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ĐỀ KTCL ÔN THI THPT QUỐC GIA NĂM 2018 Môn: TIẾNG ANH – ĐÊ SỐ 100

Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề

Ho va tên thi sinh:……………………………………………………………………. SBD:…………………………

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined pert differs from the other three in pronuciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1. A. rhinoceros B. biologist C. reserve D. digest Question 2. A. form B. schortcoming C. chore D. sector

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3. A. maximum B. vacancy C. terrorist D. investment Question 4. A. vertical B. contractual C. domestic D. outstanding

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges. Question 5. Two friends Diana and Anne are talking about their upcoming exams.

- Diana: “Our midterm exams will start next Tuesday, are you ready?” - Anne: “__________________” A. I’m half ready. B. God save you. C. Thank you so much. D. Don’t mention it!

Question 6. Mary is talking to her professor in his office. - Mary: “Can you tell me how to find material for my science report, professor?” - Professor: “__________________” A. I like it that you understand. B. Try your best, mary. C. You can borrow books from the library. D. You mean the podcasts from other students?

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the italic word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 7. Today, American Ênglish is particularly influential, due to the USA’s dominance of cinema, television, popular music, trade and teachnology (including the Internet).

A. complete mastery B.overwhelming superiority C. complete control D. profound effect Question 8. Students’ motivation for learning a language increases when they see connections between what they do in the classrooms and what they hope to do with the language in the future.

A. the reason for which someone does something B. the actions that someone takes to deal with something C. the eagerness that someone has to do something D. the excitement with which one is filled when doing something.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the italic word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 9. Language teaching in the United States is based on the idea that the goal of language acquisition is communicative competence.

A. not good at socializing C. unable to understand B. excellent in orating in front of others D. incapable of working with words

Question 10. This new washing machine is not a patch on our old one. These clothes are still dirty. A. to be expensive B. to be strage C. to be broken D. to be better

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questons.

https://tienganhthpt.com/


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Question 11. United States is aimed at develop friendly relations among nations based on respect for the principle of equal rights and self-determination of peoples.

A. develop B. principle C. peoples D. based Question 12. All members shall give the United Nations every assistance in any action it does in accordance with the present Charter.

A. every B. the C. does D. shall Question 13. Cultural diversity is important because most countries, workplaces, and schools increasingly consist of various culture, racial, and ethnic groups. A. increasingly consist B. ethnic groups C. various culture D. most countries

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 14. The police have just found the man and his car________ were swept away during the heavy storm last week. A. that B. which C. whose D. when

Question 15. ________, the more terrible the terrorism will become. A. The more weapons are powerful C. The more powerful weapons are B. The weapons more powerful are D. Weapons are the more powerful

Question 16. We are concerned with the problem of energy resources________ we must also think of our environment. A. despite B. though C. however D. but Question 17. When finding a new house, parents should________ all the conditions for their children’s education and entertainment.

A. take into account B. make calculations of C. get a measure of D. put into effect Question 18. The atmosphere at the meeting was very________ and everyone was on first name terms.

A. formal B. informal C. formality D. informality Question 19. “Mark enjoys having fun by causing trouble. He’s very________ boy.”

A. strong-willed B. mischievous C. obedient D. well-behaved Question 20. Many young people nowadays are prepared to________ getting married to pursue their professional careers.

A. satisfy B. sacrifice C. prefer D. confide Question 21. My boss’s plane________ at 10:15 tomorrow morning, but I cannot pick him up.

A. arrives B. is arriving C. will be arrriving D. arrived Question 22. Jack asked Jil________ interested in any kinds of sports.

A. if she were B. if were she C. if was she D. if she was Question 23. Whenever problems________, we discuss frankly and find solutions quickly.

A. make up B. come up C. put up D. turn up Question 24. Children should be taught that they have to________ everything after they use it.

A. put away B. pick off C. collect up D. catch on Question 25. Vietnamese parents normally do not let their children make a decision________ their own future career. A. in B. of C. on D. for

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 26 to 32.

One of the highest honors for journalists, writers, and musical composers in the Pulitzer Prize. First awarded in 1917, the Pulitzer Prize has been won by Emest Hemingway, Harper Lee, John F. Kennedy, and Rodgers and Hammerstein, among others. As with many famous awards, this prize was named after its founder, Joseph Pulitzer.

Joseph Pulitzer’s story, like that of many immigrants to the United States, is one of hardship, hard work, and triumph. Born in Hungary, Joseph Pulitzer moved to the United States in 1864. He wanted to be a reporter, but he started his American life by fighting in the American Civil War. After the war, Pulitzer worked for the German – language newspaper, the Westliche Post. His skills as a reporter were wonderful, and he soon became a partial owner of the paper.



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In 1878, Pulitzer was able to start a newspaper of his own. Right from the first edition, the newspaper took a controversial approach to news. Pulitzer wanted to appeal to the average reader, so he produced exciting stories of scandal and intrigue. Such an approach is commonplace today, but in Putlizer’s time it was new and different. The approach led to the discovery of many instances of corruption by influential people. Pulitzer’s paper became very famous and is still produced today.

The success of Joseph Pulitzer’s newspaper made him a very wealthy man, so he wanted to give something back to his profession. Throughout his later years, he worked to establish university programs for the teaching of journalism, and he funded numerous scholarships to assist journalism students. Finally, he wanted to leave a legacy that would encourage writers to remember the importance of quality. On his death, he gave two milllion dollars to Columbia University so they could award prizes to great writers.

Question 26. Why does the writer mention “John F. Kennedy” in line 3? A. He was one of the inventors of the famous awards. B. He was one of the winners of the Pulitzer Prize. C. He was one of the people who selected the Pulitzer winners. D. He was in one of the scandals reported on by Joseph Pulitzer.

Question 27. According to the reading passage, why did Joseph Pulitzer invent the Pulitzer Prize? A. to encourage people to remember his name and success. B. to encourage writers to remember the importance of quality. C. to encourage journalism students to achieve their goals. D. to encourage people to appreciate the work of the Pulitzer winners.

Question 28. The word “partial” in the passage is closest in meaning to ______. A. in part only B. brand new C. one and only D. very important

Question 29. According to the reading passage, who receives the Pulitzer Prize? A. Columbia University graduates. B. journalism students. C. noted writers and composers. D. most newspaper reporters.

Question 30. According to the reading nespaper, how did Joseph Pulitzer appeal to the average reader? A. He wrote about famous writers of journalism and literature.

B. He wrote stories about the war. C. He produced his own newspaper. D. He produced exciting stories of scandal and intrigue.

Question 31. Which sentence about Joseph Pulitzer is true according to the reading passage? A. He received a scholarship when he was a university student. B. He was rich even when he was young. C. He was a reporter during the American Civil War. D. He immigrated to the United States from Hungary.

Question 32. Which sentence about the Pulitzer Prize is NOT true according to the reading passage?

A. Joseph Pulitzer was the first writer to win the prize in 1917. B. Winning the prize is the highlight of a writer’s career. C. Joseph Pulitzer left money to award to the prizewinners. D. Receiving the prize is one of the highest honors of writers.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 33 to 37.

Tim Samaras is a storm chaser. His job is to find tornadoes and follow them. When he gets close to a tornado, he puts a special tool (33)_________ a turtle probe on the ground. This tool measures things like a twister’s temperature. Humidity, and wind speed. With this information, Samaras can learn what causes tornadoes to develop. If meteorilogists understand this, they can warn people (34)_________ twisters sooner and save lives.

How does Samaras hunt tornadoes? It’s not easy. First, he has to find one. Tornadoes are too small to see using weather satellites. So Samaras can’t rely on these tools to find a twister. (35)_________, he waits for tornadoes to develop.



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Once Samaras sees a tornado, the chase begins. But a tornado is hard to follow. Some tornadoes change (36)_________ several times – for example, moving east and then west and then east again. When Samaras finally gets near a tornado, her puts the turtle probe on the ground. Being this close to a twister is (37)_________. He must get away quickly. (Source: Reading Explorer)

Question 33. A. called B. known C. made D. meant Question 34. A. with B. about C. at D. for Question 35. A. Rather B. Still C. Instead D. Yet Question 36. A. progression B. movement C. dimension D. direction Question 37. A. terrify B. terrifying C. terrified D. terrifies


Clara Barton became known as “The Angel of the Battlefield” during the American Civial War. Born in Oxford, Massachusetts in 1821, Clara Barton’s interest in helping soldiers on the battlefield began when she was told army stories from her father. Another event that influenced her decision to help soldiers was an accident her brother had. His injuries were cared for by Barton for 2 years. At the time, she was only 11 years old. Barton began teaching school at the age of 15. She taught for 18 years before she moved to Washington, D.C. in 1854.

The civil war broke out 6 years later. Immediately, Barton started was service by helping the soldiers with their needs. At the battle of Bull Run, Clara Barton received permission from the government to take care of the sick and hurt. Barton did this with great empathy and kindness. She acknowledged each soldier as a person. Her endurance and courage on the battlefield were admired by many. When the war ended in 1865, she used 4 years of her life to assist the government in searching for soldiers who were missing during the war.

The search for missing soldiers and years of hard work made her feeble physically. In 1869, her doctors recommended a trip to Europe for a rest. Whle she was on vacation, she became involved with the International Red Cross, an organization set up by the Geneva Convention in 1864. Clara Barton realized that the red Cross would be a big help to the United States. After she returned to the United States, she worked very hard to create an American red Cross. She talked to government leaders and let American people know about the Red Cross. In 1881, the Notional Society of the Red Cross was finally established with its headquarters in Washington, D.C. Clara Barton managed its activities for 23 years.

Barton never let her age stop her from helping people. At the age of 79, she helped flood victims in Galveston, Texas. Barton finally resigned from the Red Cross in 1904. She was 92 years old and had truly earned her titled “The Angel of the Battlefield”.

Question 38. According to paragraph 1, which of the following is true of the young Clara Barton? A. She helped her father when he was a soldier. B. She suffered from an accident when she was 11. C. She helped her brother who hurt in an accident. D. She made a decision to live with her brother for 2 years.

Question 39. The phrase broke out in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to___________. A. extended B. broke down C. closed D. began

Question 40. The word this in paragraph 2 refers to___________. A. recognized each soldier as a person B. cooked for soldiers C. took care of the sick and hurt D. received permission

Question 41. The word acknowledged in paragraph 2 could best be replaced by___________. A. nursed B. recognized C. pleaded D. believed

Question 42. What can be inferred about the government? A. It did not always agree with Clara Barton. B. It did not have the money to hep Clara Barton.



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C. It showed Clara Barton great empathy and kindness. D. It had respect for Clara Barton.

Question 43. What does the author mention about the American Red Cross? A. It was disapproved again and again by the Geneva Convention. B. Barton tried to have it set up in America. C. The American people were not interested in the Red Cross. D. It was first established in the United States.

Question 44. What is the main idea of the passage? A. Clara Barton helped wounded soldiers and she was the founder of the Red Cross. B. Clara Barton was a kind and strong woman who helped people in need. C. Clara Barton became a nurse during the American Civil War. D. Clara Barton worked for disaster victims until she was old.

Question 45. What can be the best title of the reading passage? A. The angel of the Battlefield B. The American Red Cross C. The American Civil War D. The International Red Cross

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 46. “What are you going to do with such a long list of books, Dane?” asked Sarah

A. Sarah was curious why Dane had such a long list of books. B. Sarah asked Dane what he was going to do with such a long list of books. C. Sarah could not understand why dane was borrowing such a long list of books. D. Sarah warned Dane not to borrow such a long list of books.

Question 47. “Are you going to the cinema with us tonight, Susan ?” asked her friends A. Susan’s friends asked her whether she went to the cinema with them that night. B. Susan’s friends asked her if she was going to the cinema with them that night. C. Susan’s friends would like to invite her to go to the cinema with them that night. D. Susan’s friends would rather her went to the cinema with them that night.

Question 48. The Internet has enabled most people to get contact in a matter of moments. A. Most people have been able to get in contact by the Internet in a matter of moments. B. Most people have got in contact as enabled in a matter of moments by the Internet. C. On the Internet, most people are able to get in contact in a matter of moments. D. On the Internet, most people can find their contacts in a matter of moments.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 49. The teacher has done his best to help all students. However, none of them made any effort on their part.

A. The teacher has done his best to help all students, then, none of them made any effort on their part. B. Although the teacher has done his best to help all students, none of them made any effort on their part. C. Because the teacher has done his best to help all students, none of them made any effort on their part. D. If the teacher has done his best to help all students, none of them made any effort on their part.

Question 50. “Finish your work. And then you can go home.” A. “You can’t go home until you finish your work.” B. “You finish your work to go home as early as you can.” C. “When you go home, finish your work then.” D. “Because you have finished your work, you can go home.”

______THE END______



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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined pert differs from the other three in pronuciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1. A. rhinoceros B. biologist C. reserve D. digest Question 2. A. form B. schortcoming C. chore D. sector


Question 3. A. maximum B. vacancy C. terrorist D. investment Question 4. A. vertical B. contractual C. domestic D. outstanding

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges. Question 5. Two friends Diana and Anne are talking about their upcoming exams.

- Diana: “Our midterm exams will start next Tuesday, are you ready?” - Anne: “__________________” A. I’m half ready. B. God save you. C. Thank you so much. D. Don’t mention it!

Question 6. Mary is talking to her professor in his office. - Mary: “Can you tell me how to find material for my science report, professor?” - Professor: “__________________” A. I like it that you understand. B. Try your best, mary. C. You can borrow books from the library. D. You mean the podcasts from other students?

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the italic word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 7. Today, American Ênglish is particularly influential, due to the USA’s dominance of cinema, television, popular music, trade and teachnology (including the Internet).

A. complete mastery B.overwhelming superiority C. complete control D. profound effect Question 8. Students’ motivation for learning a language increases when they see connections between what they do in the classrooms and what they hope to do with the language in the future.

A. the reason for which someone does something B. the actions that someone takes to deal with something C. the eagerness that someone has to do something D. the excitement with which one is filled when doing something.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the italic word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 9. Language teaching in the United States is based on the idea that the goal of language acquisition is communicative competence.

A. not good at socializing C. unable to understand B. excellent in orating in front of others D. incapable of working with words

Question 10. This new washing machine is not a patch on our old one. These clothes are still dirty. A. to be expensive B. to be strage C. to be broken D. to be better

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questons. Question 11. United States is aimed at develop friendly relations among nations based on respect for the principle of equal rights and self-determination of peoples.

A. develop B. principle C. peoples D. based



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Question 12. All members shall give the United Nations every assistance in any action it does in accordance with the present Charter.

A. every B. the C. does D. shall Question 13. Cultural diversity is important because most countries, workplaces, and schools increasingly consist of various culture, racial, and ethnic groups. A. increasingly consist B. ethnic groups C. various culture D. most countries

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 14. The police have just found the man and his car________ were swept away during the heavy storm last week. A. that B. which C. whose D. when

Question 15. ________, the more terrible the terrorism will become. A. The more weapons are powerful C. The more powerful weapons are B. The weapons more powerful are D. Weapons are the more powerful

Question 16. We are concerned with the problem of energy resources________ we must also think of our environment. A. despite B. though C. however D. but Question 17. When finding a new house, parents should________ all the conditions for their children’s education and entertainment.

A. take into account B. make calculations of C. get a measure of D. put into effect Question 18. The atmosphere at the meeting was very________ and everyone was on first name terms.

A. formal B. informal C. formality D. informality Question 19. “Mark enjoys having fun by causing trouble. He’s very________ boy.”

A. strong-willed B. mischievous C. obedient D. well-behaved Question 20. Many young people nowadays are prepared to________ getting married to pursue their professional careers.

A. satisfy B. sacrifice C. prefer D. confide Question 21. My boss’s plane________ at 10:15 tomorrow morning, but I cannot pick him up.

A. arrives B. is arriving C. will be arrriving D. arrived Question 22. Jack asked Jil________ interested in any kinds of sports.

A. if she were B. if were she C. if was she D. if she was Question 23. Whenever problems________, we discuss frankly and find solutions quickly.

A. make up B. come up C. put up D. turn up Question 24. Children should be taught that they have to________ everything after they use it.

A. put away B. pick off C. collect up D. catch on Question 25. Vietnamese parents normally do not let their children make a decision________ their own future career. A. in B. of C. on D. for


One of the highest honors for journalists, writers, and musical composers in the Pulitzer Prize. First awarded in 1917, the Pulitzer Prize has been won by Emest Hemingway, Harper Lee, John F. Kennedy, and Rodgers and Hammerstein, among others. As with many famous awards, this prize was named after its founder, Joseph Pulitzer.

Joseph Pulitzer’s story, like that of many immigrants to the United States, is one of hardship, hard work, and triumph. Born in Hungary, Joseph Pulitzer moved to the United States in 1864. He wanted to be a reporter, but he started his American life by fighting in the American Civil War. After the war, Pulitzer worked for the German – language newspaper, the Westliche Post. His skills as a reporter were wonderful, and he soon became a partial owner of the paper.

In 1878, Pulitzer was able to start a newspaper of his own. Right from the first edition, the newspaper took a controversial approach to news. Pulitzer wanted to appeal to the average reader, so he produced exciting stories of scandal and intrigue. Such an approach is commonplace today,



8

but in Putlizer’s time it was new and different. The approach led to the discovery of many instances of corruption by influential people. Pulitzer’s paper became very famous and is still produced today.

The success of Joseph Pulitzer’s newspaper made him a very wealthy man, so he wanted to give something back to his profession. Throughout his later years, he worked to establish university programs for the teaching of journalism, and he funded numerous scholarships to assist journalism students. Finally, he wanted to leave a legacy that would encourage writers to remember the importance of quality. On his death, he gave two milllion dollars to Columbia University so they could award prizes to great writers.

Question 26. Why does the writer mention “John F. Kennedy” in line 3? A. He was one of the inventors of the famous awards. B. He was one of the winners of the Pulitzer Prize. C. He was one of the people who selected the Pulitzer winners. D. He was in one of the scandals reported on by Joseph Pulitzer.

Question 27. According to the reading passage, why did Joseph Pulitzer invent the Pulitzer Prize? A. to encourage people to remember his name and success. B. to encourage writers to remember the importance of quality. C. to encourage journalism students to achieve their goals. D. to encourage people to appreciate the work of the Pulitzer winners.

Question 28. The word “partial” in the passage is closest in meaning to ______. A. in part only B. brand new C. one and only D. very important

Question 29. According to the reading passage, who receives the Pulitzer Prize? A. Columbia University graduates. B. journalism students. C. noted writers and composers. D. most newspaper reporters.

Question 30. According to the reading nespaper, how did Joseph Pulitzer appeal to the average reader? A. He wrote about famous writers of journalism and literature.

B. He wrote stories about the war. C. He produced his own newspaper. D. He produced exciting stories of scandal and intrigue.

Question 31. Which sentence about Joseph Pulitzer is true according to the reading passage? A. He received a scholarship when he was a university student. B. He was rich even when he was young. C. He was a reporter during the American Civil War. D. He immigrated to the United States from Hungary.

Question 32. Which sentence about the Pulitzer Prize is NOT true according to the reading passage?

A. Joseph Pulitzer was the first writer to win the prize in 1917. B. Winning the prize is the highlight of a writer’s career. C. Joseph Pulitzer left money to award to the prizewinners. D. Receiving the prize is one of the highest honors of writers.


Tim Samaras is a storm chaser. His job is to find tornadoes and follow them. When he gets close to a tornado, he puts a special tool (33)_________ a turtle probe on the ground. This tool measures things like a twister’s temperature. Humidity, and wind speed. With this information, Samaras can learn what causes tornadoes to develop. If meteorilogists understand this, they can warn people (34)_________ twisters sooner and save lives.

How does Samaras hunt tornadoes? It’s not easy. First, he has to find one. Tornadoes are too small to see using weather satellites. So Samaras can’t rely on these tools to find a twister. (35)_________, he waits for tornadoes to develop.

Once Samaras sees a tornado, the chase begins. But a tornado is hard to follow. Some tornadoes change (36)_________ several times – for example, moving east and then west and then east again. When Samaras finally gets near a tornado, her puts the turtle probe on the ground. Being



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this close to a twister is (37)_________. He must get away quickly. (Source: Reading Explorer)

Question 33. A. called B. known C. made D. meant Question 34. A. with B. about C. at D. for Question 35. A. Rather B. Still C. Instead D. Yet Question 36. A. progression B. movement C. dimension D. direction Question 37. A. terrify B. terrifying C. terrified D. terrifies


Clara Barton became known as “The Angel of the Battlefield” during the American Civial War. Born in Oxford, Massachusetts in 1821, Clara Barton’s interest in helping soldiers on the battlefield began when she was told army stories from her father. Another event that influenced her decision to help soldiers was an accident her brother had. His injuries were cared for by Barton for 2 years. At the time, she was only 11 years old. Barton began teaching school at the age of 15. She taught for 18 years before she moved to Washington, D.C. in 1854.

The civil war broke out 6 years later. Immediately, Barton started was service by helping the soldiers with their needs. At the battle of Bull Run, Clara Barton received permission from the government to take care of the sick and hurt. Barton did this with great empathy and kindness. She acknowledged each soldier as a person. Her endurance and courage on the battlefield were admired by many. When the war ended in 1865, she used 4 years of her life to assist the government in searching for soldiers who were missing during the war.

The search for missing soldiers and years of hard work made her feeble physically. In 1869, her doctors recommended a trip to Europe for a rest. Whle she was on vacation, she became involved with the International Red Cross, an organization set up by the Geneva Convention in 1864. Clara Barton realized that the red Cross would be a big help to the United States. After she returned to the United States, she worked very hard to create an American red Cross. She talked to government leaders and let American people know about the Red Cross. In 1881, the Notional Society of the Red Cross was finally established with its headquarters in Washington, D.C. Clara Barton managed its activities for 23 years.

Barton never let her age stop her from helping people. At the age of 79, she helped flood victims in Galveston, Texas. Barton finally resigned from the Red Cross in 1904. She was 92 years old and had truly earned her titled “The Angel of the Battlefield”.

