA¸ÉÜUÀ¼ÀÄ ¸ÁªÀiÁ£ÀåªÁV

£ÀUÀzÀÄ ªÀåªÀºÁgÀªÀ£Éßà ªÀiÁqÀÄvÀÛªÉ.

245 (31 – A )

77. The preliminary contracts of a public

limited company ratified at its first board

meeting will be binding on the company

only after

(1) Filing a copy of special resolutions

with the Registrar of Companies

(2) Obtaining Certificate of

Incorporation

(3) Obtaining Business Commencement

Certificate

(4) Obtaining minimum subscription

78. If a public company is able to raise the

required capital through private

arguments, it must file

(1) Prospectus

(2) Statement in lieu of prospectus

(3) Letter of offer for sale

(4) None of these

79. Following is a deductible item for

taxation purposes :

(1) Preferential dividend

(2) Debenture interests

(3) Equity dividend

(4) All of these

80. An NBFC should not lend/invest more

than __________ of its own funds to any

single party.

(1) 15%

(2) 10%

(3) 20%

(4) 18%

81. Formal permission given by a company to

someone who wants to sell its goods and

services in a particular area is called

(1) Franchising

(2) Network marketing

(3) Multi-level marketing

(4) None of these

82. State which of the following statements is

not correct :

(1) Retail traders who change their

business place frequently are called

itinerant retailers.

(2) Supermarkets normally deal with

consumers.

(3) Super bazaar is a retail shop

organised by a co-operative society.

(4) Consumer co-operative stores

usually sell products on cash.

245 (32 – A )

83. GíqÅà±Ýp… ÊݱÝÃ Ü Gí¨ÜÃæ

(1) GvÉÛÃd£ÀUÀ¼À£ÀÄß ¥ÀqÉAiÀÄĪÀÅzÀPÁÌV

ªÀ¸ÀÄÛUÀ¼À£ÀÄß gÀ¥sÀÄÛ ªÀiÁqÀĪÀÅzÀÄ.

(2) ¸ÀºÁAiÀÄzsÀ£À ¥ÀqÉAiÀÄĪÀÅzÀPÁÌV ¤¢ðµÀÖ

ªÀ¸ÀÄÛUÀ¼À£ÀÄß DªÀÄzÀÄ ªÀiÁrPÉƼÀÄîªÀÅzÀÄ.

(3) ªÀÄgÀÄ gÀ¥sÀÄÛ ªÀiÁqÀĪÀÅzÀPÁÌV ªÀ¸ÀÄÛUÀ¼À£ÀÄß

DªÀÄzÀÄ ªÀiÁrPÉƼÀÄîªÀÅzÀÄ.

(4) EªÀÅUÀ¼À°è AiÀiÁªÀÅzÀÆ C®è

84. ¨sÁgÀvÀ ¸ÀPÁðgÀ ¤ÃrgÀĪÀ gÀ¥sÀÄÛ GvÉÛÃd£ÀUÀ¼À°è

________ M¼ÀUÉƼÀÄîªÀÅ¢®è.

(1) £ÀUÀzÀÄ ¥ÀjºÁgÀ ¨ÉA§®

(2) DzÁAiÀÄ vÉjUÉ jAiÀiÁ¬Äw

(3) ¨ÁrUÉ ¸ÀºÁAiÀÄzsÀ£À

(4) §rØgÀ»vÀ ¸Á®

85. gÀ¥sÀÄÛ C¥ÁAiÀÄ «gÀÄzÀÞ gÀPÉëUÁV _______ £ÀÄß

¸Àȶ׸À¯Á¬ÄvÀÄ.

(1) L.r.©.L.

(2) Dgï.©.L.

(3) E.¹.f.¹.

(4) F AiÀiÁªÀÅzÀÆ C®è

86. ¸ÀªÀÄÄzÀæ «ªÀiÁ PÁAiÉÄÝAiÀÄ£ÀÄß AiÀiÁªÀ ªÀµÀðzÀ°è eÁjUÉƽ¸À¯Á¬ÄvÀÄ

(1) 1961

(2) 1962

(3) 1963

(4) 1964

87. F ªÀÄÄA¢£À AiÀiÁªÀ ºÉýPÉ ¸ÀjAiÀÄ®è?

(1) «ªÀiÁPÀgÁgÀÄ £ÀµÀÖ ¨sÀwðAiÀÄ PÀgÁgÀÄ DVzÉ.