Question 38. According to paragraph 1, which of the following is true of the young Clara Barton? A. She helped her father when he was a soldier. B. She suffered from an accident when she was 11. C. She helped her brother who hurt in an accident. D. She made a decision to live with her brother for 2 years.

Question 39. The phrase broke out in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to___________. A. extended B. broke down C. closed D. began

Question 40. The word this in paragraph 2 refers to___________. A. recognized each soldier as a person B. cooked for soldiers C. took care of the sick and hurt D. received permission

Question 41. The word acknowledged in paragraph 2 could best be replaced by___________. A. nursed B. recognized C. pleaded D. believed

Question 42. What can be inferred about the government? A. It did not always agree with Clara Barton. B. It did not have the money to hep Clara Barton. C. It showed Clara Barton great empathy and kindness. D. It had respect for Clara Barton.

Question 43. What does the author mention about the American Red Cross?



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A. It was disapproved again and again by the Geneva Convention. B. Barton tried to have it set up in America. C. The American people were not interested in the Red Cross. D. It was first established in the United States.

Question 44. What is the main idea of the passage? A. Clara Barton helped wounded soldiers and she was the founder of the Red Cross. B. Clara Barton was a kind and strong woman who helped people in need. C. Clara Barton became a nurse during the American Civil War. D. Clara Barton worked for disaster victims until she was old.

Question 45. What can be the best title of the reading passage? A. The angel of the Battlefield B. The American Red Cross C. The American Civil War D. The International Red Cross

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 46. “What are you going to do with such a long list of books, Dane?” asked Sarah

A. Sarah was curious why Dane had such a long list of books. B. Sarah asked Dane what he was going to do with such a long list of books. C. Sarah could not understand why dane was borrowing such a long list of books. D. Sarah warned Dane not to borrow such a long list of books.

Question 47. “Are you going to the cinema with us tonight, Susan ?” asked her friends A. Susan’s friends asked her whether she went to the cinema with them that night. B. Susan’s friends asked her if she was going to the cinema with them that night. C. Susan’s friends would like to invite her to go to the cinema with them that night. D. Susan’s friends would rather her went to the cinema with them that night.

Question 48. The Internet has enabled most people to get contact in a matter of moments. A. Most people have been able to get in contact by the Internet in a matter of moments. B. Most people have got in contact as enabled in a matter of moments by the Internet. C. On the Internet, most people are able to get in contact in a matter of moments. D. On the Internet, most people can find their contacts in a matter of moments.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 49. The teacher has done his best to help all students. However, none of them made any effort on their part.

A. The teacher has done his best to help all students, then, none of them made any effort on their part. B. Although the teacher has done his best to help all students, none of them made any effort on their part. C. Because the teacher has done his best to help all students, none of them made any effort on their part. D. If the teacher has done his best to help all students, none of them made any effort on their part.

Question 50. “Finish your work. And then you can go home.” A. “You can’t go home until you finish your work.” B. “You finish your work to go home as early as you can.” C. “When you go home, finish your work then.” D. “Because you have finished your work, you can go home.”

______THE END______







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Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently. Question 1. A. booked B. missed C. described D. pronounced

Question 2. A. allow B. tomorrow C. slowly D. below

Choose the word which is stressed differently from the rest. Question 3. A. summary B. different C. physical D. decision Question 4. A. attractiveness B. traditional C. generation D. American

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges. Question 5. Two friends Peter and Linda are talking about pet.

- Peter: “Well, cats are very good at catching mice around the house.” - Linda: “__________________”

A. Nothing more to say. B. You can say that again. C. Yes, I hope so. D. No, dogs are very good, too.

Question 6. David is talking about Mr. West’s early retirement. - David: “Mr. West is going to retire next month.” - Kathy: “__________________”

A. Oh, I have no idea. B. You don’t say!

C. Right, you’d probably be the next. D. Congratulations!

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the italic word(s). Question 7. Southeast Asia is a region of diverse cultures.

A. like B. same C. various D. respected Question 8. Many scientists agree that global warming poses great threats to all species on Earth.

A. irritations B. annoyances C. fears D. risks

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s). Question 9. In some countries, the disease burden could be prevented through environmental improvements. A. something to entertain B. something sad

C. something enjoyable D. something to suffer Question 10. Population growth rates vary among regions and even among countries within the same region. A. fluctuate B. stay unchanged C. restrain D. remain unstable

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to show the underlined part that needs correction. Question 11. Are Vietnamese children allowed to join their parents in making family choose?

A. Vietnamese children B. to join C. in making D. family choose

Question 12. The assumption that smoking has bad effects on our health have been proved. A. that B. effects C. on D.have been proved

Question 13. Thousands of years ago, the Sahara had water enough so that people and animals were able to survive on the edge of the desert.

A. Thousands of years B. water enough C. were able to D. the desert

Choose from the four options given one best answer to complete each sentence. Question 14. John and I_________ at the same school, and we_________ great friends ever since.

A. studied/ were B. studied/ have been C. have studied/ were D. have studied/ have been Question 15. The players’ protests_________ no difference to the referee’s decision at all. A. did B. made C. caused D. created Question 16. His parents object strongly_________ his playing too much computer games A. at B. to C. in D. against Question 17. In spite of her abilities, Laura has been_________ overlooked for promotion. A. repetitive B. repeatedly C. repetition D. repeat



12

Question 18. Do you know the boy_________ father is a teacher? A. that B. whom C. whose D. which Question 19. _________ ten minutes earlier, you would have got a better seat.

A. Had you arrived B. If you arrived C. Were you arrived D. If you hadn’t arrived Question 20. Children with visual impairments at regular schools still find it_________ in all school activities. A. hard to take part B. to take hard part C. to hard take part D. to take part hard Question 21. He has really worked hard so far, _________ he? A. does B. has C. doesn’t D. hasn’t Question 22. He often tells the children_________ when they play water sports. A. be careful B. not be careless C. to be careful D. to be careful with Question 23. Unfortunately, the company closed down because it couldn’t keep_________ with rapidly changing technology

A. speed B. fast C. time D. pace Question 24. In a formal interview, it is essential to maintain good eye______ with the interviewers.

A. touch B. link C. contact D. connection Question 25. Mary caught her friend_________ her diary yesterday.

A. reading B. to read C. to reading D. has read

Read the passage and then choose the best answer. Ever since humans inhabited the earth, they have made use of various forms of communication. Generally, this expression of thoughts and feelings has been in the form of oral speech. When there is a language barrier, communication is accomplished through sign language in which motions stand for letters, words, and ideas. Tourists, the deaf, and the mute have had to resort to this form of expression. Many of these symbols of whole words are very picturesque and exact and can be used internationally; spelling, however, cannot. Body language transmits ideas or thoughts by certain actions, either intentionally or unintentionally. A wink can be a way of flirting or indicating that the party is only joking. A nod signifies approval, while shaking the head indicates a negative reaction. Other forms of nonlinguistic language can be found in Braille (a system of raised dots read with the fingertips), signal flags, Morse code, and smoke signals. Road maps and picture signs also guide, warn, and instruct people. While verbalization is the most common form of language, other systems and techniques also express human thoughts and feelings.

Question 26. The word "these" in paragraph1 refers to________. A. tourists B. the deaf and the mute C. thoughts and feelings D. sign language motions

Question 27. All of the following statements are true EXCEPT________. A. there are many forms of communication in existence today B. verbalization is the most common form of communication C. the deaf and mute use an oral form of communication D. ideas and thoughts can be transmitted by body language

Question 28. Which form other than oral speech would be most commonly used among blind people? A. Picture signs B. Braille C. Body language D. Signal flags Question 29. The word "wink" in paragraph 2 means most nearly the same as________. A. close one eye briefly B. close two eyes briefly C. bob the head up and down D. shake the head from side to side Question 30. Sign language is said to be very picturesque and exact and can be used internationally EXCEPT for________. A. spelling B. ideas C. whole words D. expressions Question 31. People need to communicate in order to________.

A. create language barriers B. keep from reading with their fingertips C. be picturesque and exact D. express thoughts and feelings

Question 32. What is the best title for the passage?



13

A. The Important of Sign Language B. The Many Forms of Communication C. Ways of Expressing Feelings D. Picturesque Symbols of Communication

Read the passage and then choose the best answer to complete it. What would happen (33)_________ there were a serious nuclear accident? And an accident

must be inevitable - sooner or (34)_________. Huge areas would be evacuated, and they could (35)_________ contaminated with radioactivity for years. If it happened in your (36)_________, you wouldn't get a penny in compensation. No insurance company ciovers nuclear risks. There are accidents. If the nuclear industry didn't keep them (37)_________, there would be a public outcry. Radioactivity causes cancer and may affect future generations. Next, nuclear waste. There is no technology for absolutely safe disposal. Some of this waste will remain active for thousands of years. Is that what you want to leave to your children? And their children's children? A reactor only lasts about 25 years. By the year 2000 we'll have 'retired' 26 reactors in the UK.{ inevitable: sure to happen, evacuate: empty, compensation: sự bồi thường, cover: protect}

Question 33. A. unless B. if C. otherwise D. when Question 34. A. better B. earlier C. later D. worse Question 35. A. remain B. maintain C. develop D. happen Question 36. A. career B. environment C. compartment D. area Question 37. A. quietly B. quite C. quiet D. hardly

Read the passage and then choose the best answer. THE GOLDEN GATE BRIDGE

The golden Gate Bridge is one of the symbols of the United States of AmericA. It is located in San Francisco, California, and spans the Golden Gate strait-a mile wide strait that connects the Pacific Ocean to the San francisco Bay. It is sure one of the most beautiful bridges in the world, and also one of the tallest (the height of a bridge is the height of the towers ). The bridge as it is today was designed by architects Irving and Gertrude Morrow. However thier art deco project was not the first Golden Gate Bridge. The original plans for the bridge were drawn in 1961, but they were of a very complicated and ugly structure, certainly not something could be ever proud of. The bridge was a true experiment in its time, such a long suspension bridge had never been tried before. It had the hightest towers, the thickest cables and the largest underwater foundations ever built. The foundations were a real problem, because they had to be cast in a depth of more than 100 feet. Extreme depth wasn't the sole problem. The real challenge lay in the sinking of the piers in the violent waves of the open sea, which was thought to be almost impossible the construction began in 1933 and was finished in 1937,when the bridge opened to pedestrians. ( It was opened to cars one years later ). The bridge was finished ahead of schedule and cost much less than was estimated.Today the Golden Gate Bridge has a main span of 4,200 feet ( almost a mile ) and a total length of 8,981 feet. The towers supporting the huge cables rise 746 feet above the water. Each steel cable is 7,650 long and has a diameter of 36 inches. ''International orange '' is the color the bridge has always been painteD. The architects chose it because it blends well with the span's natural setting. However, if the Navy had had its way, the bridge would have been painted black with yellow stripes-in favor of greater visibility for passing ships. There are fog horns to let passing ships know where the bridge is, and aircraf beacon on the tops of the towers to prevent planes from crashing into them. The Golden Gate Bridge is the first sight for many people approaching the United States by boat. It is almost the West Coast's '' Stautue of Liberty'' and is something everyone should at least once.

Question 38. The Golden Gate Bridge________. A.spans the San Francisco B. is the best-known symbol of the United States C. spans the Golden Gate Strait D. is painted gold has a gold -plated at each end. Question 39. The first plans of the bridge________.



14

A.were designed by Irving and Gertrude Morrow in 1916 B. were designed by Irving Morrow but were too complicated C. were something America could be proud of D. were not designed in art deco style. Question 40. The construction of the foundations was very complicated because________. A. it was thought to be almost impossible B. the piers had to be sunk in the open sea through of violent waves C. They had to be the largest ones ever built. D. They had to be cast by teams of divers, which was very expensive Question 41. Which one is true? A. The construction of the Golden Gate Bridge took four years. B. The bridge was opened to car traffic in 1939. C. People were allowed to cross the bridge in 1939 D. The construction began exactly seventeen years after the first plans were made. Question 42. Which one is not true about the position of the Golden Gate Bridge? A. It is located on the West Coast. B. It connects the San Francisco Bay to The Golden Gate Bridge C. It is quite near the '' Statue of Liberty'' D. It is off the Pacific Ocean. Question 43. The word ''cast'' is closest in meaning to________. A. measured B. exposed C. expanded D. thrown Question 44. What is not true about the Golden Gate Bridge? A. The towers supporting the huge cables rise 746 feet B. The first was first painted black with yellow stripes C. If you travel by boat, it may be the first sight you see D. The bridge had been expected to cost more than it really was Question 45. How can passing ships know where the bridge is? A. due to the color decided by the Navy

B. because there are beacons on the top of the tower C. because the bridge is international orange D. thanks to the fog horns.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to the sentence given in each of the following questions. Question 46. Lien last visited a centre for children with cognitive impairments two weeks ago.

A. Lien hasn't visited a centre for children with cognitive impairments for two weeks. B. It's two weeks when Lien visited a centre for children with cognitive impairments. C. Lien visited a centre for children with cognitive impairments for two weeks. D. This is the last time Lien visited a centre for children with cognitive impairments.

Question 47. Kate works for an organization which collects money to help orphans. A. The organization which Kate works for collects money to help orphans. B. The organization where Kate works for collects money to help orphans. C. The organization for that Kate works collects money to help orphans. D. Money of orphans is collected in the organization where Kate works.

Question 48. “When the bell rings take the meat out of the oven,” my sister said. A. My sister warned me against taking the meat out of the oven when the bell rang. B. My sister said that when the bell rang I was to take the meat out of the oven. C. My sister suggested that I should take the meat out of the oven when the bell rang. D. My sister asked me that when the bell rang to take the meat out of the oven.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best joins each of the following pairs. Question 49. The holiday was so expensive. We could only afford five days.

A. It was such an expensive holiday that we could only afford five days. B. The holiday was dirt cheap, so we could afford more than five days.

C. So expensive was a five-day holiday that we could hardly afford it. D. A five-day holiday wasn’t cheap, so we couldn’t afford it.



15

Question 50. The basketball team knew they lost the match. They soon started to blame each other. A. As soon as they blamed each other, the basketball team knew they lost the match.

B. No sooner had the basketball team started than they knew they lost the match. C. Not only did the basketball team lose the match but they blamed each other as well. D. Hardly had the basketball team known they lost the match when they started to blame each other.

______THE END______






Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently. Question 1. A. booked B. missed C. described D. pronounced

Question 2. A. allow B. tomorrow C. slowly D. below

Choose the word which is stressed differently from the rest. Question 3. A. summary B. different C. physical D. decision Question 4. A. attractiveness B. traditional C. generation D. American

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges. Question 5. Two friends Peter and Linda are talking about pet.

- Peter: “Well, cats are very good at catching mice around the house.” - Linda: “__________________”

A. Nothing more to say. B. You can say that again. C. Yes, I hope so. D. No, dogs are very good, too.

Question 6. David is talking about Mr. West’s early retirement. - David: “Mr. West is going to retire next month.” - Kathy: “__________________”

A. Oh, I have no idea. B. You don’t say! C. Right, you’d probably be the next. D. Congratulations!

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the italic word(s). Question 7. Southeast Asia is a region of diverse cultures.

A. like B. same C. various D. respected Question 8. Many scientists agree that global warming poses great threats to all species on Earth.

A. irritations B. annoyances C. fears D. risks

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s). Question 9. In some countries, the disease burden could be prevented through environmental improvements. A. something to entertain B. something sad

C. something enjoyable D. something to suffer Question 10. Population growth rates vary among regions and even among countries within the same region. A. fluctuate B. stay unchanged C. restrain D. remain unstable

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to show the underlined part that needs correction. Question 11. Are Vietnamese children allowed to join their parents in making family choose?

A. Vietnamese children B. to join C. in making D. family choose

Question 12. The assumption that smoking has bad effects on our health have been proved. A. that B. effects C. on D.have been proved

Question 13. Thousands of years ago, the Sahara had water enough so that people and animals were able to survive on the edge of the desert.



16

A. Thousands of years B. water enough C. were able to D. the desert

Choose from the four options given one best answer to complete each sentence. Question 14. John and I_________ at the same school, and we_________ great friends ever since.

A. studied/ were B. studied/ have been C. have studied/ were D. have studied/ have been Question 15. The players’ protests_________ no difference to the referee’s decision at all. A. did B. made C. caused D. created Question 16. His parents object strongly_________ his playing too much computer games A. at B. to C. in D. against Question 17. In spite of her abilities, Laura has been_________ overlooked for promotion. A. repetitive B. repeatedly C. repetition D. repeat Question 18. Do you know the boy_________ father is a teacher? A. that B. whom C. whose D. which Question 19. _________ ten minutes earlier, you would have got a better seat.

A. Had you arrived B. If you arrived C. Were you arrived D. If you hadn’t arrived Question 20. Children with visual impairments at regular schools still find it_________ in all school activities. A. hard to take part B. to take hard part C. to hard take part D. to take part hard Question 21. He has really worked hard so far, _________ he? A. does B. has C. doesn’t D. hasn’t Question 22. He often tells the children_________ when they play water sports. A. be careful B. not be careless C. to be careful D. to be careful with Question 23. Unfortunately, the company closed down because it couldn’t keep_________ with rapidly changing technology

A. speed B. fast C. time D. pace Question 24. In a formal interview, it is essential to maintain good eye______ with the interviewers.

A. touch B. link C. contact D. connection Question 25. Mary caught her friend_________ her diary yesterday.

A. reading B. to read C. to reading D. has read

Read the passage and then choose the best answer. Ever since humans inhabited the earth, they have made use of various forms of communication. Generally, this expression of thoughts and feelings has been in the form of oral speech. When there is a language barrier, communication is accomplished through sign language in which motions stand for letters, words, and ideas. Tourists, the deaf, and the mute have had to resort to this form of expression. Many of these symbols of whole words are very picturesque and exact and can be used internationally; spelling, however, cannot. Body language transmits ideas or thoughts by certain actions, either intentionally or unintentionally. A wink can be a way of flirting or indicating that the party is only joking. A nod signifies approval, while shaking the head indicates a negative reaction. Other forms of nonlinguistic language can be found in Braille (a system of raised dots read with the fingertips), signal flags, Morse code, and smoke signals. Road maps and picture signs also guide, warn, and instruct people. While verbalization is the most common form of language, other systems and techniques also express human thoughts and feelings.

Question 26. The word "these" in paragraph1 refers to________. A. tourists B. the deaf and the mute C. thoughts and feelings D. sign language motions

Question 27. All of the following statements are true EXCEPT________. A. there are many forms of communication in existence today B. verbalization is the most common form of communication C. the deaf and mute use an oral form of communication D. ideas and thoughts can be transmitted by body language



17

Question 28. Which form other than oral speech would be most commonly used among blind people? A. Picture signs B. Braille C. Body language D. Signal flags Question 29. The word "wink" in paragraph 2 means most nearly the same as________. A. close one eye briefly B. close two eyes briefly C. bob the head up and down D. shake the head from side to side Question 30. Sign language is said to be very picturesque and exact and can be used internationally EXCEPT for________. A. spelling B. ideas C. whole words D. expressions Question 31. People need to communicate in order to________.

A. create language barriers B. keep from reading with their fingertips C. be picturesque and exact D. express thoughts and feelings

Question 32. What is the best title for the passage? A. The Important of Sign Language B. The Many Forms of Communication C. Ways of Expressing Feelings D. Picturesque Symbols of Communication

Read the passage and then choose the best answer to complete it. What would happen (33)_________ there were a serious nuclear accident? And an accident

must be inevitable - sooner or (34)_________. Huge areas would be evacuated, and they could (35)_________ contaminated with radioactivity for years. If it happened in your (36)_________, you wouldn't get a penny in compensation. No insurance company ciovers nuclear risks. There are accidents. If the nuclear industry didn't keep them (37)_________, there would be a public outcry. Radioactivity causes cancer and may affect future generations. Next, nuclear waste. There is no technology for absolutely safe disposal. Some of this waste will remain active for thousands of years. Is that what you want to leave to your children? And their children's children? A reactor only lasts about 25 years. By the year 2000 we'll have 'retired' 26 reactors in the UK.{ inevitable: sure to happen, evacuate: empty, compensation: sự bồi thường, cover: protect}

Question 33. A. unless B. if C. otherwise D. when Question 34. A. better B. earlier C. later D. worse Question 35. A. remain B. maintain C. develop D. happen Question 36. A. career B. environment C. compartment D. area Question 37. A. quietly B. quite C. quiet D. hardly

Read the passage and then choose the best answer. THE GOLDEN GATE BRIDGE

The golden Gate Bridge is one of the symbols of the United States of AmericA. It is located in San Francisco, California, and spans the Golden Gate strait-a mile wide strait that connects the Pacific Ocean to the San francisco Bay. It is sure one of the most beautiful bridges in the world, and also one of the tallest (the height of a bridge is the height of the towers ). The bridge as it is today was designed by architects Irving and Gertrude Morrow. However thier art deco project was not the first Golden Gate Bridge. The original plans for the bridge were drawn in 1961, but they were of a very complicated and ugly structure, certainly not something could be ever proud of. The bridge was a true experiment in its time, such a long suspension bridge had never been tried before. It had the hightest towers, the thickest cables and the largest underwater foundations ever built. The foundations were a real problem, because they had to be cast in a depth of more than 100 feet. Extreme depth wasn't the sole problem. The real challenge lay in the sinking of the piers in the violent waves of the open sea, which was thought to be almost impossible the construction began in 1933 and was finished in 1937,when the bridge opened to pedestrians. ( It was opened to cars one years later ). The bridge was finished ahead of schedule and cost much less than was estimated.Today the Golden Gate Bridge has a main span of 4,200 feet ( almost a mile ) and a total length of 8,981 feet. The towers supporting the huge cables rise 746 feet above the water. Each steel cable is 7,650 long and has a diameter of 36 inches.



18

''International orange '' is the color the bridge has always been painteD. The architects chose it because it blends well with the span's natural setting. However, if the Navy had had its way, the bridge would have been painted black with yellow stripes-in favor of greater visibility for passing ships. There are fog horns to let passing ships know where the bridge is, and aircraf beacon on the tops of the towers to prevent planes from crashing into them. The Golden Gate Bridge is the first sight for many people approaching the United States by boat. It is almost the West Coast's '' Stautue of Liberty'' and is something everyone should at least once.