(2) MAzÀÄ «µÀAiÀÄzÀ §UÉÎ E§âgÀÄ CxÀªÁ ºÉZÀÄÑ «ªÀiÁUÁgÀgÀ°è «ªÉÄ ªÀiÁr¹gÀĪÀÅzÀ£ÀÄß ¢é«ªÉÄ JAzÀÄ PÀgÉAiÀįÁUÀĪÀÅzÀÄ.

(3) AiÀiÁªÀÅzÉà PÁgÀtPÁÌV ªÀÄÆ® «ªÉÄ ¯Áå¥ïì DzÁUÀ ªÀÄgÀÄ «ªÉÄAiÀÄ£ÀÄß CAvÀåUÉƽ¸À§ºÀÄzÀÄ.

(4) j¸ï̤AzÀ GAmÁzÀ £ÀµÀÖzÀ ¸ÀA§AzsÀzÀ°è £ÀµÀÖ ¥ÀjºÁgÀ ¤ÃqÀ®Ä M¦àPÉÆArgÀĪÀ ªÀåQÛAiÀÄ£ÀÄß «ªÀiÁzÁgÀ£É£À߯ÁUÀĪÀÅzÀÄ.

88. ¸ÁªÀiÁ£Àå «ªÀiÁ PÀgÁj£À°è ‘¸ÀgÁ¸Àj RAqÀ’ªÀ£ÀÄß ¸ÉÃj¹gÀĪÀÅzÀÄ ________ £ÀÄß

¸æàvÜÊæ®Ü°Æá.

(1) PÀrªÉÄ ªÉÆvÀÛzÀ «ªÉÄ

(2) CvÀå¢üPÀ ªÉÆvÀÛzÀ «ªÉÄ

(3) zÀÄ¥ÀàlÄÖ «ªÉÄ

(4) ªÀÄgÀÄ «ªÉÄ

245 (33 – A )

83. Entrepot trade means

(1) Exporting of goods to avail

incentives.

(2) Importing of specified goods to avail

subsidies.

(3) Importing of goods for re-exporting.

(4) None of these

84. Export incentives extended by the Indian

Government do not include

(1) Cash compensatory support

(2) Income tax concession

(3) Freight subsidy

(4) Interest free credit

85. To cover export risks _______ has been

created.

(1) IDBI

(2) RBI

(3) ECGC

(4) None of these

86. The Marine Insurance Act was passed in

the year

(1) 1961

(2) 1962

(3) 1963

(4) 1964

87. Which of the following statements is not

true ?

(1) A contract of insurance is a contract

of indemnity.

(2) Subject matter insured with two or

more insurers is known as Double

Insurance.

(3) Re-Insurance can be terminated

when the original insurance has

lapsed for any reason.

(4) The person who agreed to

compensate the losses arising from

the risk is called the Insured.

88. The ‘Average Clause’ is inserted in

General Insurance Contract to discourage

(1) Under Insurance

(2) Over Insurance

(3) Double Insurance

(4) Re-Insurance

245 (34 – A )

89. F ªÀÄÄA¢£À AiÀiÁªÀ ºÉýPÉ ¸ÀvÀåªÀ®è :

(1) AiÀiÁgÉà ¥Á®ÄzÁgÀ£À ªÀÄgÀtzÉÆA¢UÉ

¥Á®ÄzÁjPÉ PÉÆ£ÉUÉƼÀÄîvÀÛzÉ.

(2) ¥Á®ÄzÁgÀgÀÄ vÀªÀÄä ªÉÊAiÀÄQÛPÀ

¸ÀA¥À£ÀÆ䮢AzÀ®Æ ¸ÀºÀ ¸Á®UÀ¼À£ÀÄß

ªÀÄgÀÄ¥ÁªÀw ªÀiÁqÀ®Ä

ºÉÆuÉUÁgÀgÁVgÀÄvÁÛgÉ.