Question 38. The Golden Gate Bridge________. A.spans the San Francisco B. is the best-known symbol of the United States C. spans the Golden Gate Strait D. is painted gold has a gold -plated at each end. Question 39. The first plans of the bridge________. A.were designed by Irving and Gertrude Morrow in 1916 B. were designed by Irving Morrow but were too complicated C. were something America could be proud of D. were not designed in art deco style. Question 40. The construction of the foundations was very complicated because________. A. it was thought to be almost impossible B. the piers had to be sunk in the open sea through of violent waves C. They had to be the largest ones ever built. D. They had to be cast by teams of divers, which was very expensive Question 41. Which one is true? A. The construction of the Golden Gate Bridge took four years. B. The bridge was opened to car traffic in 1939. C. People were allowed to cross the bridge in 1939 D. The construction began exactly seventeen years after the first plans were made. Question 42. Which one is not true about the position of the Golden Gate Bridge? A. It is located on the West Coast. B. It connects the San Francisco Bay to The Golden Gate Bridge C. It is quite near the '' Statue of Liberty'' D. It is off the Pacific Ocean. Question 43. The word ''cast'' is closest in meaning to________. A. measured B. exposed C. expanded D. thrown Question 44. What is not true about the Golden Gate Bridge? A. The towers supporting the huge cables rise 746 feet B. The first was first painted black with yellow stripes C. If you travel by boat, it may be the first sight you see D. The bridge had been expected to cost more than it really was Question 45. How can passing ships know where the bridge is? A. due to the color decided by the Navy

B. because there are beacons on the top of the tower C. because the bridge is international orange D. thanks to the fog horns.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to the sentence given in each of the following questions. Question 46. Lien last visited a centre for children with cognitive impairments two weeks ago.

A. Lien hasn't visited a centre for children with cognitive impairments for two weeks. B. It's two weeks when Lien visited a centre for children with cognitive impairments. C. Lien visited a centre for children with cognitive impairments for two weeks. D. This is the last time Lien visited a centre for children with cognitive impairments.

Question 47. Kate works for an organization which collects money to help orphans. A. The organization which Kate works for collects money to help orphans. B. The organization where Kate works for collects money to help orphans. C. The organization for that Kate works collects money to help orphans.



19

D. Money of orphans is collected in the organization where Kate works. Question 48. “When the bell rings take the meat out of the oven,” my sister said.

A. My sister warned me against taking the meat out of the oven when the bell rang. B. My sister said that when the bell rang I was to take the meat out of the oven. C. My sister suggested that I should take the meat out of the oven when the bell rang. D. My sister asked me that when the bell rang to take the meat out of the oven.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best joins each of the following pairs. Question 49. The holiday was so expensive. We could only afford five days.

A. It was such an expensive holiday that we could only afford five days. B. The holiday was dirt cheap, so we could afford more than five days. C. So expensive was a five-day holiday that we could hardly afford it. D. A five-day holiday wasn’t cheap, so we couldn’t afford it.

Question 50. The basketball team knew they lost the match. They soon started to blame each other. A. As soon as they blamed each other, the basketball team knew they lost the match.

B. No sooner had the basketball team started than they knew they lost the match. C. Not only did the basketball team lose the match but they blamed each other as well. D. Hardly had the basketball team known they lost the match when they started to blame each other.

______THE END______






Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 1. A: chemistry B: chocolate C: speech D: lunch Question 2. A: book B: foot C: good D: boot

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 3. A: calculation B: economics C: photography D: conservation Question 4. A: industry B: adventure C: consider D: eventual

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the italic word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 5. The old houses were “knocked down” to make way for a new block of flats.

A: pulled apart B: struck through C: demolished D: abolished Question 6. After Mary finishes her “degree” , she intends to work in her father's company.

A: an institution for business studies B: a university or college course C: an amount or level of something D: a unit for measuring angles

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the italic word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 7. Simon admitted that his joke on his girlfriend’s clothes was deliberate.

A: planned B: unintentional C: unknown D: unwanted Question 8. The boy wasn't allowed to have any friends, so he became an introvert.

A: someone who is active and confident, and who enjoys spending time with other people B: someone who is quiet and shy, and does not enjoy being with other people C: someone who believes that good things will never happen to him and other people



20

D: someone who wears funny clothes and does silly things to make people laugh

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 9. Bill is often late for class, which makes his teachers angrily.

A: which B: angrily C: for D: is Question 10. In the end of the party, Mary had to wash the dishes alone again, as usual.

A: as usual B: wash C: In D: alone again Question 11. The oceans, which cover two-thirds of earth’s surface, are the object of study for oceanographers.

A: The oceans B: of earth’s surface C: object D: for

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 12. Instead of buying a new pair of shoes, I had my old ones_______ .

A: repaired B: repairing C: to repair D: repair Question 13. Don’t forget_______ me as soon as you arrive at the airport.

A: called B: call C: calling D: to call Question 14. How_______ homework did the teacher assign?

A: much B: plenty C: little D: many Question 15. Peter has been studying for almost three years and he will have his degree and return to his country in_______ six months.

A: others B: another C: other D: the other Question 16. The director_______ the men to turn to work immediately.

A: ordered B: insisted C: demanded D: suggested Question 17. _______ number of boys were swimming in the lake, but I didn’t know_______ exact number of them.

A: A/the B: A/an C: The/the D: The/an Question 18. During his_______ , he lived with his uncle’s family in the United States.

A: childish B: child C: childlike D: childhood Question 19. I like her, _______ she can be very annoying at times.

A: however B: therefore C: even though D: despite Question 20. He_______ for two weeks. He is trying to give it up.

A: isn’t smoking B: hasn’t smoked C: doesn’t smoke D: didn’t smoked Question 21. He is a_______ boy. He is often kind and helpful to every classmate.

A: lovely B: obedient C: frank D: caring Question 22. Many of pictures_______ from outer space are presently on display in the public library.

A: that sent B: sending C: sent D: to sending Question 23. Do you have_______ minutes? I’d like to ask you some questions.

A: a little B: few C: little D: a few

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges. Question 24. Tom: “Hello, nice to see you again.” Jerry: “____________.”

A: Me too B: I don’t think you are C: Neither am I D: You shouldn’t be so Question 25. Mike: “Would you like a cup of coffee?” Ann: “_____________.”

A: Yes, please B: No, I don’t C: Yes, I do D: No, I don’t like


Mandatory volunteering made many members of Maryland's high school class of 97 grumble with indignation . They didn't like a new requirement that made them take part in the school's community service program.



21

Future seniors, however, probably won't be as resistant now that the program has broken in. Some, like John Maloney, already have completed their required hours of approved community service. The Bowie High School sophomore earned his hours in eighth grade by volunteering two nights a week at the Larkin-Chase Nursing and Restorative Center in Bowie.

He played shuffle board, cards, and other games with the senior citizens. He also helped plan parties for them and visited their rooms to keep them company.

John, fifteen, is not finished volunteering. Once a week he videotapes animals at the Prince George's County animal shelter in Forestville. His footage is shown on the Bowie public access television channel in hopes of finding homes for the animals.

"Volunteering is better than just sitting around," says John, "and I like animals; I don't want to see them put to sleep."

He's not the only volunteer in his family. His sister, Melissa, an eighth grader, has completed her hours also volunteering at Larkin-Chase.

"It is a good idea to have kids go out into the community, but it's frustrating to have to write essays about the works," she said. It makes you feel like you're doing it for the requirement and not for yourself."

The high school's service learning office, run by Beth Ansley, provides information on organizations seeking volunteers so that students will have an easier time fulfilling their hours.

"It's ridiculous that people are opposing the requirements," said Amy Rouse, who this summer has worked at the Ronald McDonald House and has helped to rebuild a church in Clinton.

"So many people won't do the service unless it's mandatory," Rouse said, "but once they start doing it, they'll really like it and hopefully it will become a part of their lives - like it has become a part of mine."

Question 26. The best title of the passage could be________. A: "Students Who Volunteer to Work with Senior Citizens" B: "Students Who Earn Extra Money after School" C: "A Volunteer Program at Bowie High School" D: "The High School Class of 1977"

Question 27. The word "frustrating" in paragraph 7 is closest in meaning to________. A: interesting B: happy C: satisfying D: upset

Question 28. The word "it" in paragraph 7 refers to________. A: completing requirements B: writing essays C: doing volunteer work D: A. going out in the community

Question 29. From paragraphs 6 and 7, we can infer that Melissa Maloney________. A: volunteers because it's a requirement B: is frustrated by her volunteer job C: volunteers because it makes her feel good D: doesn't like to write essays about her volunteer work

Question 30. According to the last two paragraphs, Amy Rouse thinks that________. A: most people don't like volunteering, so they don't want to do it B: most people will discover they enjoy volunteering if they try it C: the volunteer program shouldn't be mandatory D: people should be able to choose whether they want to volunteer

Question 31. Which of the following volunteer activities is NOT mentioned in the passage? A: Videotaping animals in a shelter. B: Rebuilding a church. C: Tutoring children. D: Visiting elderly people.

Question 32. In the passage, the author gives the explanation of the concept of mandatory volunteer programs by________.

A: describing one volunteer program B: classifying different types of volunteer programs C: arguing in favor of volunteer programs D: comparing two volunteer programs




22

By the 1950s many American families owned television sets. During television's first 20 years, deaf people missed most of the fun. They could not hear what was being said and had to (33)________.

Deaf people who watched television liked sports and action shows, but they were disappointed with other programs. If there was a lot of (34)________, deaf viewers couldn't follow the plot. Even the most skilled lip readers could only catch part of the talking. This frustrated many deaf people.

In the late 1960s, a man started experimenting. Malcom Norwood thought that deaf people could enjoy television programs, too. He wanted to develop captions for the programs. Norwood worked for the federal government's Media Services and Captioned Films Division at the Bureau of Education of the Handicapped. Norwood surveyed many hearing Americans. He wanted to see how they felt about seeing captions on the television screen. Too many people were against the (35)________. Norwood realized he had to develop another way of captioning - one that would not bother hearing people.

In October of 1971, Norwood's (36)________ signed a contract with WGBH-TV, a public television station in Boston. WGBH was hired to experiment with captions. They agreed to make a captioned television program for Norwood. That program was made. It was shown on television and at a special convention. The type of captions made by WGBH could be seen on any television. No special equipment was needed. These were called "open captions."

Later, a new machine was invented. This device was made to send signals on a special part of the television picture. The signals could be captions. If a family had another kind of machine in their home or in their TV set, then the captions (or signals) would appear on their television screen. Without the machine, no captions would be seen. That special machine is called a decoder. It receives the signals (37)________ from the television station. Captions that require a decoder are called "closed captions".

Question 33. A: forecast B: find C: guess D: wait Question 34. A: scene B: dialogue C: talk D: conversation Question 35. A: law B: questions C: actors D: idea Question 36. A: students B: channels C: company D: office Question 37. A: moved B: gone C: transmitted D: sent


The mineral particles found in soil range in size from microscopic clay particles to large boulders. The most abundant particles - sand, silt, and clay - are the focus of examination in studies of soil texture. Texture is the term used to describe the line composite sizes of particles in a soil sample, typically several representative handfuls . To measure soil texture, the sand, silt, and clay particles are sorted out by size and weight. The weights of each size are then expressed as a percentage of the sample weight.

In the field, soil texture can be estimated by extracting a handful of sod and squeezing the damp soil into three basic shapes; (1) cast, a lump formed by squeezing a sample in a clenched fist; (2) thread, a pencil shape formed by rolling soil between the palms; and (3) ribbon, a flatfish shape formed by squeezing a small sample between the thumb and index finger. The behavioral characteristics of the soil when molded into each of these shapes, if they can be formed at all, provides the basis for a general textural classification. The behavior of the soil in the hand test is determined by the amount of clay in the sample. Clay particles are highly cohesive, and when dampened, behave as a plastic. Therefore the higher the clay content in a sample, the more refined and durable the shapes into which it can be molded.

Another method of determining soil texture involves the use of devices called sediment sieves, screens built with a specified mesh size. When the soil is filtered through a group of sieves, each with a different mesh size, the particles become grouped in corresponding size categories. Each category can be weighed to make a textural determination. Although sieves work well for silt,



23

sand, and larger particles, they are not appropriate for clay particles. Clay is far too small to sieve accurately; therefore, in soils with a high proportion of clay, the fine particles are measured on the basis of their settling velocity when suspended in water. Since clays settle so slowly, they are easily segregated from sand and silt. The water can be drawn off and evaporated, leaving a residue of clay, which can be weighed.

Question 38. The author mentions "several representative handfuls" in the passage in order to show_________.

A: the range of soil samples B: the requirements for an adequate soil sam C: the process by which soil is weighed D: how small soil particles are

Question 39. It can be inferred that the names of the three basic shapes mentioned in paragraph 2 reflect_________.

A: the way the soil is extracted B: the need to check more than one handful C: the difficulty of forming different shapes D: the results of squeezing the soil

Question 40. The word "dampened" in the passage is closest in meaning to_________. A: damaged B: stretched C: moistened D: examined

Question 41. It can be inferred from the passage that a soil sample with little or no clay in it_________. A: does not have a durable shape B: is not very heavy C: does not have a classifiable texture D: may not hold its shape when molded

Question 42. The word "they" in the passage refers to_________. A: larger particles B: sieves C: categories D: clay particles

Question 43. It can be inferred from the passage that the sediment sieve has an advantage over the hand test in determining soil texture because_________.

A: the sieve allows for a more exact measure B: less training is required to use the sieve C: using the sieve takes less time D: the sieve can measure clay

Question 44. During the procedure described in paragraph 3, when clay particles are placed into water they_________.

A: stick to the sides of the water container B: dissolve quickly C: take some time to sink to the bottom D: separate into different sizes

Question 45. The word "fine" in the passage is closest in meaning to_________. A: many B: excellent C: tiny D: various

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 46. The garage serviced my car last week.

A: I got my car serviced last week. B: My car was to be serviced last week. C: The garage’s service to my car was good. D: Last week I went to the garage by car.

Question 47. The train drivers' strike made it hard for us to get to work. A: We found it difficult to get to work because of the train drivers' strike. B: When the train drivers were having a strike, we could get to work. C: We were unable to get to work when the train drivers' strike happened. D: The train drivers' strike made it impossible for us to get to work.

Question 48. The train should be here any minute now. A: We know that the train is always here on time. B: The train has not arrived here yet. C: The train is known to be here in a minute. D: We are expecting the train to arrive soon.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 49: He is very intelligent. He can solve all the problems in no time. A. So intelligent is he that he can solve all the problems in no time.

B. He is very intelligent that he can solve all the problems in no time. C. An intelligent student is he that he can solve all the problems in no time. D. So intelligent a student is he that he can solve all the problems in no time.



24

Question 50: We cut down many forests. The Earth becomes hot. A. The more forests we cut down, the hotter the Earth becomes.

B. The more we cut down forests, the hotter the Earth becomes. C. The more forests we cut down, the Earth becomes hotter. D. The more we cut down forests, the Earth becomes hotter.

______THE END______






Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 1. A: chemistry B: chocolate C: speech D: lunch Question 2. A: book B: foot C: good D: boot

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 3. A: calculation B: economics C: photography D: conservation Question 4. A: industry B: adventure C: consider D: eventual

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the italic word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 5. The old houses were “knocked down” to make way for a new block of flats.

A: pulled apart B: struck through C: demolished D: abolished Question 6. After Mary finishes her “degree” , she intends to work in her father's company.

A: an institution for business studies B: a university or college course C: an amount or level of something D: a unit for measuring angles

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the italic word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 7. Simon admitted that his joke on his girlfriend’s clothes was deliberate.

A: planned B: unintentional C: unknown D: unwanted Question 8. The boy wasn't allowed to have any friends, so he became an introvert.

A: someone who is active and confident, and who enjoys spending time with other people B: someone who is quiet and shy, and does not enjoy being with other people C: someone who believes that good things will never happen to him and other people D: someone who wears funny clothes and does silly things to make people laugh

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 9. Bill is often late for class, which makes his teachers angrily.

A: which B: angrily C: for D: is Question 10. In the end of the party, Mary had to wash the dishes alone again, as usual.

A: as usual B: wash C: In D: alone again Question 11. The oceans, which cover two-thirds of earth’s surface, are the object of study for oceanographers.

A: The oceans B: of earth’s surface C: object D: for

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 12. Instead of buying a new pair of shoes, I had my old ones_______ .

A: repaired B: repairing C: to repair D: repair



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Question 13. Don’t forget_______ me as soon as you arrive at the airport. A: called B: call C: calling D: to call

Question 14. How_______ homework did the teacher assign? A: much B: plenty C: little D: many

Question 15. Peter has been studying for almost three years and he will have his degree and return to his country in_______ six months.

A: others B: another C: other D: the other Question 16. The director_______ the men to turn to work immediately.

A: ordered B: insisted C: demanded D: suggested Question 17. _______ number of boys were swimming in the lake, but I didn’t know_______ exact number of them.

A: A/the B: A/an C: The/the D: The/an Question 18. During his_______ , he lived with his uncle’s family in the United States.

A: childish B: child C: childlike D: childhood Question 19. I like her, _______ she can be very annoying at times.

A: however B: therefore C: even though D: despite Question 20. He_______ for two weeks. He is trying to give it up.

A: isn’t smoking B: hasn’t smoked C: doesn’t smoke D: didn’t smoked Question 21. He is a_______ boy. He is often kind and helpful to every classmate.

A: lovely B: obedient C: frank D: caring Question 22. Many of pictures_______ from outer space are presently on display in the public library.

A: that sent B: sending C: sent D: to sending Question 23. Do you have_______ minutes? I’d like to ask you some questions.

A: a little B: few C: little D: a few

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges. Question 24. Tom: “Hello, nice to see you again.” Jerry: “____________.”

A: Me too B: I don’t think you are C: Neither am I D: You shouldn’t be so Question 25. Mike: “Would you like a cup of coffee?” Ann: “_____________.”

A: Yes, please B: No, I don’t C: Yes, I do D: No, I don’t like


Mandatory volunteering made many members of Maryland's high school class of 97 grumble with indignation . They didn't like a new requirement that made them take part in the school's community service program.

Future seniors, however, probably won't be as resistant now that the program has broken in. Some, like John Maloney, already have completed their required hours of approved community service. The Bowie High School sophomore earned his hours in eighth grade by volunteering two nights a week at the Larkin-Chase Nursing and Restorative Center in Bowie.

He played shuffle board, cards, and other games with the senior citizens. He also helped plan parties for them and visited their rooms to keep them company.

John, fifteen, is not finished volunteering. Once a week he videotapes animals at the Prince George's County animal shelter in Forestville. His footage is shown on the Bowie public access television channel in hopes of finding homes for the animals.

"Volunteering is better than just sitting around," says John, "and I like animals; I don't want to see them put to sleep."

He's not the only volunteer in his family. His sister, Melissa, an eighth grader, has completed her hours also volunteering at Larkin-Chase.

"It is a good idea to have kids go out into the community, but it's frustrating to have to write essays about the works," she said. It makes you feel like you're doing it for the requirement and not for yourself."



26

The high school's service learning office, run by Beth Ansley, provides information on organizations seeking volunteers so that students will have an easier time fulfilling their hours.

"It's ridiculous that people are opposing the requirements," said Amy Rouse, who this summer has worked at the Ronald McDonald House and has helped to rebuild a church in Clinton.

"So many people won't do the service unless it's mandatory," Rouse said, "but once they start doing it, they'll really like it and hopefully it will become a part of their lives - like it has become a part of mine."

Question 26. The best title of the passage could be________. A: "Students Who Volunteer to Work with Senior Citizens" B: "Students Who Earn Extra Money after School" C: "A Volunteer Program at Bowie High School" D: "The High School Class of 1977"

Question 27. The word "frustrating" in paragraph 7 is closest in meaning to________. A: interesting B: happy C: satisfying D: upset

Question 28. The word "it" in paragraph 7 refers to________. A: completing requirements B: writing essays C: doing volunteer work D: A. going out in the community

Question 29. From paragraphs 6 and 7, we can infer that Melissa Maloney________. A: volunteers because it's a requirement B: is frustrated by her volunteer job C: volunteers because it makes her feel good D: doesn't like to write essays about her volunteer work

Question 30. According to the last two paragraphs, Amy Rouse thinks that________. A: most people don't like volunteering, so they don't want to do it B: most people will discover they enjoy volunteering if they try it C: the volunteer program shouldn't be mandatory D: people should be able to choose whether they want to volunteer

Question 31. Which of the following volunteer activities is NOT mentioned in the passage? A: Videotaping animals in a shelter. B: Rebuilding a church. C: Tutoring children. D: Visiting elderly people.

Question 32. In the passage, the author gives the explanation of the concept of mandatory volunteer programs by________.

A: describing one volunteer program B: classifying different types of volunteer programs C: arguing in favor of volunteer programs D: comparing two volunteer programs


By the 1950s many American families owned television sets. During television's first 20 years, deaf people missed most of the fun. They could not hear what was being said and had to (33)________.

Deaf people who watched television liked sports and action shows, but they were disappointed with other programs. If there was a lot of (34)________, deaf viewers couldn't follow the plot. Even the most skilled lip readers could only catch part of the talking. This frustrated many deaf people.

In the late 1960s, a man started experimenting. Malcom Norwood thought that deaf people could enjoy television programs, too. He wanted to develop captions for the programs. Norwood worked for the federal government's Media Services and Captioned Films Division at the Bureau of Education of the Handicapped. Norwood surveyed many hearing Americans. He wanted to see how they felt about seeing captions on the television screen. Too many people were against the (35)________. Norwood realized he had to develop another way of captioning - one that would not bother hearing people.

In October of 1971, Norwood's (36)________ signed a contract with WGBH-TV, a public television station in Boston. WGBH was hired to experiment with captions. They agreed to make a captioned television program for Norwood. That program was made. It was shown on television



27

and at a special convention. The type of captions made by WGBH could be seen on any television. No special equipment was needed. These were called "open captions."

Later, a new machine was invented. This device was made to send signals on a special part of the television picture. The signals could be captions. If a family had another kind of machine in their home or in their TV set, then the captions (or signals) would appear on their television screen. Without the machine, no captions would be seen. That special machine is called a decoder. It receives the signals (37)________ from the television station. Captions that require a decoder are called "closed captions".

Question 33. A: forecast B: find C: guess D: wait Question 34. A: scene B: dialogue C: talk D: conversation Question 35. A: law B: questions C: actors D: idea Question 36. A: students B: channels C: company D: office Question 37. A: moved B: gone C: transmitted D: sent


The mineral particles found in soil range in size from microscopic clay particles to large boulders. The most abundant particles - sand, silt, and clay - are the focus of examination in studies of soil texture. Texture is the term used to describe the line composite sizes of particles in a soil sample, typically several representative handfuls . To measure soil texture, the sand, silt, and clay particles are sorted out by size and weight. The weights of each size are then expressed as a percentage of the sample weight.

In the field, soil texture can be estimated by extracting a handful of sod and squeezing the damp soil into three basic shapes; (1) cast, a lump formed by squeezing a sample in a clenched fist; (2) thread, a pencil shape formed by rolling soil between the palms; and (3) ribbon, a flatfish shape formed by squeezing a small sample between the thumb and index finger. The behavioral characteristics of the soil when molded into each of these shapes, if they can be formed at all, provides the basis for a general textural classification. The behavior of the soil in the hand test is determined by the amount of clay in the sample. Clay particles are highly cohesive, and when dampened, behave as a plastic. Therefore the higher the clay content in a sample, the more refined and durable the shapes into which it can be molded.

Another method of determining soil texture involves the use of devices called sediment sieves, screens built with a specified mesh size. When the soil is filtered through a group of sieves, each with a different mesh size, the particles become grouped in corresponding size categories. Each category can be weighed to make a textural determination. Although sieves work well for silt, sand, and larger particles, they are not appropriate for clay particles. Clay is far too small to sieve accurately; therefore, in soils with a high proportion of clay, the fine particles are measured on the basis of their settling velocity when suspended in water. Since clays settle so slowly, they are easily segregated from sand and silt. The water can be drawn off and evaporated, leaving a residue of clay, which can be weighed.

Question 38. The author mentions "several representative handfuls" in the passage in order to show_________.

A: the range of soil samples B: the requirements for an adequate soil sam C: the process by which soil is weighed D: how small soil particles are

Question 39. It can be inferred that the names of the three basic shapes mentioned in paragraph 2 reflect_________.

A: the way the soil is extracted B: the need to check more than one handful C: the difficulty of forming different shapes D: the results of squeezing the soil

Question 40. The word "dampened" in the passage is closest in meaning to_________. A: damaged B: stretched C: moistened D: examined

Question 41. It can be inferred from the passage that a soil sample with little or no clay in it_________.



28

A: does not have a durable shape B: is not very heavy C: does not have a classifiable texture D: may not hold its shape when molded

Question 42. The word "they" in the passage refers to_________. A: larger particles B: sieves C: categories D: clay particles

Question 43. It can be inferred from the passage that the sediment sieve has an advantage over the hand test in determining soil texture because_________.

A: the sieve allows for a more exact measure B: less training is required to use the sieve C: using the sieve takes less time D: the sieve can measure clay

Question 44. During the procedure described in paragraph 3, when clay particles are placed into water they_________.

A: stick to the sides of the water container B: dissolve quickly C: take some time to sink to the bottom D: separate into different sizes

Question 45. The word "fine" in the passage is closest in meaning to_________. A: many B: excellent C: tiny D: various

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 46. The garage serviced my car last week.

A: I got my car serviced last week. B: My car was to be serviced last week. C: The garage’s service to my car was good. D: Last week I went to the garage by car.

Question 47. The train drivers' strike made it hard for us to get to work. A: We found it difficult to get to work because of the train drivers' strike. B: When the train drivers were having a strike, we could get to work. C: We were unable to get to work when the train drivers' strike happened. D: The train drivers' strike made it impossible for us to get to work.

Question 48. The train should be here any minute now. A: We know that the train is always here on time. B: The train has not arrived here yet. C: The train is known to be here in a minute. D: We are expecting the train to arrive soon.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 49: He is very intelligent. He can solve all the problems in no time. A. So intelligent is he that he can solve all the problems in no time.

B. He is very intelligent that he can solve all the problems in no time. C. An intelligent student is he that he can solve all the problems in no time. D. So intelligent a student is he that he can solve all the problems in no time.

Question 50: We cut down many forests. The Earth becomes hot. A. The more forests we cut down, the hotter the Earth becomes.

B. The more we cut down forests, the hotter the Earth becomes. C. The more forests we cut down, the Earth becomes hotter. D. The more we cut down forests, the Earth becomes hotter.

______THE END______






Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 1: A. locked B. forced C. touched D. reserved Question 2: A. arrange B. arrive C. arise D. area



29

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 3: A. schedule B. reserve C. wildlife D. beauty Question 4: A. employment B. atmosphere C. company D. customer

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the italic word (s) in each of the following questions. Question 5: I was not aware of what was happening after I tripped and knocked my head against the table.

A. careful B. cautious C. responsive D. conscious Question 6: The kidnapper gave himself up to the authorities.

A. surrendered B. accommodated himself C. confided himself D. went up

Mark the letterA, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the italic word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 7: They have not made any effort to integrate with the local community.

A. separate B. put together C. co-operate D. connect Question 8: You should put yourself on the back for having achieved such a high score in the graduation exam.

A. check up your back B. praise yourself C. wear a backpack D. criticize yourself

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 9: Women's movements work for the purpose of guaranteeing women the enjoyment of human rights and fundamental freedoms on a basis of equal with men.

A. work for B. the enjoyment C. purpose D. equal Question 10: The professor together with his three students have been called to court.

A. together B. have C. The D. to Question 11: My uncle has just bought some expensive furnitures for his new house.

A. My uncle B. just C. expensive furnitures D. his

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 12: It was cold and wet. ________ , Paul put on his swimming suit and went to the beach.

A. However B. Although C. Therefore D. Because Question 13: John failed again. He________ harder.

A. may have tried B. must have tried C. can tried D. should have tried Question 14: My neighbour is driving me mad! It seems that________ it is at night, ________ he plays his music. A. the less - less B. the less - the more loud

C. the more late - the more loudly D. the later - the louder Question 15: She________ trying to pass her driving test but fails every time.

A. had kept B. keeps C. kept D. is keeping Question 16: They'll be able to walk across the river________.

A. if the ice will be thick enough B. when the ice will be thick enough C. if the ice is thick enough D. unless the ice is thick enough

Question 17: There was a________ table in the middle of the room. A. Japanese round beautiful wooden B. beautiful wooden round Japanese C. beautiful wooden Japanese round D. beautiful round Japanese wooden

Question 18: Did he tell you________ ? A. we would be able to meet him where B. where could we meet him C. where we would meet him D. where would be able to meet him

Question 19: He did not particularly want to________ any competitive sport. A. do with B. use up C. go on D. take up



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Question 20: The world's biodiversity is declining at an unprecedented rate, which makes wildlife________.

A. remained B. prosperous C. prefect D. vulnerable Question 21: The kind-hearted woman________ all her life to helping the disabled and the poor.

A. dedicated B. wasted C. spent D. lived Question 22: The majority of Asian students reject the American________ that marriage is a partnership of equals.

A. view B. look C. thought D. attitude Question 23: It’s________ to say that women are slaves at home.

A. truth B. action C. rubbish D. legality

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 24 to 30. Since water is the basis of life, composing the greater part of the tissues of all living things, the crucial problem of desert animals is to survive in a world where sources of flowing water are rare. And since man’s inexorable necessity is to absorb large quantities of water at frequent intervals, he can scarcely comprehend that many creatures of the desert pass then entire lives without a single drop. Uncompromising as it is, the desert has not eliminated life but only those forms unable to withstand its desiccating effects. No moist- skinned, water-loving animals can exist there. Few large animals are found. The giants of the North American desert are the deer, the coyote, and the bobcat. Since desert country is open, it holds more swift-footed running and leaping creatures than the tangled forest. Its population is largely nocturnal, silent, filled with reticence, and ruled by stealth. Yet they are not emaciated. Having adapted to their austere environment, they are as healthy as animals anywhere else in the word. The secret of their adjustment lies in the combination of behavior and physiology. None could survive if, like mad dogs and Englishmen, they went out in the midday sun; many would die in a matter of minutes. So most of them pass the burning hours asleep in cool, humid burrows underneath the ground, emerging to hunt only by night. The surface of the sun-baked desert averages around 150 degrees, but 18 inches down the temperature is only 60 degrees.

Question 24: Man can hardly understand why many animals live their whole life in the desert, as___. A. very few lager animals are found in the desert B. water composes the greater part of the tissues of living things C. sources of flowing water are rare in a desert D. water is an essential part of his existence

Question 25: The word “tissues” in the passage mostly means________. A. “very small living things that cause infectious disease in people, animals and plants” B. “the simplest forms of life that exist in air, water, living and dead creatures and plants” C. “collections of cells that form the different parts of humans, animals and plants” D. “the smallest units of living matter that can exist on their own”

Question 26: The author mentions all the following as examples of the behaviour of desert animals EXCEPT________.

A. they are noisy and aggressive B. they sleep during the day C. they dig home underground D. they are watchful and quiet

Question 27: According to the passage, creatures in the desert________. A. run and leap faster than those in the tangled forest B. run and leap more slowly than those in the tangled forest C. are not as healthy as those anywhere else in the world D. are more active during the day than those in the tangled forest

Question 28: We can infer from the passage that________. A. healthy animals live longer lives B. desert life is colorful and diverse C. water is the basis of desert life D. living things adjust to their environment



31

Question 29: According to the passage, one characteristic of animals living in the desert is that_____. A. they can hunt in temperature of 150 degrees B. they are less healthy than animals living in other places C. they live in an accommodating environment D. they are smaller and fleeter than forest animals

Question 30: The title for this passage could be________. A. “Animal Life in a Desert Ênvironment” B. “Man’s Life in a Desert Ênvironment” C. “Life Underground” D. “Desert Plants”

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35. We know that there is no life on Mars. The Viking robot missions to the Red Planet proved that. The mission was (31)________ to one man for the most part. Percival Lowell, a rich American businessman, suggested that Mars contained life. He was fascinated by Mars. He spent 23 years studying it. He was so (32)________ involved in the search for Martian life that he built his own laboratory. It housed a huge telescope. At 7,000 feet (2.13km) (33)________ sea level in a dry climate, it was a perfect site to view Mars. Lowell believed that he saw a network of lines (34)________ Mars. He also thought that the lines were built by intelligent life. There was also the chance that water was on the planet. He drew many maps in his notebooks. His idea (35)________ the public's attention. People soon believed that life on Mars could exist.

Question 31: A. except B. because C. instead D. due Question 32: A. deeply B. deep C. deepen D. depth Question 33: A. over B. on C. up D. above Question 34: A. cross B. to cross C. crossed D. crossing Question 35: A. absorbed B. drew C. made D. achieved

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 43. During the 19th century, women in the United States organized and participated in a large number of reform movements, including movements to reorganize the prison system, improve education, ban the sale of alcohol, and most importantly to free slaves. Some women saw similarities in the social status of women and slaves. Women like Elizabeth Cady Stanton and Lucy Stone were feminists and abolitionists who supported the rights of both women and blacks. A number of male abolitionists, including William Lloyd Garrison and Wendell Phillips also supported the rights of women to speak and participate equally with men in antislavery activities. Probably more than any other movement, abolitionism offered women a previously denied entry into politics. They became involved primarily in order to better thefr living conditions and the conditions of others. When the Civil war ended in 1865, the 14th, and 15th, Amendments to the Constitution adopted in 1868 and 1870 granted citizenship and suffrage to blacks but not to women. Discouraged but resolved, feminists influenced more and more women to demand the right to vote. In 1869, the Wyoming Territory had yielded to demands by feminists, but eastern states resisted more stubbornly than ever before. A woman's suffrage bill had been presented to every Congress since 1878 but it continually failed to pass until 1920, when the 19th Amendment granted women the right to vote.

Question 36: The word "primarily" in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to________. A. somewhat B. always C. above all D. finally

Question 37: When were women allowed to vote throughout the USA? A. After 1920 B. After 1878 C. After 1870 D. After 1866

Question 38: What is not among the reformation movements of women? A. passing the laws B. prohibiting the sale of alcohol C. reorganizing the prison D. freeing the slaves



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Question 39: The word “ban” in line 2 most nearly means to________. A. prohibit B. publish C. limit D. encourage

Question 40: What is the topic of the passage? A. Abolitionists B. The Wyoming Territory C. Women's suffrage D. The 14th and 15th Amendment

Question 41: According to the passage, why did women become active in politics? A. to support Elizabeth Cady Stanton B. to amend the Declaration of Independence C. to be elected to public office. D. to improve the conditions of life that existed at the time.

Question 42: What does the 19th Amendment guarantee? A. Citizenship for blacks B. Voting rights for blacks C. Voting rights for women D. Citizenship for women

Question 43: What cannot be inferred from the passage? A. The abolitionists believed in antislavery activities. B. A women's suffrage bill had been discussed in the Congress for 50 years. C. The blacks were given the right to vote before women. D. The eastern states did not like the idea of women's right to vote.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 44: The doctor said, “You really ought to rest for a few days, Jasmine.”

A. the doctor suggested that Jasmine should take a short rest. B. It is doctor’s recommendation that Jasmine rested shortly. C. The doctor strongly advised Jasmine to take a few days’ rest. D. Jasmine’s doctor insisted that she should rest for a few days.

Question 45: The police questioned two men but neither of them could speak English. A. The police questioned two Englishmen in English. B. The police questioned two men who could not speak English. C. Neither of the Englishmen was questioned by the police. D. Either of the men could answer the police questions in English.

Question 46: Living in Sydney is strange to her. A. She’s not used to living in Sidney. B. She is used living in Sydney. C. She used to live in Sydney. D. She’s not used to live in Sydney.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges. Question 47: ~ Minh: "My first English test was not as good as I expected." ~ Thomas: "________"

A. It's okay. Don't worry. B. That's brilliant enough! C. Good Heavens! D. Never mind, better job next time!

Question 48: ~ Trang: "I come from Vietnam.” ~ Timothy: "_____________” A. How about in Hanoi? B. What is it about? C. About where? D. Whereabouts?

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 49: My motorbike cannot start in the mornings. I think I will get the garage to repair it.

A. My motorbike I will get it repafred which cannot start in the mornings. B. My motorbike which I will have it repaired cannot start in the morning. C. My motorbike which I will get it repaired cannot start in the mornings. D. My motorbike cannot start in the mornings, so I will have it repaired.

Question 50: Sue and Brian met. Shortly after that, he announced they were getting married. A. Scarcely had Sue and Brian met when he announced they were getting married. B. As soon as Sue and Brian met, they announced they were getting married. C. Until Sue and Brian met, they had announced they were getting married. D. Right at the time Brian met Sue, he announced they were getting married.



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______THE END______






Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 1: A. locked B. forced C. touched D. reserved Question 2: A. arrange B. arrive C. arise D. area

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 3: A. schedule B. reserve C. wildlife D. beauty Question 4: A. employment B. atmosphere C. company D. customer

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the italic word (s) in each of the following questions. Question 5: I was not aware of what was happening after I tripped and knocked my head against the table.

A. careful B. cautious C. responsive D. conscious Question 6: The kidnapper gave himself up to the authorities.

A. surrendered B. accommodated himself C. confided himself D. went up

Mark the letterA, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the italic word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 7: They have not made any effort to integrate with the local community.

A. separate B. put together C. co-operate D. connect Question 8: You should put yourself on the back for having achieved such a high score in the graduation exam.

A. check up your back B. praise yourself C. wear a backpack D. criticize yourself

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 9: Women's movements work for the purpose of guaranteeing women the enjoyment of human rights and fundamental freedoms on a basis of equal with men.

A. work for B. the enjoyment C. purpose D. equal Question 10: The professor together with his three students have been called to court.

A. together B. have C. The D. to Question 11: My uncle has just bought some expensive furnitures for his new house.

A. My uncle B. just C. expensive furnitures D. his

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 12: It was cold and wet. ________ , Paul put on his swimming suit and went to the beach.

A. However B. Although C. Therefore D. Because Question 13: John failed again. He________ harder.

A. may have tried B. must have tried C. can tried D. should have tried Question 14: My neighbour is driving me mad! It seems that________ it is at night, ________ he plays his music. A. the less - less B. the less - the more loud

C. the more late - the more loudly D. the later - the louder Question 15: She________ trying to pass her driving test but fails every time.

A. had kept B. keeps C. kept D. is keeping Question 16: They'll be able to walk across the river________.



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A. if the ice will be thick enough B. when the ice will be thick enough C. if the ice is thick enough D. unless the ice is thick enough

Question 17: There was a________ table in the middle of the room. A. Japanese round beautiful wooden B. beautiful wooden round Japanese C. beautiful wooden Japanese round D. beautiful round Japanese wooden

Question 18: Did he tell you________ ? A. we would be able to meet him where B. where could we meet him C. where we would meet him D. where would be able to meet him

Question 19: He did not particularly want to________ any competitive sport. A. do with B. use up C. go on D. take up

Question 20: The world's biodiversity is declining at an unprecedented rate, which makes wildlife________.

A. remained B. prosperous C. prefect D. vulnerable Question 21: The kind-hearted woman________ all her life to helping the disabled and the poor.

A. dedicated B. wasted C. spent D. lived Question 22: The majority of Asian students reject the American________ that marriage is a partnership of equals.

A. view B. look C. thought D. attitude Question 23: It’s________ to say that women are slaves at home.

A. truth B. action C. rubbish D. legality

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 24 to 30. Since water is the basis of life, composing the greater part of the tissues of all living things, the crucial problem of desert animals is to survive in a world where sources of flowing water are rare. And since man’s inexorable necessity is to absorb large quantities of water at frequent intervals, he can scarcely comprehend that many creatures of the desert pass then entire lives without a single drop. Uncompromising as it is, the desert has not eliminated life but only those forms unable to withstand its desiccating effects. No moist- skinned, water-loving animals can exist there. Few large animals are found. The giants of the North American desert are the deer, the coyote, and the bobcat. Since desert country is open, it holds more swift-footed running and leaping creatures than the tangled forest. Its population is largely nocturnal, silent, filled with reticence, and ruled by stealth. Yet they are not emaciated. Having adapted to their austere environment, they are as healthy as animals anywhere else in the word. The secret of their adjustment lies in the combination of behavior and physiology. None could survive if, like mad dogs and Englishmen, they went out in the midday sun; many would die in a matter of minutes. So most of them pass the burning hours asleep in cool, humid burrows underneath the ground, emerging to hunt only by night. The surface of the sun-baked desert averages around 150 degrees, but 18 inches down the temperature is only 60 degrees.

Question 24: Man can hardly understand why many animals live their whole life in the desert, as___. A. very few lager animals are found in the desert B. water composes the greater part of the tissues of living things C. sources of flowing water are rare in a desert D. water is an essential part of his existence

Question 25: The word “tissues” in the passage mostly means________. A. “very small living things that cause infectious disease in people, animals and plants” B. “the simplest forms of life that exist in air, water, living and dead creatures and plants” C. “collections of cells that form the different parts of humans, animals and plants” D. “the smallest units of living matter that can exist on their own”

Question 26: The author mentions all the following as examples of the behaviour of desert animals EXCEPT________.



35

A. they are noisy and aggressive B. they sleep during the day C. they dig home underground D. they are watchful and quiet

Question 27: According to the passage, creatures in the desert________. A. run and leap faster than those in the tangled forest B. run and leap more slowly than those in the tangled forest C. are not as healthy as those anywhere else in the world D. are more active during the day than those in the tangled forest

Question 28: We can infer from the passage that________. A. healthy animals live longer lives B. desert life is colorful and diverse C. water is the basis of desert life D. living things adjust to their environment

Question 29: According to the passage, one characteristic of animals living in the desert is that_____. A. they can hunt in temperature of 150 degrees B. they are less healthy than animals living in other places C. they live in an accommodating environment D. they are smaller and fleeter than forest animals

Question 30: The title for this passage could be________. A. “Animal Life in a Desert Environment” B. “Man’s Life in a Desert Ênvironment” C. “Life Underground” D. “Desert Plants”

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35. We know that there is no life on Mars. The Viking robot missions to the Red Planet proved that. The mission was (31)________ to one man for the most part. Percival Lowell, a rich American businessman, suggested that Mars contained life. He was fascinated by Mars. He spent 23 years studying it. He was so (32)________ involved in the search for Martian life that he built his own laboratory. It housed a huge telescope. At 7,000 feet (2.13km) (33)________ sea level in a dry climate, it was a perfect site to view Mars. Lowell believed that he saw a network of lines (34)________ Mars. He also thought that the lines were built by intelligent life. There was also the chance that water was on the planet. He drew many maps in his notebooks. His idea (35)________ the public's attention. People soon believed that life on Mars could exist.

Question 31: A. except B. because C. instead D. due Question 32: A. deeply B. deep C. deepen D. depth Question 33: A. over B. on C. up D. above Question 34: A. cross B. to cross C. crossed D. crossing Question 35: A. absorbed B. drew C. made D. achieved

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 43. During the 19th century, women in the United States organized and participated in a large number of reform movements, including movements to reorganize the prison system, improve education, ban the sale of alcohol, and most importantly to free slaves. Some women saw similarities in the social status of women and slaves. Women like Elizabeth Cady Stanton and Lucy Stone were feminists and abolitionists who supported the rights of both women and blacks. A number of male abolitionists, including William Lloyd Garrison and Wendell Phillips also supported the rights of women to speak and participate equally with men in antislavery activities. Probably more than any other movement, abolitionism offered women a previously denied entry into politics. They became involved primarily in order to better thefr living conditions and the conditions of others. When the Civil war ended in 1865, the 14th, and 15th, Amendments to the Constitution adopted in 1868 and 1870 granted citizenship and suffrage to blacks but not to women. Discouraged but resolved, feminists influenced more and more women to demand the right to vote. In 1869, the Wyoming Territory had yielded to demands by feminists, but eastern states resisted



36

more stubbornly than ever before. A woman's suffrage bill had been presented to every Congress since 1878 but it continually failed to pass until 1920, when the 19th Amendment granted women the right to vote.