(3) ¥Á®ÄzÁjPÉ ¸ÀA¸ÉÜAiÀÄÄ vÀ£Àß DyðPÀ

ªÀgÀ¢UÀ¼À£ÀÄß ¥ÀæPÀn¸À¨ÉÃPÉAzÀÄ PÁ£ÀÆ£ÀÄ

CUÀvÀå¥Àr¸ÀĪÀÅ¢®è.

(4) UÉÆÃ¥Àå ¥Á®ÄzÁgÀ£ÀÄ ¸ÀA¸ÉÜAiÀÄ

§AqÀªÁ¼ÀPÉÌ ºÀt ºÀÆrgÀĪÀÅ¢®è.

90. »AzÀÆ PÁ£ÀÆ£ÀÄ F ªÀÄÄA¢£ÀªÀÅUÀ½UÉ

C£ÀéAiÀĪÁUÀĪÀÅ¢®è

(1) ¥Á®ÄzÁjPÉ ªÀåªÀºÁgÀ

(2) eÁ¬ÄAmï ¸ÁÖPï PÀA¥À¤

(3) ¸ÀºÀPÁgÀ ¸ÀAWÀ

(4) ªÉÄîÌAqÀ J®èªÀÇ

91. PÀA¥À¤AiÀÄ zsÉåÃAiÉÆÃzÉÝñÀUÀ¼À£ÀÄß ªÁåSÁ夸ÀĪÀ

zÁR¯É ¥ÀvÀæ

(1) ¥Áæ¸ÉàPÀÖ¸ï

(2) ¸ÀAWÀzÀ «¢üUÀ¼ÀÄ

(3) ¸ÀAWÀzÀ eÁÕ¥À£À¥ÀvÀæ

(4) ªÉÄð£À AiÀiÁªÀÅzÀÆ C®è

92. «ªÀiÁPÀAvÀ£ÀÄß ________ CªÀgÀÄ ______

CªÀjUÉ ¸ÀAzÁAiÀÄ ªÀiÁqÀÄvÁÛgÉ.

(1) «ªÉÄzÁgÀ, «ªÉÄPÁgÀ

(2) «ªÉÄPÁgÀ, «ªÉÄzÁgÀ

(3) «ªÉÄzÁgÀ, ¥Á°¹zsÁgÀPÀ

(4) «ªÉÄPÁgÀ, ¥Á°¹zsÁgÀPÀ

93. ¦¦J¥sï SÁvÉAiÀÄ£ÀÄß vÉgÉzÀ _____ ªÀµÀðUÀ¼À

vÀgÀĪÁAiÀÄ ¦¦J¥sï SÁvɬÄAzÀ ¸Á®

¸Ë®¨sÀå vÀqÉAiÀħºÀÄzÀÄ.

(1) 3 ªÀµÀðUÀ¼ÀÄ

(2) 4 ªÀµÀðUÀ¼ÀÄ

(3) 5 ªÀµÀðUÀ¼ÀÄ

(4) 6 ªÀµÀðUÀ¼ÀÄ

94. F ªÀÄÄA¢£ÀªÀÅUÀ¼À°è ªÀåªÀºÁgÀPÁÌV ºÀtPÁ¸ÀÄ

MzÀV¸ÀĪÀ ¢ÃWÁðªÀ¢ü ¨ÁºÀåªÀÄÆ®

AiÀiÁªÀÅzÀÄ?

(1) FQén µÉÃgÀÄ

(2) r¨ÉAZÀgïUÀ¼ÀÄ

(3) jmÉãïØ CjßAUïì

(4) EªÀÅUÀ¼À°è AiÀiÁªÀÅzÀÆ C®è

245 (35 – A )

89. Which of the following statements is not

true ?

(1) Partnership comes to an end with

death of any partner.

(2) Partners are liable to repay debts

even from their personal resources.

(3) A Partnership firm is not legally

required to publish its financial

reports.

(4) Secret partner does not contribute to

the capital of the firm.

90. Hindu law is not applicable to

(1) Partnership Business

(2) Joint Stock Company

(3) Co-operative Society

(4) All of the above

91. The document which defines the

objectives of a company is known as

(1) Prospectus

(2) Articles of Association

(3) Memorandum of Association

(4) None of these

92. Premium is paid by ______ to ______ .

(1) Insured, Insurer

(2) Insurer, Insured

(3) Insured, Policy-holder

(4) Insurer, Policy-holder

93. Loan facility is available from P.P.F

Account after _______ of opening the

account.

(1) 3 years

(2) 4 years

(3) 5 years

(4) 6 years

94. Which one of the following is a long term

external source of Business Finance?

(1) Equity share

(2) Debentures

(3) Retained earnings

(4) None of these

245 (36 – A )

95. PÉÊUÁjPÁ ºÀtPÁ¸ÀÄ PÉëÃvÀæzÀ°è ________

C¥ÉPïì ¨ÁåAQ£ÀAvÉ ªÀwð¸ÀÄvÀÛzÉ.

(1) L.J¥sï.¹.L.

(2) L.¹.L.¹.L.

(3) L.r.©.L.

(4) AiÀÄÄ.n.L.

96. ¸ÁÖPï ªÀiÁPÉðmï£À°è F ªÀÄÄA¢£ÀªÀÅUÀ¼À°è

AiÀiÁªÀÅzÀÄ ªÀÄÄPÀÛªÁV ªÀåªÀºÁgÀ ¤ªÀð»¸ÀÄvÀÛzÉ.

(1) f.r.Dgï.

(2) J.r.Dgï.

(3) L.r.Dgï.

(4) ªÉÄð£À J®èªÀÇ

97. F ªÀÄÄA¢£ÀªÀÅUÀ¼À°è AiÀiÁªÀÅzÀÄ eÁUÀwPÀ

¨ÁåAPï JAzÀÄ ¥ÀjUÀt¸À¯ÁVzÉ :

(1) L.JªÀiï.J¥sï.

(2) L.©.Dgï.r.

(3) qÀ§Æèöå.n.M.

(4) AiÀÄÄ.J£ï.¹.n.J.r.

98. ¨sÁgÀvÀzÀ°è ªÁ¸ÀÛªÀªÁV ªÀÄÄåZÀĪÀ¯ï ¥sÀAqï£À ªÀÄÆ® ¤¢ü PÀÄjvÀÄ ªÀåªÀºÀj¸ÀĪÀ PÀA¥À¤AiÀÄ£ÀÄß F ªÀÄÄA¢£ÀAvÉ PÀgÉAiÀįÁUÀĪÀÅzÀÄ?