Question 36: The word "primarily" in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to________. A. somewhat B. always C. above all D. finally

Question 37: When were women allowed to vote throughout the USA? A. After 1920 B. After 1878 C. After 1870 D. After 1866

Question 38: What is not among the reformation movements of women? A. passing the laws B. prohibiting the sale of alcohol C. reorganizing the prison D. freeing the slaves

Question 39: The word “ban” in line 2 most nearly means to________. A. prohibit B. publish C. limit D. encourage

Question 40: What is the topic of the passage? A. Abolitionists B. The Wyoming Territory C. Women's suffrage D. The 14th and 15th Amendment

Question 41: According to the passage, why did women become active in politics? A. to support Elizabeth Cady Stanton B. to amend the Declaration of Independence C. to be elected to public office. D. to improve the conditions of life that existed at the time.

Question 42: What does the 19th Amendment guarantee? A. Citizenship for blacks B. Voting rights for blacks C. Voting rights for women D. Citizenship for women

Question 43: What cannot be inferred from the passage? A. The abolitionists believed in antislavery activities. B. A women's suffrage bill had been discussed in the Congress for 50 years. C. The blacks were given the right to vote before women. D. The eastern states did not like the idea of women's right to vote.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 44: The doctor said, “You really ought to rest for a few days, Jasmine.”

A. the doctor suggested that Jasmine should take a short rest. B. It is doctor’s recommendation that Jasmine rested shortly. C. The doctor strongly advised Jasmine to take a few days’ rest. D. Jasmine’s doctor insisted that she should rest for a few days.

Question 45: The police questioned two men but neither of them could speak English. A. The police questioned two Englishmen in English. B. The police questioned two men who could not speak English. C. Neither of the Englishmen was questioned by the police. D. Either of the men could answer the police questions in English.

Question 46: Living in Sydney is strange to her. A. She’s not used to living in Sidney. B. She is used living in Sydney. C. She used to live in Sydney. D. She’s not used to live in Sydney.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges. Question 47: ~ Minh: "My first English test was not as good as I expected." ~ Thomas: "________"

A. It's okay. Don't worry. B. That's brilliant enough! C. Good Heavens! D. Never mind, better job next time!

Question 48: ~ Trang: "I come from Vietnam.” ~ Timothy: "_____________” A. How about in Hanoi? B. What is it about? C. About where? D. Whereabouts?

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.



37

Question 49: My motorbike cannot start in the mornings. I think I will get the garage to repair it. A. My motorbike I will get it repafred which cannot start in the mornings. B. My motorbike which I will have it repaired cannot start in the morning. C. My motorbike which I will get it repaired cannot start in the mornings. D. My motorbike cannot start in the mornings, so I will have it repaired.

Question 50: Sue and Brian met. Shortly after that, he announced they were getting married. A. Scarcely had Sue and Brian met when he announced they were getting married. B. As soon as Sue and Brian met, they announced they were getting married. C. Until Sue and Brian met, they had announced they were getting married. D. Right at the time Brian met Sue, he announced they were getting married.

______THE END______






Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 1: A. hour B. historic C. honourable D. honesty Question 2: A. halves B. speaks C. photographs D. bats Question 3: A. change B. machine C. choose D. teacher

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 4: A. employer B. minority C. reasonable D. vocational Question 5: A. pointing B. student C. between D. signal

Mark the letter (A, B, C, or D) to indicate the word/phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the italic part in each of the following questions. Question 6: It was inevitable that the smaller company should merge with the larger.

A. urgent B. necessary C. important D. unavoidable Question 7: School uniform is required in most of Vietnamese schools.

A. divided B. depended C. compulsory D. paid

Mark the letter (A, B, C, or D) on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the italic word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 8: That is a well-behaved boy whose behaviours have nothing to complain about.”

A. behaving cleverly B. good behaviours C. behaving nice D. behaving improperly Question 9: After five days on trial, the court found him innocent of the crime and he was released. A. benevolent B. guilty C. innovative D. naïve

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following sentences. Question 10: Tom hasn't completed the work yet and Maria hasn't neither.

A. yet B. the work C. hasn’t neither D. hasn’t Question 11: It was so a funny film that I burst out laughing.

A. laughing B. It C. so D. that Question 12: Animals and man use the energy finding in food to operate their bodies and muscles.

A. their B. to operate C. use D. finding Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.



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Question 13: My daughter often says that she won’t get married until she________ 25 years old. A. is B. will be C. will have been D. has been

Question 14: Ken asked Barbara________ she would like to go to the cinema. A. whether B. in case C. regarding D. unless

Question 15: Body language is a potent form of________ communication. A. verbal B. oral C. tongue D. non-verbal

Question 16: I think your mother should let you________ your own mind. A. making up B. made up C. to make up D. make up

Question 17: By the end of this year my father________ in this company for 12 years. A. has been working B. will work C. will have been working D. has worked

Question 18: The girl________ is our neighbour. A. talking to the lady over there B. talks to the lady over there C. was talking to the lady over there D. is talking to the lady over there

Question 19: He keeps working________ feeling unwell. A. because of B. although C. unless D. in spite of

Question 20: I gave up the job________ the attractive salary. A. despite B. because C. although D. because of

Question 21: Most people prefer flying________ going by the sea because it’s too much faster. A. than B. to C. over D. from

Question 22: Your last job was a bank manager, ________ it? A. doesn’t B. wasn’t C. didn’t D. isn’t

Question 23: During the schoolyear, Mary is not allowed________ with friends until she has finished all her assignments.

A. go out B. going out C. of going out D. to go out Question 24: Not only________ to speak to him, but she also vowed never to see him again.

A. did she refuse B. she did refuse C. she refused D. when she refused Question 25: All of us are waiting the man________ son was lost.

A. whose B. who C. whom D. which Question 26: Her responsibility in the family is________ the household.

A. to prepare B. to do C. to make D. to run Question 27: I clearly remember________ you about this before.

A. tell B. telling C. told D. to tell

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

TELEVISION Here in Egypt, television has a powerful hold over people's minds. It is an instrument of leisure, of information and - to a very limited extent - of culture. It does not stop people reading newspapers or books, going to the cinema or theatre or watching videos. But these activities are occasional, irregular and ultimately of secondary importance. Television is one of the main subjects of conversation, at school, in offices, at home and in the street, as well as being written about in all the newspapers. It might be said that the main objective of television is to persuade the maximum number of people to watch it for the maximum amount of time. And how effectively the sitcoms and soap operas do that! I do not think that I have ever seen any other country so totally dominated by these shows. Some of them are Egyptian productions but the majority is American. Each episode, each programme, is a talking point for everyone, young and old alike.

Question 28: What might the main objective of television be? A. To waste time. B. To get people away from their free time. C. To get people away from their work. D. To allow much time for many people to watch it.

Question 29: What does television have over people's mind? A. An influence. B. A limit. C. A picture. D. An impression.

Question 30: Which is the main idea of the passage?



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A. Television and its use. B. Television, the main subjects of conversation. C. Television, the rest of the media and American soaps. D. Television, an instrument of leisure.

Question 31: How often are the sitcoms and soap operas shown on TV? A. Sometimes. B. Never. C. Rarely. D. Usually

Question 32: At school or in offices, television is considered as a topic._________. A. for learning B. for discussion C. for people to talk about D. for entertainment

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks. Most people think of computers as very modern inventions, products of our new technological age. But actually the idea for a computer had been worked out over two centuries ago by a man (33)_________ Charles Babbage. Babbage was bom in 1791 and grew up to be a brilliant mathematician. He drew up plans for several calculating machines which he called "engines". But despite the fact that he (34)_________ building some of these, he never finished any of them. Over the years, people have argued (35)_________ his machines would ever work. Recently, however, the Science Museum in London has finished building (36)_________ engine based on one of Babbage's designs. (37)_________ has taken six years to complete and more than four thousand parts have been specially made. Whether it works or not, the machine will be on show at a special exhibition in the Science Museum to remind people of Babbage's work.

Question 33: A. written B. recognized C. called D. known Question 34: A. made B. started C. missed D. wanted Question 35: A. why B. though C. whether D. until Question 36: A. the B. an C. some D. that Question 37: A. It B. They C. He D. One

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. At the beginning of the nineteenth century, the American educational system was desperately in need of reform. Private schools existed, but only for the very rich. There were very few public schools because of the strong sentiment that children who would grow up to be labourers should not “waste” then time on education but should instead prepare themselves for then life’s work. It was in the face of this public sentiment that educational reformers set about then task. Horace Mann, probably the most famous of the reformers, felt that there was no excuse in a republic for any citizen to be uneducated. As Superintendent of Education in the state of Massachusetts from 1837 to 1848, he initiated various changes, which were soon matched in other school districts around the country. He extended the school year from five to six months and improved the quality of teachers by instituting teacher education and raising teacher salaries. Although these changes did not bring about a sudden improvement in the educational system, they at least increased public awareness as to the need for a further strengthening of the system.

Question 38: The passage implied that to go to a private school, a student needed_______. A. a strong educational background B. a lot of money C. good grades D. a high level of intelligence

Question 39: The word “reformers” in the passage mostly means_______. A. people who really enjoy teaching B. people who believe that education is wasted C. people who work for the government D. people who try to change things for the better

Question 40: According to the passage, Horace Mann wanted a better educational system for Americans because_______.

A. people had nothing else to do except go to school. B. Massachusetts residents needed something to do with then spare time. C. education at the time was so cheap.



40

D. all citizens should be educated in a republic. Question 41: From 1837 to 1848, Horace Mann_______.

A. managed education in the state of Massachusetts B. funded many projects to improve the educational system for Americans C. worked as a headmaster in a school in the state of Massachusetts D. raised money for the educational development in Massachusetts

Question 42: According to the passage, which sentence is NOT TRUE? A. Horace Mann suggested schools prepare children for their life’s work. B. Horace Mann began raising teachers’ salaries. C. Horace Mann brought about changes in many schools in the USA. D. Horace Mann was a famous US educational reformer.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 43: He started working as an engineer 5 years ago.

A. He didn’t work as an engineer any more, B. He had worked as an engineer for 5 years. C. He was working as an engineer 5 years ago. D. He has worked as an engineer for 5 years.

Question 44: This is the first time I have ever gone out for a picnic. A. I have gone out for a pinic this time. B. I had never gone out for a picnic before. C. I have never gone out for a picnic before. D. I have ever gone out for a picnic.

Question 45: She said: “It is very kind of you to help me. Thank you very much.” A. She thanked me to help her. B. She said it is very kind of me to help her. C. She said that it was very kind of you to help her. D. She thanked me for helping her.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges. Question 46: ~ Mike: “You really have a nice voice. You sing beautifully like a singer.”

~ Sam: “___________” A. You’ve got to be kidding. B. Never mind. C. Yes, of course. D. I don’t know.

Question 47: ~ Anna: “I think that a happy marriage should be based on love.” ~ Keith: “___________’’ A. Thank you. B. No, it shouldn’t. C. You think so? D. I don’t agree with you.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 48: Put your coat on. You will get cold.

A. Put your coat on, otherwise you will get cold. B. You not only put your coat on but also get cold. C. You will not get cold unless you put your coat on. D. It is not until you put your coat on that you will get cold.

Question 49: Mike graduated with a good degree. However, he joined the ranks of the unemployed. A. That Mike graduated with a good degree helped him join the ranks of the unemployed. B. Mike joined the ranks of the unemployed because he graduated with a good degree. C. If Mike graduated with a good degree, he would join the ranks of the unemployed. D. Although Mike graduated with a good degree, he joined the ranks of the unemployed.

Question 50: Mr. Ping is a rich junk dealer. I bought his land last year. A. Mr. Ping, whose land I bought, is a rich junk dealer. B. Mr. Ping, whose land I bought last year, is a rich junk dealer. C. Mr. Ping, who I bought his land last year, is a rich junk dealer. D. Mr. Ping, who is a rich junk dealer, whose land I bought last year.

______THE END______



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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 1: A. hour B. historic C. honourable D. honesty Question 2: A. halves B. speaks C. photographs D. bats Question 3: A. change B. machine C. choose D. teacher

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 4: A. employer B. minority C. reasonable D. vocational Question 5: A. pointing B. student C. between D. signal

Mark the letter (A, B, C, or D) to indicate the word/phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the italic part in each of the following questions. Question 6: It was inevitable that the smaller company should merge with the larger.

A. urgent B. necessary C. important D. unavoidable Question 7: School uniform is required in most of Vietnamese schools.

A. divided B. depended C. compulsory D. paid

Mark the letter (A, B, C, or D) on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the italic word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 8: That is a well-behaved boy whose behaviours have nothing to complain about.”

A. behaving cleverly B. good behaviours C. behaving nice D. behaving improperly Question 9: After five days on trial, the court found him innocent of the crime and he was released. A. benevolent B. guilty C. innovative D. naïve

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following sentences. Question 10: Tom hasn't completed the work yet and Maria hasn't neither.

A. yet B. the work C. hasn’t neither D. hasn’t Question 11: It was so a funny film that I burst out laughing.

A. laughing B. It C. so D. that Question 12: Animals and man use the energy finding in food to operate their bodies and muscles.

A. their B. to operate C. use D. finding Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 13: My daughter often says that she won’t get married until she________ 25 years old.

A. is B. will be C. will have been D. has been Question 14: Ken asked Barbara________ she would like to go to the cinema.

A. whether B. in case C. regarding D. unless Question 15: Body language is a potent form of________ communication.

A. verbal B. oral C. tongue D. non-verbal Question 16: I think your mother should let you________ your own mind.

A. making up B. made up C. to make up D. make up Question 17: By the end of this year my father________ in this company for 12 years.

A. has been working B. will work C. will have been working D. has worked Question 18: The girl________ is our neighbour.

A. talking to the lady over there B. talks to the lady over there



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C. was talking to the lady over there D. is talking to the lady over there Question 19: He keeps working________ feeling unwell.

A. because of B. although C. unless D. in spite of Question 20: I gave up the job________ the attractive salary.

A. despite B. because C. although D. because of Question 21: Most people prefer flying________ going by the sea because it’s too much faster.

A. than B. to C. over D. from Question 22: Your last job was a bank manager, ________ it?

A. doesn’t B. wasn’t C. didn’t D. isn’t Question 23: During the schoolyear, Mary is not allowed________ with friends until she has finished all her assignments.

A. go out B. going out C. of going out D. to go out Question 24: Not only________ to speak to him, but she also vowed never to see him again.

A. did she refuse B. she did refuse C. she refused D. when she refused Question 25: All of us are waiting the man________ son was lost.

A. whose B. who C. whom D. which Question 26: Her responsibility in the family is________ the household.

A. to prepare B. to do C. to make D. to run Question 27: I clearly remember________ you about this before.

A. tell B. telling C. told D. to tell

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

TELEVISION Here in Egypt, television has a powerful hold over people's minds. It is an instrument of leisure, of information and - to a very limited extent - of culture. It does not stop people reading newspapers or books, going to the cinema or theatre or watching videos. But these activities are occasional, irregular and ultimately of secondary importance. Television is one of the main subjects of conversation, at school, in offices, at home and in the street, as well as being written about in all the newspapers. It might be said that the main objective of television is to persuade the maximum number of people to watch it for the maximum amount of time. And how effectively the sitcoms and soap operas do that! I do not think that I have ever seen any other country so totally dominated by these shows. Some of them are Egyptian productions but the majority is American. Each episode, each programme, is a talking point for everyone, young and old alike.

Question 28: What might the main objective of television be? A. To waste time. B. To get people away from their free time. C. To get people away from their work. D. To allow much time for many people to watch it.

Question 29: What does television have over people's mind? A. An influence. B. A limit. C. A picture. D. An impression.

Question 30: Which is the main idea of the passage? A. Television and its use. B. Television, the main subjects of conversation. C. Television, the rest of the media and American soaps. D. Television, an instrument of leisure.

Question 31: How often are the sitcoms and soap operas shown on TV? A. Sometimes. B. Never. C. Rarely. D. Usually

Question 32: At school or in offices, television is considered as a topic._________. A. for learning B. for discussion C. for people to talk about D. for entertainment

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks. Most people think of computers as very modern inventions, products of our new technological age. But actually the idea for a computer had been worked out over two centuries ago



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by a man (33)_________ Charles Babbage. Babbage was bom in 1791 and grew up to be a brilliant mathematician. He drew up plans for several calculating machines which he called "engines". But despite the fact that he (34)_________ building some of these, he never finished any of them. Over the years, people have argued (35)_________ his machines would ever work. Recently, however, the Science Museum in London has finished building (36)_________ engine based on one of Babbage's designs. (37)_________ has taken six years to complete and more than four thousand parts have been specially made. Whether it works or not, the machine will be on show at a special exhibition in the Science Museum to remind people of Babbage's work.

Question 33: A. written B. recognized C. called D. known Question 34: A. made B. started C. missed D. wanted Question 35: A. why B. though C. whether D. until Question 36: A. the B. an C. some D. that Question 37: A. It B. They C. He D. One

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. At the beginning of the nineteenth century, the American educational system was desperately in need of reform. Private schools existed, but only for the very rich. There were very few public schools because of the strong sentiment that children who would grow up to be labourers should not “waste” then time on education but should instead prepare themselves for then life’s work. It was in the face of this public sentiment that educational reformers set about then task. Horace Mann, probably the most famous of the reformers, felt that there was no excuse in a republic for any citizen to be uneducated. As Superintendent of Education in the state of Massachusetts from 1837 to 1848, he initiated various changes, which were soon matched in other school districts around the country. He extended the school year from five to six months and improved the quality of teachers by instituting teacher education and raising teacher salaries. Although these changes did not bring about a sudden improvement in the educational system, they at least increased public awareness as to the need for a further strengthening of the system.

Question 38: The passage implied that to go to a private school, a student needed_______. A. a strong educational background B. a lot of money C. good grades D. a high level of intelligence

Question 39: The word “reformers” in the passage mostly means_______. A. people who really enjoy teaching B. people who believe that education is wasted C. people who work for the government D. people who try to change things for the better

Question 40: According to the passage, Horace Mann wanted a better educational system for Americans because_______.

A. people had nothing else to do except go to school. B. Massachusetts residents needed something to do with then spare time. C. education at the time was so cheap. D. all citizens should be educated in a republic.

Question 41: From 1837 to 1848, Horace Mann_______. A. managed education in the state of Massachusetts B. funded many projects to improve the educational system for Americans C. worked as a headmaster in a school in the state of Massachusetts D. raised money for the educational development in Massachusetts

Question 42: According to the passage, which sentence is NOT TRUE? A. Horace Mann suggested schools prepare children for their life’s work. B. Horace Mann began raising teachers’ salaries. C. Horace Mann brought about changes in many schools in the USA. D. Horace Mann was a famous US educational reformer.



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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 43: He started working as an engineer 5 years ago.

A. He didn’t work as an engineer any more, B. He had worked as an engineer for 5 years. C. He was working as an engineer 5 years ago. D. He has worked as an engineer for 5 years.

Question 44: This is the first time I have ever gone out for a picnic. A. I have gone out for a pinic this time. B. I had never gone out for a picnic before. C. I have never gone out for a picnic before. D. I have ever gone out for a picnic.

Question 45: She said: “It is very kind of you to help me. Thank you very much.” A. She thanked me to help her. B. She said it is very kind of me to help her. C. She said that it was very kind of you to help her. D. She thanked me for helping her.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges. Question 46: ~ Mike: “You really have a nice voice. You sing beautifully like a singer.”

~ Sam: “___________” A. You’ve got to be kidding. B. Never mind. C. Yes, of course. D. I don’t know.

Question 47: ~ Anna: “I think that a happy marriage should be based on love.” ~ Keith: “___________’’ A. Thank you. B. No, it shouldn’t. C. You think so? D. I don’t agree with you.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 48: Put your coat on. You will get cold.

A. Put your coat on, otherwise you will get cold. B. You not only put your coat on but also get cold. C. You will not get cold unless you put your coat on. D. It is not until you put your coat on that you will get cold.

Question 49: Mike graduated with a good degree. However, he joined the ranks of the unemployed. A. That Mike graduated with a good degree helped him join the ranks of the unemployed. B. Mike joined the ranks of the unemployed because he graduated with a good degree. C. If Mike graduated with a good degree, he would join the ranks of the unemployed. D. Although Mike graduated with a good degree, he joined the ranks of the unemployed.

Question 50: Mr. Ping is a rich junk dealer. I bought his land last year. A. Mr. Ping, whose land I bought, is a rich junk dealer. B. Mr. Ping, whose land I bought last year, is a rich junk dealer. C. Mr. Ping, who I bought his land last year, is a rich junk dealer. D. Mr. Ping, who is a rich junk dealer, whose land I bought last year.

______THE END______






Mark the letter A, B, C or D on the answersheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following sentences. Question 1: A. believes B. develops C. physics D. parents Question 2: A. private B. attract C. marriage D. romantic



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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position ofprimary stress in each of the following questions. Question 3: A. exchange B. support C. social D. attempt Question 4: A. compulsory B. admirable C. curriculum D. biography

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the italic part in each of the following questions. Question 5: My mom is always bad-tempered when I leave my room untidy.

A. easily annoyed or irritated B. very happy and satisfied C. feeling embarrassed D. talking too much

Question 6: Domestic chores will no longer be a burden thanks to the inventions of labour-saving devices. A. Official B. Schooling C. Foreign D. Household

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the italic part in each of the questions. Question 7: Tom Swayer became internationally famous for his novels.