(1) ¥ÁæAiÉÆÃdPÀ PÀA¥À¤

(2) læ¹Ö PÀA¥À¤

(3) D¹Û ¤ªÀðºÀuÁ PÀA¥À¤

(4) ªÀÄÆåZÀĪÀ¯ï ¤¢ü PÀA¥À¤

99. JA.J£ï.¹. UÀ¼À §UÉÎ EgÀĪÀ ¸ÁªÀiÁ£Àå nÃPÉ JAzÀgÉ

(1) JA.J£ï.¹. UÀ¼ÀÄ ¸ÀézÉñÀUÀ¼À°è GzÉÆåÃUÀ

ºÉZÀѼÀªÀ£ÀÄß PÀÄApvÀUÉƽ¸ÀÄvÀÛªÉ

(2) C©üªÀȢݲî gÁµÀÖçUÀ¼À°è CªÀÅUÀ¼ÀÄ

PÀrªÉÄ DzÀåvÉAiÀÄ PÉëÃvÀæzÀ°è §AqÀªÁ¼À

ºÀÆqÀĪÀ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ºÉaÑ£À ¯Á¨sÁA±À

¥ÀqÉAiÀÄĪÀ ªÀ®AiÀÄUÀ¼À£ÀÄß PÀAqÀÄ

»rAiÀÄÄvÀÛªÉ

(3) vÉjUÉ vÀ¦à¸ÀÄvÀÛªÉ

(4) ¨É¯ÉUÀ¼À°è ºÀ¸ÀÛPÉëÃ¥À ªÀiÁqÀÄvÀÛªÉ

100. ªÀåªÀºÁgÀ ¥ÁægÀA¨sÀ ¸ÀA§A¢ü ¥ÀæªÀiÁt¥ÀvÀæªÀ£ÀÄß F ªÀÄÄA¢£ÀªÀgÀÄ ¤ÃqÀĪÀgÀÄ

(1) PÀA¥À¤UÀ¼À jf¸ÁÖçgï

(2) J¸ï.E.©.L.

(3) PÀA¥À¤ PÁ£ÀÆ£ÀÄ ªÀÄAqÀ°

(4) PÀA¥À¤ PÁAiÀÄðzÀ²ð

245 (37 – A )

95. __________ acts as an Apex bank in the

field of industrial finance.

(1) IFCI

(2) ICICI

(3) IDBI

(4) UTI

96. Which one of the following is/are traded

freely in the stock market ?

(1) GDR

(2) ADR

(3) IDR

(4) All of the above

97. Which of the following is also known as

World Bank ?

(1) IMF

(2) IBRD

(3) WTO

(4) UNCTAD

98. In India, the company which actually

deals with the corpus of the Mutual Fund

is called

(1) Sponsor Company

(2) Trustee Company

(3) Asset Management Company

(4) Mutual Fund Company

99. A common criticism against the MNCs is

(1) MNCs retard growth of employment

in the home country

(2) They find to invest in low priority

and high profit sectors in developing

countries

(3) Avoid taxes

(4) Manipulate prices

100. Business commencement certificate is

issued by

(1) The Registrar of Companies

(2) SEBI

(3) The Company Law Board

(4) The Company Secretary

245 (38 – A )

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

245 (39 – A )

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

245 (40 – A )

DO NOT OPEN THIS QUESTION BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

Question Booklet Series

QUESTION BOOKLET

SPECIFIC PAPER

(PAPER II)

Time Allowed : 2 Hours Maximum Marks : 200

INSTRUCTIONS

1. Immediately after the commencement of the Examination, before writing the Question Booklet

Series in the OMR sheet, you should check that this Question Booklet does NOT have any unprinted

or torn or missing pages or questions etc. If so, get it replaced by a complete ‘Question Booklet’ of the

available series.

2. Write and encode clearly the Question Booklet Series A, B, C or D, Subject Code and

Register Number in the appropriate space provided for that purpose in the OMR Answer

Sheet. Also ensure that candidate’s signature and Invigilator’s signature columns are

properly filled in. Please note that it is candidate’s responsibility to fill in and encode

these particulars and any omission/discrepancy will render the OMR Answer Sheet liable

for Rejection.

3. You have to enter your Register Number in the

Question Booklet in the box provided alongside.

DO NOT write anything else on the Question Booklet.

4. This Question Booklet contains 100 questions. Each question contains four responses (answers).

Select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more

than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the most appropriate. In any case,

choose ONLY ONE RESPONSE for each question.

5. All the responses should be marked ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided and ONLY in

Black or Blue Ball Point Pen. See detailed instructions in the OMR Answer Sheet.

6. All questions carry equal marks. Attempt all questions. Every question for which wrong answer has been given by the candidate, 1/4th (0.25) of the marks assigned for that question will be deducted.

7. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Question Booklet at the end. You should not make any

marking on any other part of the Question Booklet.

8. Immediately after the final bell indicating the conclusion of the examination, stop making any

further markings in the Answer Sheet. Be seated till the Answer Sheets are collected and accounted

for by the Invigilator.

9. Questions are printed both in Kannada and English. If any confusion arises in the

Kannada Version, please refer to the English Version of the questions. Please note that in

case of any confusion the English Version of the Question Booklet is final.

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A SUBJECT CODE : 245

Register Number

Use of Mobile Phones, Calculators and other Electronic/Communication gadgets of any kind

is prohibited inside the Examination venue.