A. infamous B. celebrated C. well-known D. unknown Question 8: Any student who neglects his or her homework is unlikely to do well at school.

A. puts off B. attends to C. approves of D. looks for

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 9: A large number of Indian men agrees that it is unwise to confide in their wives.

A. wives B. A large C. agrees D. confide in Question 10: Even though she looks very beautiful, she is twice older than my twenty-year-old sister. A. twenty-year-old B. Even though C. looks D. older than Question 11: Higher education is very importance to national economies, and it is also a source of trained and educated personnel for the whole country.

A. importance B. educated C. economies D. the whole country

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 12: I applied for the job, but was_______.

A. turned off B. got over C. turned down D. taken away Question 13: A(n)_______ is an official document stating that you have passed an examination, completed a course, or achieved some necessary qualifications.

A. test B. requirement C. education D. certificate Question 14: She took a course in fine arts_______ starting her own business in interior design.

A. in order to B. with reference to C. in terms of D. with a view to Question 15: The preparations_______ by the time the guests_______.

A. had finished - were arriving B. have finished - arrived C. had been finished - arrived D. have been finished - were arrive

Question 16: Her family and friends have given her lots of_______. A. support B. supportive C. supporter D. supporting C. neither does my brothers D. neither are my brothers

Question 17: _______ schooling is compulsory in Australia between_______ ages of six and seventeen. A. Ø - the B. The - a C. The - Ø D. A - an

Question 18: The mother asked her son_______. A. where he has been B. where has he been C. where he had been D. where had he been

Question 19: Vietnam won their first Olympic gold medal_______ Hoang Xuan Vinh won the men's 10m air pistol on 6 August, 2016.

A. when B. while C. after D. before Question 20: Some people are concerned with physical_______ when choosing a wife or husband.



46

A. attractiveness B. attractively C. attraction D. attractive Question 21: I saw a lot of new people at the party, _______ seemed familiar.

A. some of who B. some of whom C. whom D. some of that Question 22: Maths, Vietnamese literature, English are the_______ subjects in national exams.

A. additional B. favourite C. core D. center Question 23: My father isn't interested in tennis and_______.

A. so aren't my brothers B. my brothers don't either

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Ever since humans inhabited the earth, they have made use of various forms of communication. Generally, this expression of thoughts and feelings has been in the form of oral speech. When there is a language barrier, communication is accomplished through sign language in which motions stand for letters, words, and ideas. Tourists, the deaf, and the mute have had to resort to this form of expression. Many of these symbols of whole words are very picturesque and exact and can be used internationally, spelling, however, cannot. Body language transmits ideas or thoughts by certain actions, either intentionally or unintentionally. A wink can be a way of flirting or indicating that the party is only joking. A nod signifies approval, while shaking the head indicates a negative reaction. Other forms of nonlinguistic language can be found in Braille (a system of raised dots read with the fingertips), signal flags, Morse code, and smoke signals. Road maps and picture signs also guide, warn, and instruct people. While verbalization is the most common form of language, other systems and techniques also express human thoughts and feelings. (Source: TOEFL Reading)

Question 24: Which of the following best summarizes this passage? A. Everybody uses only one form of communication. B. Nonlinguistic language is invaluable to foreigners. C. When language is a barrier, people will find other forms of communication. D. Although other forms of communication exist, verbalization is the fastest.

Question 25: People need to communicate in order to_______. A. create language barriers B. keep from reading with their fingertip C. express thoughts and feelings D. be picturesque and exact

Question 26: The word "wink" in paragraph 2 means most nearly the same as_______. A. close two eyes briefly B. close one eye briefly C. bob the head up and down D. shake the head from side to side

Question 27: How many different forms of communication are mentioned here? A. 7 B. 9 C. 11 D. 5

Question 28: All of the following statements are true EXCEPT_______. A. the deaf and mute use an oral form of communication B. ideas and thoughts can be transmitted by body language C. verbalization is the most common form of communication D. there are many forms of communication in existence today

Question 29: Which form other than oral speech would be most commonly used among blind people? A. Braille B. Body language C. Signal flags D. Picture signs

Question 30: What is the best title for the passage? A. Ways of Expressing Feelings B. Picturesque Symbols of Communication C. The Many Forms of Communication D. The Important of Sign Language

Question 31: The word "these"in paragraphl refers to_______. A. thoughts and feelings B. the deaf and the mute C. tourists D. sign language motions



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Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to choose the word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks. In Germany, it's important to be serious in a work situation. They don't mix work and play so you shouldn't make jokes (32)_______ you do in the UK and USA when you first meet people. They work in a very organized way and prefer to do one thing at a time. They don't like- interruptions (33)_______ changes of schedule. Punctuality is very important so you should arrive on time for appointments. At meeting, it's important to follow the agenda and not interrupt (34)_______ speaker. If you give a presentation, you should focus (35)_______ facts and technical information and the quality of your company's products. You should also prepare well, as they may ask a lot of questions. Colleagues normally use the family names, and title - for example 'Doctor' or 'Professor', so you shouldn't use first names (36)_______ a person asks you to.

Question 32: A. as B. while C. as if D. such as Question 33: A. sudden B.suddenly C. abruptly D. promptly Question 34: A. the other B. others C. another D. other Question 35: A. to B. in C. on D. at Question 36: A. as B. since C. unless D. if only

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. The American education system requires that students complete 12 years of primary and secondary education prior to attending university or college. This may be accomplished either at public or government-operated schools, or at private schools. These 12 years of schooling or their equivalent may also be completed outside the USA, thus giving foreign students the opportunity to pursue the benefits of the American education system and obtain a quality American education. Perhaps one of the most impressive facts is that a large number of presidents, prime ministers and leaders from other countries have experienced the American education system and graduated from a university or school in the USA. In many fields and industries, the American education system offers the most cutting-edge, sought-after programs at the world's best schools. That is why graduating from an accredited American school and being exposed to the rigors of the American education system is an investment in your future. Whether you want to study at a top USA university, a top USA college, a vocational or high school, a thorough understanding of how the American education system works is essential. Without a clear grasp of the American education system, an international student will find it difficult to make the right academic choices. It is no surprise that the American education system and the American school system host more international students than any other country in the world!

Question 37: According to the text, students in the USA________. A. spend less than 12 years for primary and secondary education B. are made to take primary and secondary education in the country C. are not necessarily take primary and secondary education in the country D. needn't take primary and secondary education

Question 38: What does the word “their” in paragraph 1 refer to? A. students B. universities C. colleagues D. school

Question 39: Which sentence is TRUE? A. Many leaders all over the world have studied in the US. B. There are not many foreign students in the US. C. Foreign students are not offered opportunities in the US. D. The US education is not good enough for foreign students

Question 40: The writer_______ the US education. A. appreciates B. overstates C. underestimates D. dislikes

Question 41: What is the writer's advice?



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A. International students should have a thorough understanding of how the American education system works before going there to study. B. International students should not study at a top USA university, a top USA college, a vocational or high school. C. Without a clear grasp of the American education system, an international student can make the right academic choices. D. International students should not invest their future education in the US.

Question 42: The word “essential” in paragraph 2 could be best replaced by________. A. compulsory B. imperative C. neccessary D. advisory

Question 43: The expression “government-operated” in paragraph 1 could be best replaced by____. A. boarding B. independent C. state D. vocational

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following sentences. Question 44: John is studying hard. He doesn't want to fail the next exam.

A. John is studying hard in order that he not fail the next exam. B. John is studying hard in order to not to fail the next exam. C. John is studying hard so as to fail the next exam. D. John is studying hard in order not to fail the next exam.

Question 45: He felt very tired. However, he was determined to continue to climb up to the mountain. A. He felt so tired that he was determined to continue to climb up to the mountain. B. Tired as he might feel, he was determined to continue to climb up to the mountain. C. As of his tiredness, he was determined to continue to climb up to the mountain. D. Feeling very tired, he was determined to continue to climb up to the mountain.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges. Question 46: ~ Mary: "Hello, I’d like to speak to Mr. Green, please." ~ John: "___________"

A. I’m sorry, I’ll call again later. B. I’m afraid I don’t know. C. Sorry, can you say that again? D. Let’s wait.

Question 47: Two friends Mai and Nam are talking about Nam’s new cell phone. ~ Man: "Wow, I’ve never seen such a nice cell phone, Đào." ~ Lady: "___________"

A. I agree with you. B. Oh, I don’t know. C. Thank you. I’m glad you like it. D. You’re welcome.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is CLOSEST in meaning to the sentence given in each of the following questions. Question 48: My mother had the house decorated.

A. My mother has just decorated the house. B. The house was decorated by my mother. C. My mother had to decorate the house. D. My mother had someone decorate the house.

Question 49: She prefers going to the library to staying at home. A. She likes nothing better than going to the library. B. She stays at home instead of going to the library. C. She does not like either going to the library or staying at home. D. She would rather go to the library than stay at home.

Question 50: I wish George had come to Italy with us. A. I hope that George will go to Italy with us. B. I am pleased that George came to Italy with us. C. I am sorry that George didn't come to Italy with us. D. I am sorry that George isn't going to Italy with us.

___________THE END____________

SƠ GD&ĐT VINH PHUC ĐỀ KTCL ÔN THI THPT QUỐC GIA NĂM 2018



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TRƯƠNG THPT LIÊ N SƠN (Đề thi gồm: 04 trang)

Môn: TIẾNG ANH – ĐÊ SỐ 103 Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề


Mark the letter A, B, C or D on the answersheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following sentences. Question 1: A. believes B. develops C. physics D. parents Question 2: A. private B. attract C. marriage D. romantic

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position ofprimary stress in each of the following questions. Question 3: A. exchange B. support C. social D. attempt Question 4: A. compulsory B. admirable C. curriculum D. biography

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the italic part in each of the following questions. Question 5: My mom is always bad-tempered when I leave my room untidy.

A. easily annoyed or irritated B. very happy and satisfied C. feeling embarrassed D. talking too much

Question 6: Domestic chores will no longer be a burden thanks to the inventions of labour-saving devices. A. Official B. Schooling C. Foreign D. Household

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the italic part in each of the questions. Question 7: Tom Swayer became internationally famous for his novels.

A. infamous B. celebrated C. well-known D. unknown Question 8: Any student who neglects his or her homework is unlikely to do well at school.

A. puts off B. attends to C. approves of D. looks for

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 9: A large number of Indian men agrees that it is unwise to confide in their wives.

A. wives B. A large C. agrees D. confide in Question 10: Even though she looks very beautiful, she is twice older than my twenty-year-old sister. A. twenty-year-old B. Even though C. looks D. older than Question 11: Higher education is very importance to national economies, and it is also a source of trained and educated personnel for the whole country.

A. importance B. educated C. economies D. the whole country

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 12: I applied for the job, but was_______.

A. turned off B. got over C. turned down D. taken away Question 13: A(n)_______ is an official document stating that you have passed an examination, completed a course, or achieved some necessary qualifications.

A. test B. requirement C. education D. certificate Question 14: She took a course in fine arts_______ starting her own business in interior design.

A. in order to B. with reference to C. in terms of D. with a view to Question 15: The preparations_______ by the time the guests_______.

A. had finished - were arriving B. have finished - arrived C. had been finished - arrived D. have been finished - were arrive

Question 16: Her family and friends have given her lots of_______. A. support B. supportive C. supporter D. supporting C. neither does my brothers D. neither are my brothers



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Question 17: _______ schooling is compulsory in Australia between_______ ages of six and seventeen. A. Ø - the B. The - a C. The - Ø D. A - an

Question 18: The mother asked her son_______. A. where he has been B. where has he been C. where he had been D. where had he been

Question 19: Vietnam won their first Olympic gold medal_______ Hoang Xuan Vinh won the men's 10m air pistol on 6 August, 2016.

A. when B. while C. after D. before Question 20: Some people are concerned with physical_______ when choosing a wife or husband.

A. attractiveness B. attractively C. attraction D. attractive Question 21: I saw a lot of new people at the party, _______ seemed familiar.

A. some of who B. some of whom C. whom D. some of that Question 22: Maths, Vietnamese literature, English are the_______ subjects in national exams.

A. additional B. favourite C. core D. center Question 23: My father isn't interested in tennis and_______.

A. so aren't my brothers B. my brothers don't either

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Ever since humans inhabited the earth, they have made use of various forms of communication. Generally, this expression of thoughts and feelings has been in the form of oral speech. When there is a language barrier, communication is accomplished through sign language in which motions stand for letters, words, and ideas. Tourists, the deaf, and the mute have had to resort to this form of expression. Many of these symbols of whole words are very picturesque and exact and can be used internationally, spelling, however, cannot. Body language transmits ideas or thoughts by certain actions, either intentionally or unintentionally. A wink can be a way of flirting or indicating that the party is only joking. A nod signifies approval, while shaking the head indicates a negative reaction. Other forms of nonlinguistic language can be found in Braille (a system of raised dots read with the fingertips), signal flags, Morse code, and smoke signals. Road maps and picture signs also guide, warn, and instruct people. While verbalization is the most common form of language, other systems and techniques also express human thoughts and feelings. (Source: TOEFL Reading)

Question 24: Which of the following best summarizes this passage? A. Everybody uses only one form of communication. B. Nonlinguistic language is invaluable to foreigners. C. When language is a barrier, people will find other forms of communication. D. Although other forms of communication exist, verbalization is the fastest.

Question 25: People need to communicate in order to_______. A. create language barriers B. keep from reading with their fingertip C. express thoughts and feelings D. be picturesque and exact

Question 26: The word "wink" in paragraph 2 means most nearly the same as_______. A. close two eyes briefly B. close one eye briefly C. bob the head up and down D. shake the head from side to side

Question 27: How many different forms of communication are mentioned here? A. 7 B. 9 C. 11 D. 5

Question 28: All of the following statements are true EXCEPT_______. A. the deaf and mute use an oral form of communication B. ideas and thoughts can be transmitted by body language C. verbalization is the most common form of communication D. there are many forms of communication in existence today

Question 29: Which form other than oral speech would be most commonly used among blind people? A. Braille B. Body language C. Signal flags D. Picture signs



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Question 30: What is the best title for the passage? A. Ways of Expressing Feelings B. Picturesque Symbols of Communication C. The Many Forms of Communication D. The Important of Sign Language

Question 31: The word "these"in paragraphl refers to_______. A. thoughts and feelings B. the deaf and the mute C. tourists D. sign language motions

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to choose the word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks. In Germany, it's important to be serious in a work situation. They don't mix work and play so you shouldn't make jokes (32)_______ you do in the UK and USA when you first meet people. They work in a very organized way and prefer to do one thing at a time. They don't like- interruptions (33)_______ changes of schedule. Punctuality is very important so you should arrive on time for appointments. At meeting, it's important to follow the agenda and not interrupt (34)_______ speaker. If you give a presentation, you should focus (35)_______ facts and technical information and the quality of your company's products. You should also prepare well, as they may ask a lot of questions. Colleagues normally use the family names, and title - for example 'Doctor' or 'Professor', so you shouldn't use first names (36)_______ a person asks you to.

Question 32: A. as B. while C. as if D. such as Question 33: A. sudden B.suddenly C. abruptly D. promptly Question 34: A. the other B. others C. another D. other Question 35: A. to B. in C. on D. at Question 36: A. as B. since C. unless D. if only

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. The American education system requires that students complete 12 years of primary and secondary education prior to attending university or college. This may be accomplished either at public or government-operated schools, or at private schools. These 12 years of schooling or their equivalent may also be completed outside the USA, thus giving foreign students the opportunity to pursue the benefits of the American education system and obtain a quality American education. Perhaps one of the most impressive facts is that a large number of presidents, prime ministers and leaders from other countries have experienced the American education system and graduated from a university or school in the USA. In many fields and industries, the American education system offers the most cutting-edge, sought-after programs at the world's best schools. That is why graduating from an accredited American school and being exposed to the rigors of the American education system is an investment in your future. Whether you want to study at a top USA university, a top USA college, a vocational or high school, a thorough understanding of how the American education system works is essential. Without a clear grasp of the American education system, an international student will find it difficult to make the right academic choices. It is no surprise that the American education system and the American school system host more international students than any other country in the world!

Question 37: According to the text, students in the USA________. A. spend less than 12 years for primary and secondary education B. are made to take primary and secondary education in the country C. are not necessarily take primary and secondary education in the country D. needn't take primary and secondary education

Question 38: What does the word “their” in paragraph 1 refer to? A. students B. universities C. colleagues D. school

Question 39: Which sentence is TRUE? A. Many leaders all over the world have studied in the US.



52

B. There are not many foreign students in the US. C. Foreign students are not offered opportunities in the US. D. The US education is not good enough for foreign students

Question 40: The writer_______ the US education. A. appreciates B. overstates C. underestimates D. dislikes

Question 41: What is the writer's advice? A. International students should have a thorough understanding of how the American education system works before going there to study. B. International students should not study at a top USA university, a top USA college, a vocational or high school. C. Without a clear grasp of the American education system, an international student can make the right academic choices. D. International students should not invest their future education in the US.

Question 42: The word “essential” in paragraph 2 could be best replaced by________. A. compulsory B. imperative C. neccessary D. advisory

Question 43: The expression “government-operated” in paragraph 1 could be best replaced by____. A. boarding B. independent C. state D. vocational

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following sentences. Question 44: John is studying hard. He doesn't want to fail the next exam.

A. John is studying hard in order that he not fail the next exam. B. John is studying hard in order to not to fail the next exam. C. John is studying hard so as to fail the next exam. D. John is studying hard in order not to fail the next exam.

Question 45: He felt very tired. However, he was determined to continue to climb up to the mountain. A. He felt so tired that he was determined to continue to climb up to the mountain. B. Tired as he might feel, he was determined to continue to climb up to the mountain. C. As of his tiredness, he was determined to continue to climb up to the mountain. D. Feeling very tired, he was determined to continue to climb up to the mountain.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges. Question 46: ~ Mary: "Hello, I’d like to speak to Mr. Green, please." ~ John: "___________"

A. I’m sorry, I’ll call again later. B. I’m afraid I don’t know. C. Sorry, can you say that again? D. Let’s wait.

Question 47: Two friends Mai and Nam are talking about Nam’s new cell phone. ~ Man: "Wow, I’ve never seen such a nice cell phone, Đào." ~ Lady: "___________"

A. I agree with you. B. Oh, I don’t know. C. Thank you. I’m glad you like it. D. You’re welcome.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is CLOSEST in meaning to the sentence given in each of the following questions. Question 48: My mother had the house decorated.

A. My mother has just decorated the house. B. The house was decorated by my mother. C. My mother had to decorate the house. D. My mother had someone decorate the house.

Question 49: She prefers going to the library to staying at home. A. She likes nothing better than going to the library. B. She stays at home instead of going to the library. C. She does not like either going to the library or staying at home. D. She would rather go to the library than stay at home.

Question 50: I wish George had come to Italy with us. A. I hope that George will go to Italy with us.



53

B. I am pleased that George came to Italy with us. C. I am sorry that George didn't come to Italy with us. D. I am sorry that George isn't going to Italy with us.

___________THE END____________






Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1: A.cooked B. laughed C. practiced D. decided Question 2: A.identify B. application C. indicate D. chemistry


Question 3: A. government B. customer C. domestic D. production Question 4: A. express B. effort C. office D. comment

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the italic word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 5: Water and fresh air are very necessary for every living thing. A. essential B. difficult C. expensive D. wasteful Question 6: She decided to remain celibate and devote her life to helping the homeless and orphans. A. divorced B. single C. separated D. married

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the italic word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 7: . Their classmates are writing letters of acceptance. A. confirmation B. agreement C. refusal D. admission Question 8: How on earth could they do away with a lovely old building like that and put a car park there instead?

A. keep B. eliminate C. decrease D. squander

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 9: The more cigarettes he smokes, the worst his health will be. A. will be B. The more C. the worst D. smokes Question 10: There were so much books in the library that I didn’t know which one to choose.

A. that B. There were C. to choose D. much Question 11: He comes from a remote and mountainous area locating in the south .

A. remote & mountainous B. the south C. locating D. comes from

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 12: The Association of Southeast Asian Nations, commonly referred to as ASEAN, is a geo-political and_________ organization.

A. economy B. economic C. economics D. economical Question 13: Many plant and animal species are now on the_________ of extinction. A. danger B. border C. verge D. margin Question 14: Bill and Ted_________ each other straight away and became firm friends.

A. took after B. held together C. took to D. let in



54

Question 15: She is the new television presenter_________ everyone is talking. A. that B. whom C. about that D. about whom Question 16: Mary as well as his friends_________ their hometown recently.

A. returned B. have returned C. has returned D. returns Question 17: If I_________ that there was a test yesterday, I would not be punished now. A. had known B. have known C. knew D. would know Question 18: I can't help you any more because I myself have so many problems to_________. A. keep up with B. put up with C. deal with D. get on with Question 19: Only when I saw him yesterday_________ how old he is now.

A. that I realized B. I did realize C. did I realize D. I realized that Question 20: When I first came to this village, it was a quiet place. But since then a lot of houses _______. A. had been built B. were built C. are being built D. have been built Question 21: Not much happened yet, _________ ? A. did they B. did it C. didn't it D. was it Question 22: The lecturer's speech_________ for the majority of the listeners to get what he meant A. wasn't clear enough B. wasn't enough clear C. was too clearly D. wasn't so clear Question 23: He often tells the children_________ when they play water sports.

A. be careful B. not be careless C. to be careful D. to be careful with


Although only a small percentage of the electromagnetic radiation that is emitted by the Sun is ultraviolet (UV) radiation, the amount that is emitted would be enough to cause severe damage to most forms of life on Earth were it all to reach the surface of the Earth. Fortunately, all of the Sun’s ultraviolet radiation does not reach the Êarth because of a layer of oxygen, called the ozone layer e n c i r c l i n g the Earth in the stratosphere at an altitude of about 15 miles above the Earth. The ozone layer absorbs much of the Sun’s ultraviolet radiation and prevents it from reaching the Earth.

Ozone is a form of oxygen in which each molecule consists of three atoms (O3) instead of the two atoms (O2) usually found in an oxygen molecule. Ozone forms in the stratosphere in a process that is initiated by ultraviolet radiation from the Sun. UV radiation from the Sun splits oxygen molecules with two atoms into f r e e oxygen atoms, and each of these unattached oxygen atoms then joins up with an oxygen molecule to form ozone. UV radiation is also capable of splitting up ozone molecules; thus, ozone is constantly forming, splitting, and reforming in the stratosphere. When UV radiation is absorbed during the process of ozone formation and reformation, i t is unable to reach Earth and cause damage there.

Recently, however, the ozone layer over parts of the Earth has been diminishing. Chief among the culprits in the case of the disappearing ozone, those that are really responsible, are the chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs). CFCs meander up from Earth into the stratosphere, where they break down and release chlorine. The released chlorine reacts with ozone in the stratosphere to form chlorine monoxide (CIO) and oxygen (O2). The chlorine then becomes free to go through the cycle over and over again. One chlorine atom can, in fact, destroy hundreds of thousands of ozone molecules in this repetitious cycle, and the effects of this destructive process are now becoming evident.

Question 24. According to the passage, ultraviolet radiation from the Sun_______. A. is causing severe damage to the Earth's ozone layer B. is only a fraction of the Sun's electromagnetic radiation C. creates electromagnetic radiation D. always reaches the Earth

Question 25. The word “encircling” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to_______. A. rotating B. attacking C. raising D. surrounding

Question 26. It is stated in the passage that the ozone layer_______.



55

A. enables ultraviolet radiation to reach the Earth B. reflects ultraviolet radiation C. shields the Earth from a lot of ultraviolet radiation D. reaches down to the Earth

Question 27. The pronoun “it” in paragraph 2 refers to_______. A. radiation B. process C. formation D. damage

Question 28. The word “culprits'' in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to which of the following?

A. Guilty parties B. Detectives C. Group members D. Leaders

Question 29. According to the passage, what happens after a chlorine molecule reacts with an ozone molecule?

A. The ozone breaks down into three oxygen atoms. B. Two different molecules are created. C. The two molecules combine into one molecule. D. Three distinct molecules result.

Question 30. The paragraph following the passage most likely discusses_______. A. the negative results of the cycle of ozone destruction B. where chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) come from C. the causes of the destruction of ozone molecules

D. how electromagnetic radiation is created


Here are tips that help succeed in your job interview: Always arrive early. If you do not know where the organization is located, call for exact

directions (31)_______ advance. Leave some extra time for any traffic, parking, or (32)_______ events. If you are running late, call right away and let someone know. The best time to arrive is approximately 5 - 10 minutes early. Give (33)_______ the time to read your resume one more time, to catch your breath, and to be ready for the interview. Once you are at the office, treat everyone you encounter with respect. Be (34)_______ to everyone as soon as you walk in the door.

Wear a professional business suit. This point should be emphasized enough. First impressions are extremely important in the interview process. Women should (35)_______ wearing too much jewelry or make up. Men should avoid flashy suits or wearing too much perfume. While a suit is the standard interview attire in a business environment, if you think it is an informal environment, call before and ask. Regardless, you can never be overdressed if you are wearing a tailored suit.

Question 31: A. with B. in C. on D. for Question 32: A. expected B. unexpected C. unexpectedly D. expectedly Question 33: A. you B. your C. yours D. yourself Question 34: A. pleasant B. happy C. disappointed D. excited Question 35: A. avoid B. suggest C. enjoy D. mind

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 43. Rachel Carson was born in 1907 in springsdale , Pennsylvania. She studied biology in college and zoology at Jonhs Hopkins University, and received her master degree in 1933 .In 1936, she was hired by the U.S Fish and Widlife Service , where she works most of her life.

Carson’s book , Under the Sea Wind, was publish in 1941. It received excellent reviews, but sales were poor until it was reissued in 1952 , In that year, she published The Sea Around Us, which provided a fascinating look beneath the ocean’n surface, emphasizing human history as well as geology and marine biology . Her imagery and language had a poetic quality . Carson consulted no less than 1,000 printed sources .She had voluminous correspondence and frequent discussions with experts in the fielD.However , she always realized the limitations of her non technical readers. In 1962, Carson published Silent Spring , a book that sparked considerable controversy . It proved how much harm was done by the uncontrolled , reckless use of insecticides .She detailed how they poison the food supply of animals, kill birds and fish, and contaminate human food. At the time,



56

spokesmen for the chemical industry mounted personal attacks against Carson and issued propaganda to indicate that her findings were flawed. However , she work was vindicated by a 1963 report of the President’s Sciance Advisory Committee.

Question 36: The passage mainly discusses Rachel Carson’s work______ A.as a researcher B. at college C. as a writer D. at the Fish and Wildlife Service Question 37: In the passage, what did Carson chiefly study at Jonhs Hopkins University? A. Oceanography B. History C. Literature D.Zoology Question 38: When publishing her first book, Carson was closest to the age of_______.

A. 26 B. 29 C. 34 D. 45 Question 39: We can guess that in 1952, the book Under the Sea Wind was______.

A. outdated B. less popular C. praised a lot D. sold more than before Question 40: Which of the following is least accurate to describe The Sea Around Us? A. Highly technical C. Poetic C. Fascinating D. Well- researched Question 41: The word “reckless” is closest in meaning to______. A. unnecessary B. limited C. continuous D. irresponsible Question 42: According to the passage, Silent spring is mainly a(n)________ to environment A. attack B. discussion C. warning D. illustration Question 43: What can be inferred about the company that eventually bought Carlson’s process?

A. It became smaller B. It became successful C. It went bankrupt D. It didn’t use Carlson’s machine

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 44: He behaved so recklessly, so he would be disqualified from keeping his last job.

A. If he hadn’t behaved so recklessly, he hadn’t quit his last job. B. Without his reckless behavior, he would have lost his last job. C. Had he not behaved so recklessly, he wouldn’t have been fired from his last job. D. He didn’t quit his job because he knew that he had behaved so recklessly.

Question 45: I can’t stand his talking foolishly when everybody talks about something in a serious way.

A. Everybody talks seriously when he talks foolishly. B. I don’t mind his talking foolishly when everybody talks seriously. C. I can’t understand what he talks when people talk foolishly. D. I hate him talking foolishly when people talk seriously.

Question 46: “If I were you, I wouldn’t read the job advertisement and position description carelessly.” Helen said.

A. Helen recommended that I take no notice of the job advertisement and position description. B. Helen advised me on reading the job advertisement and position description carelessly. C. Helen advised me against reading the job advertisement and position description carelessly. D. I was blamed for not reading the job advertisement and position description carefully by Helen.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges. Question 47: Two friends Peter and Linda are talking about pet.

- Peter: ““ How lovely your cats are!” - Linda: “ ____________” A. Really? They are B. Thank you, it is nice of you to say so C. Can you say it again D. I love them, too

Question 48: David’s computer is out of order . He asks his mother: David: “Is it right if I use your computer, mom?” - Mom: “______ “ A. I don’t care B. I accept it C. Sure, go ahead D. Oh, forget it



57

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 49: The holiday was so expensive. We could only afford five days.


Question 50: The basketball team knew they lost the match. They soon started to blame each other. A. As soon as they blamed each other, the basketball team knew they lost the match. B. No sooner had the basketball team started to blame each other than they knew they lost the match. C. Not only did the basketball team lose the match but they blamed each other as well. D. Hardly had the basketball team known they lost the match when they started to blame each other.

___________THE END____________







Question 1: A.cooked B. laughed C. practiced D. decided Question 2: A.identify B. application C. indicate D. chemistry


Question 3: A. government B. customer C. domestic D. production Question 4: A. express B. effort C. office D. comment

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the italic word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 5: Water and fresh air are very necessary for every living thing. A. essential B. difficult C. expensive D. wasteful Question 6: She decided to remain celibate and devote her life to helping the homeless and orphans. A. divorced B. single C. separated D. married

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the italic word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 7: . Their classmates are writing letters of acceptance. A. confirmation B. agreement C. refusal D. admission Question 8: How on earth could they do away with a lovely old building like that and put a car park there instead?

A. keep B. eliminate C. decrease D. squander

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 9: The more cigarettes he smokes, the worst his health will be. A. will be B. The more C. the worst D. smokes Question 10: There were so much books in the library that I didn’t know which one to choose.

A. that B. There were C. to choose D. much Question 11: He comes from a remote and mountainous area locating in the south .



58

A. remote & mountainous B. the south C. locating D. comes from

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 12: The Association of Southeast Asian Nations, commonly referred to as ASEAN, is a geo-political and_________ organization.

A. economy B. economic C. economics D. economical Question 13: Many plant and animal species are now on the_________ of extinction. A. danger B. border C. verge D. margin Question 14: Bill and Ted_________ each other straight away and became firm friends.

A. took after B. held together C. took to D. let in Question 15: She is the new television presenter_________ everyone is talking. A. that B. whom C. about that D. about whom Question 16: Mary as well as his friends_________ their hometown recently.

A. returned B. have returned C. has returned D. returns Question 17: If I_________ that there was a test yesterday, I would not be punished now. A. had known B. have known C. knew D. would know Question 18: I can't help you any more because I myself have so many problems to_________. A. keep up with B. put up with C. deal with D. get on with Question 19: Only when I saw him yesterday_________ how old he is now.

A. that I realized B. I did realize C. did I realize D. I realized that Question 20: When I first came to this village, it was a quiet place. But since then a lot of houses _______. A. had been built B. were built C. are being built D. have been built Question 21: Not much happened yet, _________ ? A. did they B. did it C. didn't it D. was it Question 22: The lecturer's speech_________ for the majority of the listeners to get what he meant A. wasn't clear enough B. wasn't enough clear C. was too clearly D. wasn't so clear Question 23: He often tells the children_________ when they play water sports.

A. be careful B. not be careless C. to be careful D. to be careful with


Although only a small percentage of the electromagnetic radiation that is emitted by the Sun is ultraviolet (UV) radiation, the amount that is emitted would be enough to cause severe damage to most forms of life on Earth were it all to reach the surface of the Earth. Fortunately, all of the Sun’s ultraviolet radiation does not reach the Êarth because of a layer of oxygen, called the ozone layer e n c i r c l i n g the Earth in the stratosphere at an altitude of about 15 miles above the Earth. The ozone layer absorbs much of the Sun’s ultraviolet radiation and prevents it from reaching the Earth.

Ozone is a form of oxygen in which each molecule consists of three atoms (O3) instead of the two atoms (O2) usually found in an oxygen molecule. Ozone forms in the stratosphere in a process that is initiated by ultraviolet radiation from the Sun. UV radiation from the Sun splits oxygen molecules with two atoms into f r e e oxygen atoms, and each of these unattached oxygen atoms then joins up with an oxygen molecule to form ozone. UV radiation is also capable of splitting up ozone molecules; thus, ozone is constantly forming, splitting, and reforming in the stratosphere. When UV radiation is absorbed during the process of ozone formation and reformation, i t is unable to reach Earth and cause damage there.

Recently, however, the ozone layer over parts of the Earth has been diminishing. Chief among the culprits in the case of the disappearing ozone, those that are really responsible, are the chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs). CFCs meander up from Earth into the stratosphere, where they break down and release chlorine. The released chlorine reacts with ozone in the stratosphere to form chlorine monoxide (CIO) and oxygen (O2). The chlorine then becomes free to go through the cycle



59

over and over again. One chlorine atom can, in fact, destroy hundreds of thousands of ozone molecules in this repetitious cycle, and the effects of this destructive process are now becoming evident.

Question 24. According to the passage, ultraviolet radiation from the Sun_______. A. is causing severe damage to the Earth's ozone layer B. is only a fraction of the Sun's electromagnetic radiation C. creates electromagnetic radiation D. always reaches the Earth

Question 25. The word “encircling” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to_______. A. rotating B. attacking C. raising D. surrounding

Question 26. It is stated in the passage that the ozone layer_______. A. enables ultraviolet radiation to reach the Earth B. reflects ultraviolet radiation C. shields the Earth from a lot of ultraviolet radiation D. reaches down to the Earth

Question 27. The pronoun “it” in paragraph 2 refers to_______. A. radiation B. process C. formation D. damage

Question 28. The word “culprits'' in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to which of the following?

A. Guilty parties B. Detectives C. Group members D. Leaders

Question 29. According to the passage, what happens after a chlorine molecule reacts with an ozone molecule?

A. The ozone breaks down into three oxygen atoms. B. Two different molecules are created. C. The two molecules combine into one molecule. D. Three distinct molecules result.

Question 30. The paragraph following the passage most likely discusses_______. A. the negative results of the cycle of ozone destruction B. where chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) come from C. the causes of the destruction of ozone molecules

D. how electromagnetic radiation is created


Here are tips that help succeed in your job interview: Always arrive early. If you do not know where the organization is located, call for exact

directions (31)_______ advance. Leave some extra time for any traffic, parking, or (32)_______ events. If you are running late, call right away and let someone know. The best time to arrive is approximately 5 - 10 minutes early. Give (33)_______ the time to read your resume one more time, to catch your breath, and to be ready for the interview. Once you are at the office, treat everyone you encounter with respect. Be (34)_______ to everyone as soon as you walk in the door.

Wear a professional business suit. This point should be emphasized enough. First impressions are extremely important in the interview process. Women should (35)_______ wearing too much jewelry or make up. Men should avoid flashy suits or wearing too much perfume. While a suit is the standard interview attire in a business environment, if you think it is an informal environment, call before and ask. Regardless, you can never be overdressed if you are wearing a tailored suit.

Question 31: A. with B. in C. on D. for Question 32: A. expected B. unexpected C. unexpectedly D. expectedly Question 33: A. you B. your C. yours D. yourself Question 34: A. pleasant B. happy C. disappointed D. excited Question 35: A. avoid B. suggest C. enjoy D. mind




60

Rachel Carson was born in 1907 in springsdale , Pennsylvania. She studied biology in college and zoology at Jonhs Hopkins University, and received her master degree in 1933 .In 1936, she was hired by the U.S Fish and Widlife Service , where she works most of her life.

Carson’s book , Under the Sea Wind, was publish in 1941. It received excellent reviews, but sales were poor until it was reissued in 1952 , In that year, she published The Sea Around Us, which provided a fascinating look beneath the ocean’n surface, emphasizing human history as well as geology and marine biology . Her imagery and language had a poetic quality . Carson consulted no less than 1,000 printed sources .She had voluminous correspondence and frequent discussions with experts in the fielD.However , she always realized the limitations of her non technical readers. In 1962, Carson published Silent Spring , a book that sparked considerable controversy . It proved how much harm was done by the uncontrolled , reckless use of insecticides .She detailed how they poison the food supply of animals, kill birds and fish, and contaminate human food. At the time, spokesmen for the chemical industry mounted personal attacks against Carson and issued propaganda to indicate that her findings were flawed. However , she work was vindicated by a 1963 report of the President’s Sciance Advisory Committee.

Question 36: The passage mainly discusses Rachel Carson’s work______ A.as a researcher B. at college C. as a writer D. at the Fish and Wildlife Service Question 37: In the passage, what did Carson chiefly study at Jonhs Hopkins University? A. Oceanography B. History C. Literature D.Zoology Question 38: When publishing her first book, Carson was closest to the age of_______.

A. 26 B. 29 C. 34 D. 45 Question 39: We can guess that in 1952, the book Under the Sea Wind was______.

A. outdated B. less popular C. praised a lot D. sold more than before Question 40: Which of the following is least accurate to describe The Sea Around Us? A. Highly technical C. Poetic C. Fascinating D. Well- researched Question 41: The word “reckless” is closest in meaning to______. A. unnecessary B. limited C. continuous D. irresponsible Question 42: According to the passage, Silent spring is mainly a(n)________ to environment A. attack B. discussion C. warning D. illustration Question 43: What can be inferred about the company that eventually bought Carlson’s process?

A. It became smaller B. It became successful C. It went bankrupt D. It didn’t use Carlson’s machine

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 44: He behaved so recklessly, so he would be disqualified from keeping his last job.

A. If he hadn’t behaved so recklessly, he hadn’t quit his last job. B. Without his reckless behavior, he would have lost his last job. C. Had he not behaved so recklessly, he wouldn’t have been fired from his last job. D. He didn’t quit his job because he knew that he had behaved so recklessly.

Question 45: I can’t stand his talking foolishly when everybody talks about something in a serious way.

A. Everybody talks seriously when he talks foolishly. B. I don’t mind his talking foolishly when everybody talks seriously. C. I can’t understand what he talks when people talk foolishly. D. I hate him talking foolishly when people talk seriously.

Question 46: “If I were you, I wouldn’t read the job advertisement and position description carelessly.” Helen said.

A. Helen recommended that I take no notice of the job advertisement and position description. B. Helen advised me on reading the job advertisement and position description carelessly. C. Helen advised me against reading the job advertisement and position description carelessly.



61

D. I was blamed for not reading the job advertisement and position description carefully by Helen.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges. Question 47: Two friends Peter and Linda are talking about pet.

- Peter: ““ How lovely your cats are!” - Linda: “ ____________” A. Really? They are B. Thank you, it is nice of you to say so C. Can you say it again D. I love them, too

Question 48: David’s computer is out of order . He asks his mother: David: “Is it right if I use your computer, mom?” - Mom: “______ “ A. I don’t care B. I accept it C. Sure, go ahead D. Oh, forget it

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 49: The holiday was so expensive. We could only afford five days.


Question 50: The basketball team knew they lost the match. They soon started to blame each other. A. As soon as they blamed each other, the basketball team knew they lost the match. B. No sooner had the basketball team started to blame each other than they knew they lost the match. C. Not only did the basketball team lose the match but they blamed each other as well. D. Hardly had the basketball team known they lost the match when they started to blame each other.

___________THE END____________






Mark to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following Question 1. A. says B. savior C. fade D. wave Question 2. A. bin B. skin C. kite D. pillar

Mark to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following Question 3. A. employment B. remember C. concentrate D. position Question 4. A. express B. effort C. office D. comment

Mark to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to theunderlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 5. They live in a fairly modest house, considering their wealth.

A. expensive B. fairly small C. very cheap D. very big Question 6. We must cooperate closely in order to finish the project on time .

A. help B. work together C. agree D. assist

Mark to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.



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Question 7. Jack is said to be very honest . A. untrue B. unkind C. inhonest D. dishonest Question 8. She wrote me a vicious letter.

A. helpful B. gently C. dangerous D. healthy

Mark to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 9. Each of the students in the accounting class has to type their own research paper this semester. A. accounting B. their own research C. Each of D. has to type Question 10. In addition to save on gas, the modern car is designed to save on maintenance expenses. A. save on maintenance B. save on C. dangerous D. the designed Question 11. Mrs. Stevens, along with her cousins from New Mexico, are planning to attend the festivities. A. along with B. are C. to attend D. her cousins

Mark A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 12. They stayed for hours, which I was very_______.

A. annoyed B. annoyed about C. annoying D. annoying me Question 13. There are different kinds of music to_______ your taste

A. miss B. fit C. tight D. suit Question 14. By_______ the housework done, my mother has more time to pursue her career.

A. ordering B. taking C. having D. making Question 15. In many big cities, people have to_______ up with noise, overcrowding and bad air.

A. keep B. catch C. face D. put Question 16. She_______ on her computer for more than two hours when she decided to stop for a rest.

A. has worked B. has been working C. was working D. had been working Question 17. _______ the weather forecast it will rain heavily later this morning.

A. On account of B. Due to C. According to D. Because of Question 18. The school was closed for a month because of serious_______ of fever.

A. outcome B. outburst C. outbreak D. outset Question 19. He’d hardly finished doing his homework when you arrived, _______?

A. didn’t he B. had he C. would he D. hadn’t he Question 20. These chairs are_______ better than the others.

A. as B. very C. much D. either Question 21. Why did Berth ask you_______ a bicycle?

A. that if you had B. do you have C. that you had D. if you had Question 22. Be careful with your gun! You may________ somebody.

A. injure B. wound C. hurt D. ache Question 23. These people_______ for the most successful company in the town.

A. are seeming to work B. seem working C. seem to be working D. are seeming to be working

Read the following passage and mark to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions Traveling is one of the most popular forms of recreation in the USA. Most American employees receive an annual vacation with pay, and it is a good time off for traveling. Traveling within the country is popular because foreign travel generally takes more time and money. However, Americans who wish to vacation outside the USA are free to go almost anywhere. Obtaining a passport is a routine matter. Every year about 13 million Americans travel abroad. The most popular vacation periods are during the summer and during the two-week school break on the Christmas and New Year’s holidays. These periods are also the most crowded and generally the most expensive time to travel, so people who can adjust their schedules sometimes choose vacation in the autumn. American vacationers often travel by car. Most families have a car, and those who do not have a car can rent one. Cars are usually the economical way to travel, especially for the



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families. It is also fairly fast and convenient. Excellent highways connect the major cities. They enable vacationers to travel at an almost steady speed of 55 to 65 miles an hour. Tourists that want to travel faster often fly to their destination and then rent a car to go around when they get there.

Question 24. The reading text is about________. A. Christmas and New Year B going abroad

C. traveling in USA D. renting a car for traveling Question 25. Traveling in the________.is the least expensive. A. spring B. summer C. winter D. autumn Question 26. Which sentence is NOT correct? A. Most Americans like traveling. B. Most American people travel abroad every year. C. There is a two-week break on the Christmas and the New Year’s holidays. D. It is difficult to obtain a passport in the USA. Question 27. The word one in the text of the text refers to________. A. a vacationer B. a family C. a car D. a holiday Question 28. Traveling by car is________. A. cheap B. very expensive C. not appreciated D. not suitable for families

Read the following passage and mark to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks

Before the telephone invented by Alexander Graham Bell in 1876, it was hard for people (29)________ over long distances. They wrote letters to each other. It could take days or even weeks for letters to be (30)________ Then people learned how (31)________ telegraph messages. The messages traveled as electric signals that represented a code of dots and dashes. An operator on the other end converted the dots and dashes into a regular message. Bell’s first telephone call went over the same wires used for telegraph messages. As the telephone became (32)________ and more popular, it largely replaced the telegraph. Today, our huge telephone network does many things besides carrying telephone calls. It sends copies of letters and pictures from one machine to another, called a (33)________ machine…

Question 29. A. to communicate B. communicate C. communicating D. communicated Question 30. A. seen B. arrived C. delivered D. coming Question 31. A. to call B. to send C. to see D. to leave Question 32. A. more B. less C. better D. much Question 33. A. phone B. telegraph C. printing D. fax

Read the following passage and mark to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions Over a period of time, many habitats change with respect to the types of plants and animals that live there. This change is known as succession

Succession occurs because plants and animals cause a change in the environment in which they live. The first weeds and grasses that appear on a bare field, for example, change the environment by shielding the soil from the direct sunlight. As these plants spread, the ground surface becomes cooler and moisture, than it was originally. Thus, the environment at the ground surface has been changed. The new surface conditions favor the sprouting of shrubs. As shrubs grow, they kill the grasses by preventing light from reaching them and also build up the soil in the area, in addition, they attract animals that also enhance the shrubs. They are not able to shade out oak and hickory seedlings, however, they have found the forest floor suitable. These seedlings grow in to large trees that eventually shade out the pines.

Question 34. What is the best title of this passage? A. The importance of weeds and grasses B. How environmental habitats change

C. The success of oak and hickory D. Animal and plant habitat Question 35. Which is correct order of plant succession in the example in the passage?



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A. Weeds, pine, shrubs, oak B. Oak, pines, shrubs, weeds

C. Weeds, shrubs, pines, oak D. Shrubs, weeds, pines, oaks

Question 36. According to the passage, how do weeds and grasses affect the soil?

A. They make it cooler and wetter B. They attract animal to it C. They speed seeds on it D. They add nutrients to it

Question 37. It can be inferred from the passage that________. A. oak and hickory trees grow taller than pines B. weeds and grasses prefer cold climate

C. pines and grasses can exist together D. birds discourage the growth of shrubs

Question 38. Which of the following is a stage of succession as described in the passage?

A. A forest cut down to build an airport B. A flood washing away a crop of wheat C. Wildflowers growing in an unused parking lot D. Animals being tamed by children

Question 39. Which of the following encourages the life of animals? A. large trees B. pine seedlings C. grasses D. shrubs

Question 40. The word originally is closest in meaning to________. A. specially B. at the first source C. in the first place D. for a short time

Question 41. The word sprouting is closest in meaning to________. A. blossoming B. starting to grow C. flourishing D. nourishing

Question 42. The word shielding can be replace by________. A. protecting B. hiding C. exploring D. changing

Question 43. Compared to pines, hickories are________. A. higher B. shorter C. as high D. more suitable

Mark to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 44. They arrived too late to get good seats.

A. They had to stand for the whole show. B. Although they were late they found some good seats. C. They got good seats some time after they arrived. D. When they arrived the good seats were already taken.

Question 45. After the very salty food we had, we were all dying of thirst. A. We were very thirsty after having the very salty food. B. We all died because we were too thirsty. C. The food was not salty enough for us to have. D. We all died because there was not enough food.

Question 46. Nothing but the whole story would satisfy Tim. A. Tim wouldn’t be satisfied with anything. B. Tim insisted on being told the complete story. C. On the whole, Tim was satisfied with the story. D. Tim wanted to know just the end of the story.

Mark to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges. Question 47. – Franc: “Would you like beer or wine?” - Luis: “___________”

A. No, I've no choice. B. I couldn’t agree more. C. I'd prefer beer, please. D. Yes, I'd love to.

Question 48. – Marx: “_____________” - Mike: “He's tall and thin with blue eyes.” A. What does John like? B. How is John? C. Who does John look like? D. What does John look like?

Mark to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 49. They can’t work. They are too tired.

A. When they are too tired, they can work B. Because they can’t work, they’re too tired C. They are too tired that they can’t work D. They are too tired to work

Question 50. I can't stand this weather. It's getting worse and worse.



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A. The weather is making me worse. B. The weather is not better but I can stand it. C. I can't bear this bad weather any more. D. I can't stand up in this bad weather.

___________THE END____________






Mark to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following Question 1. A. says B. savior C. fade D. wave Question 2. A. bin B. skin C. kite D. pillar

Mark to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following Question 3. A. employment B. remember C. concentrate D. position Question 4. A. express B. effort C. office D. comment

Mark to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to theunderlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 5. They live in a fairly modest house, considering their wealth.

A. expensive B. fairly small C. very cheap D. very big Question 6. We must cooperate closely in order to finish the project on time .

A. help B. work together C. agree D. assist

Mark to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 7. Jack is said to be very honest . A. untrue B. unkind C. inhonest D. dishonest Question 8. She wrote me a vicious letter.

A. helpful B. gently C. dangerous D. healthy

Mark to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 9. Each of the students in the accounting class has to type their own research paper this semester. A. accounting B. their own research C. Each of D. has to type Question 10. In addition to save on gas, the modern car is designed to save on maintenance expenses. A. save on maintenance B. save on C. dangerous D. the designed Question 11. Mrs. Stevens, along with her cousins from New Mexico, are planning to attend the festivities. A. along with B. are C. to attend D. her cousins

Mark A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 12. They stayed for hours, which I was very_______.

A. annoyed B. annoyed about C. annoying D. annoying me Question 13. There are different kinds of music to_______ your taste

A. miss B. fit C. tight D. suit Question 14. By_______ the housework done, my mother has more time to pursue her career.

A. ordering B. taking C. having D. making Question 15. In many big cities, people have to_______ up with noise, overcrowding and bad air.

A. keep B. catch C. face D. put Question 16. She_______ on her computer for more than two hours when she decided to stop for a rest.

A. has worked B. has been working C. was working D. had been working



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Question 17. _______ the weather forecast it will rain heavily later this morning. A. On account of B. Due to C. According to D. Because of

Question 18. The school was closed for a month because of serious_______ of fever. A. outcome B. outburst C. outbreak D. outset

Question 19. He’d hardly finished doing his homework when you arrived, _______? A. didn’t he B. had he C. would he D. hadn’t he

Question 20. These chairs are_______ better than the others. A. as B. very C. much D. either

Question 21. Why did Berth ask you_______ a bicycle? A. that if you had B. do you have C. that you had D. if you had

Question 22. Be careful with your gun! You may________ somebody. A. injure B. wound C. hurt D. ache

Question 23. These people_______ for the most successful company in the town. A. are seeming to work B. seem working C. seem to be working D. are seeming to be working

Read the following passage and mark to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions Traveling is one of the most popular forms of recreation in the USA. Most American employees receive an annual vacation with pay, and it is a good time off for traveling. Traveling within the country is popular because foreign travel generally takes more time and money. However, Americans who wish to vacation outside the USA are free to go almost anywhere. Obtaining a passport is a routine matter. Every year about 13 million Americans travel abroad. The most popular vacation periods are during the summer and during the two-week school break on the Christmas and New Year’s holidays. These periods are also the most crowded and generally the most expensive time to travel, so people who can adjust their schedules sometimes choose vacation in the autumn. American vacationers often travel by car. Most families have a car, and those who do not have a car can rent one. Cars are usually the economical way to travel, especially for the families. It is also fairly fast and convenient. Excellent highways connect the major cities. They enable vacationers to travel at an almost steady speed of 55 to 65 miles an hour. Tourists that want to travel faster often fly to their destination and then rent a car to go around when they get there.

Question 24. The reading text is about________. A. Christmas and New Year B going abroad

C. traveling in USA D. renting a car for traveling Question 25. Traveling in the________.is the least expensive. A. spring B. summer C. winter D. autumn Question 26. Which sentence is NOT correct? A. Most Americans like traveling. B. Most American people travel abroad every year. C. There is a two-week break on the Christmas and the New Year’s holidays. D. It is difficult to obtain a passport in the USA. Question 27. The word one in the text of the text refers to________. A. a vacationer B. a family C. a car D. a holiday Question 28. Traveling by car is________. A. cheap B. very expensive C. not appreciated D. not suitable for families

Read the following passage and mark to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks

Before the telephone invented by Alexander Graham Bell in 1876, it was hard for people (29)________ over long distances. They wrote letters to each other. It could take days or even weeks for letters to be (30)________ Then people learned how (31)________ telegraph messages. The messages traveled as electric signals that represented a code of dots and dashes. An operator on the other end converted the dots and dashes into a regular message. Bell’s first telephone call went



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over the same wires used for telegraph messages. As the telephone became (32)________ and more popular, it largely replaced the telegraph. Today, our huge telephone network does many things besides carrying telephone calls. It sends copies of letters and pictures from one machine to another, called a (33)________ machine…

Question 29. A. to communicate B. communicate C. communicating D. communicated Question 30. A. seen B. arrived C. delivered D. coming Question 31. A. to call B. to send C. to see D. to leave Question 32. A. more B. less C. better D. much Question 33. A. phone B. telegraph C. printing D. fax

Read the following passage and mark to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions Over a period of time, many habitats change with respect to the types of plants and animals that live there. This change is known as succession

Succession occurs because plants and animals cause a change in the environment in which they live. The first weeds and grasses that appear on a bare field, for example, change the environment by shielding the soil from the direct sunlight. As these plants spread, the ground surface becomes cooler and moisture, than it was originally. Thus, the environment at the ground surface has been changed. The new surface conditions favor the sprouting of shrubs. As shrubs grow, they kill the grasses by preventing light from reaching them and also build up the soil in the area, in addition, they attract animals that also enhance the shrubs. They are not able to shade out oak and hickory seedlings, however, they have found the forest floor suitable. These seedlings grow in to large trees that eventually shade out the pines.

Question 34. What is the best title of this passage? A. The importance of weeds and grasses B. How environmental habitats change

C. The success of oak and hickory D. Animal and plant habitat Question 35. Which is correct order of plant succession in the example in the passage?

A. Weeds, pine, shrubs, oak B. Oak, pines, shrubs, weeds

C. Weeds, shrubs, pines, oak D. Shrubs, weeds, pines, oaks

Question 36. According to the passage, how do weeds and grasses affect the soil?

A. They make it cooler and wetter B. They attract animal to it C. They speed seeds on it D. They add nutrients to it

Question 37. It can be inferred from the passage that________. A. oak and hickory trees grow taller than pines B. weeds and grasses prefer cold climate

C. pines and grasses can exist together D. birds discourage the growth of shrubs

Question 38. Which of the following is a stage of succession as described in the passage?

A. A forest cut down to build an airport B. A flood washing away a crop of wheat C. Wildflowers growing in an unused parking lot D. Animals being tamed by children

Question 39. Which of the following encourages the life of animals? A. large trees B. pine seedlings C. grasses D. shrubs

Question 40. The word originally is closest in meaning to________. A. specially B. at the first source C. in the first place D. for a short time

Question 41. The word sprouting is closest in meaning to________. A. blossoming B. starting to grow C. flourishing D. nourishing

Question 42. The word shielding can be replace by________. A. protecting B. hiding C. exploring D. changing

Question 43. Compared to pines, hickories are________. A. higher B. shorter C. as high D. more suitable

Mark to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 44. They arrived too late to get good seats.

A. They had to stand for the whole show. B. Although they were late they found some good seats.



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C. They got good seats some time after they arrived. D. When they arrived the good seats were already taken.

Question 45. After the very salty food we had, we were all dying of thirst. A. We were very thirsty after having the very salty food. B. We all died because we were too thirsty. C. The food was not salty enough for us to have. D. We all died because there was not enough food.

Question 46. Nothing but the whole story would satisfy Tim. A. Tim wouldn’t be satisfied with anything. B. Tim insisted on being told the complete story. C. On the whole, Tim was satisfied with the story. D. Tim wanted to know just the end of the story.

Mark to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges. Question 47. – Franc: “Would you like beer or wine?” - Luis: “___________”

A. No, I've no choice. B. I couldn’t agree more. C. I'd prefer beer, please. D. Yes, I'd love to.

Question 48. – Marx: “_____________” - Mike: “He's tall and thin with blue eyes.” A. What does John like? B. How is John? C. Who does John look like? D. What does John look like?

Mark to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 49. They can’t work. They are too tired.

A. When they are too tired, they can work B. Because they can’t work, they’re too tired C. They are too tired that they can’t work D. They are too tired to work

Question 50. I can't stand this weather. It's getting worse and worse. A. The weather is making me worse. B. The weather is not better but I can stand it. C. I can't bear this bad weather any more. D. I can't stand up in this bad weather.

___________THE END____________






Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 1. A. passion B. hardware C. background D. bank Question 2. A. learned B. pressed C. published D. matched

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 3. A. software B. printer C. sorrow D. routine Question 4. A. enclose B. harrow C. announce D. subtract

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the italic part in each of the following questions. Question 5. The medical community continues to make progress in the fight against cancer. A. do better B. treat better C. expect more D. speed



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Question 6. I drink some cups of tea, have a quick breakfast and then lead the buffalo to the field. A. fast B. mighty C. strong D. powerful

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the italic part in each of the following questions. Question 7. Why did the parents oppose to the idea of sending their children to the special class at first? A. undefined B. unlimited C. normal D. everyday Question 8. I don't really like getting up early but I have to because I often have lessons at 7.15. A. lately B. late C. firstly D. first

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 9. After George had returned to his house, he was reading a book. A. he B. to his house C. was reading D. had returned Question 10. Television and computer provide quickly access to information and entertainment. A. entertainment B. quickly C. and D. provide Question 11. Dr. Harler, which is the professor for this class, will be absent this week because of illness. A. which B. of illness C. this week D. will be

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 12. Send these dirty clothes to the________ . A. laundry B. bakery C. orchard D. grocery Question 13. We will send an E-mail to________ you the result of the interview if you are chosen. A. hold B. inform C. design D. store Question 14. We are working hard, so the job________ by tomorrow evening. A. has done B. will have been done C. will do D. has been done Question 15. Yesterday afternoon, Susan________ to the supermarket and________ a chicken and some cooking oil. A. goes - buys B. went - bought C. went - buyed D. gone - buyed Question 16. A new program on education for disabled people________ on VTV2. A. have been developed B. has been developing

C. has been developed D. has developed Question 17. The tragic end of "Swan Lake" shows that magic is________ over love. A. power B. powered C. powerfully D. powerless Question 18. ________ also helped to set up and arrange two retail stalls, selling the products to visitors. A. Volunteer B. Voluntary C. Volunteering D. Volunteers Question 19. The baby doesn't cry so much now but she________ cry every night. A. use B. used C. use to D. used to Question 20. Many people were killed in the plane crash. The bodies of ________ were taken away; ________ were taken to hospital. A. the death - the injured B. the dead - the injury

C. the die - the injured D. the dead - the injured Question 21. I have been writing a letter________ 9 o'clock. A. for B. before C. since D. from Question 22. My sister is keen on________ the English Club. A. to join B. joining C. join D. having joined Question 23. He will take us to the town________ we can see old temples. A. where B. that C. which D. at it

Read the following passage and choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) to each question. A recent survey of crime statistics shows that we are all more likely to be burgled now than

20 years ago and the police advise everyone to take a few simple precautions to protect their homes.



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The first fact is that burglars and other intruders prefer easy opportunities, like a house which is very obviously empty. This is much less of a challenge than an occupied house, and one which is well-protected. A burglar will wonder if it is worth the bother.

There are some general tips on how to avoid your home becoming another crime statistic. Avoid leaving signs that your house is empty. When you have to go out, leave at least one light on as well as a radio or television, and do not leave any curtains wide open. The sight of your latest music centre or computer is enough to tempt any burglar.

Never leave a spare key in a convenient hiding place. The first place a burglar will look is under the doormat or in a flower pot and even somewhere more 'imaginative' could soon be uncovered by the intruder. It is much safer to leave a key with a neighbour you can trust. But if your house is in a quiet, desolate area be aware that this will be a burglar's dream, so deter any potential criminal from approaching your house by fitting security lights to the outside of your house.

But what could happen if, in spite of the aforementioned precautions, a burglar or intruder has decided to target your home. Windows are usually the first point of entry for many intruders. Downstairs windows provide easy access while upstairs windows can be reached with a ladder or by climbing up the drainpipe. Before going to bed you should double-check that all windows and shutters are locked. No matter how small your windows may be, it is surprising what a narrow gap a determined burglar can manage to get through. For extra security, fit window locks to the inside of the window.

What about entry via doors? Your back door and patio doors, which are easily forced open, should have top quality security locks fitted. Even though this is expensive it will be money well spent. Install a burglar alarm if you can afford it as another line of defence against intruders.

A sobering fact is that not all intruders have to break and enter into a property. Why go to the trouble of breaking in if you can just knock and be invited in? Beware of bogus officials or workmen and, particularly if you are elderly, fit a chain and an eye hole so you can scrutinise callers at your leisure. When you do have callers never let anybody into your home unless you are absolutely sure they are genuine. Ask to see an identity card, for example.

If you are in the frightening position of waking in the middle of the night and think you can hear an intruder, then on no account should you approach the intruder. It is far better to telephone the police and wait for help.

Question 24. A well-protected house______. A. is less likely to be burgled. C. is regarded as a challenge by most criminals. B. is a lot of bother to maintain. D. is very unlikely to be burgled.

Question 25. According to the writer, we should______. A. avoid leaving our house empty. B. only go out when we have to. C. always keep the curtains closed. D. give the impression that our house is occupied when we go out.

Question 26. The writer thinks that hiding a key under a doormat or flower pot______. A. is predictable. C. is useful. B. is imaginative. D. is where you always find a spare key.

Question 27. What word best replaces “desolate” in paragraph 4? A. isolated B. populous C. dissatisfying D. depressing

Question 28. The phrase “aforementioned precautions” in paragraph 5 refers to steps that______. A. will tell a burglar if your house is empty or not. B. are the most important precautions to take to make your home safe. C. will stop a potential burglar. D. will not stop an intruder if he has decided to try and enter your home.

Question 29. Gaining entry to a house through a small window______. A. is surprisingly difficult. B. is not as difficult as people think. C. is less likely to happen than gaining entry through a door. D. is tried only by very determined burglars.



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Question 30. According to the writer, window locks, security locks and burglar alarms______. A. cost a lot of money but are worth it. C. are good value for money. B. are luxury items. D. are absolutely essential items.

Question 31. The writer argues that fitting a chain and an eye hole______. A. will prevent your home being burgled. B. avoids you having to invite people into your home. C. is only necessary for elderly people. D. gives you time to check if the visitor is genuine.

Question 32. What word best replaces “scrutinise” in paragraph 7? A. glance B. gaze C. search D. examine

Question 33. The best title for the text is______. A. Increasing household crime. C. Protecting your home from intruders. B. Burglary statistics. D. What to do if a burglar breaks into your home.

Read the following passage, and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase for each of the blanks. What do you do at the weekend? Some (34)_______ like to stay at home, but others like to go for a walk or play football. My friend Jack works (35)_______ a factory during the week. At the weekend, he always does the same thing. On Saturday, he washes his car. On Sunday, he goes with his family to a village (36)_______ the country. His uncle and aunt have a farm there. It isn't a big one (37)_______ there's always so much to do on a farm. The children help with the animals and give them their food. At the end of the day, they (38)_______ hungry.

Question 34. A. people B. ones C. peoples D. one Question 35. A. hardly on B. hard on C. hardly in D. hard in Question 36. A. in B. at C. into D. on Question 37. A. or B. so C. and D. but Question 38. A. all are B. are all C. have all D. all have

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. It is estimated that about 200 million people use the Internet computer network around the world. The Internet allows people to work at home instead of traveling to work. The Internet allows businesses to communicate with customers and workers in many parts of the world for the cost of a local telephone call.

E-mail allows users to send documents, pictures and other data from one part of the world to another in at least 5 minutes. People can use the Internet to do shopping. This saves a lot of time. It is possible to use the Internet for education - students may connect with their teachers from home to send or receive E-mail or talk their problems through "online" rather than attending a class.

Question 39. It takes_______ to do the shopping on the Internet. A. more time B. a little time C. less time D. a lot of time Question 40. E-mail can be used to send_______. A. data B. documents C. information D. all are correct Question 41. To use the Internet for education is_______. A. inconvenient B. impossible C. possible D. difficult Question 42. To a business, the Internet is_______ to communicate with customers. A. a difficult way B. a very expensive way C. a cheap way D. an inconvenient way Question 43. The Internet allows people_______. A. not to work B. to stay at home and rest C. to travel to work D. to work at home



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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 44. We don't allow anyone to use their cell phones during the examination. A. Everybody isn't allowed using their cell phones during the examination. B. Nobody isn't allowed to use their cell phones during the examination. C. Nobody is allowed using their cell phones during the examination. D. Nobody is allowed to use their cell phones during the examination. Question 45. Because it was an interesting novel, I stayed up all night to finish it. A. Though it was an interesting novel, I stayed up all night to finish it. B. Unless it were an interesting novel, I would stay up all night to finish it. C. It was an interesting novel, so I stayed up all night to finish it. D. I stayed up all night to finish the novel, therefore, it was interesting. Question 46. Tom used to smoke when he was young. A. Tom smoked a lot when he was young. B. Tom has stopped smoking. C. Tom doesn't smoke no longer. D. Tom got used to smoking when he was young.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges. Question 47. Ann: "Bye!" Mary: " ____________ " A. See you later. B. See you lately. C. Meet you again. D. Thank you. Question 48. Mary: "If you are interested in this kind of work, I will introduce you to my team leader." Mike: "________________" A. Not really. B. Just by chance. C. Of course not. D. That sounds great!

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines of each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 49. He behaved in a very strange way. That surprised me a lot. A. What almost surprised me was the strange way he behaved. B. His behaviour was a very strange thing, that surprised me most. C. He behaved very strangely, which surprised me very much. D. I was almost not surprised by his strange behaviour. Question 50. Cheo tells tales of chiefs, heroes and lovely maidens. It offers a mix of romance, tragedy and comedy.

A. Cheo tells tales of chiefs, heroes and lovely maidens, or it offers a mix of romance, tragedy and comedy. B. Cheo tells tales of chiefs, heroes and lovely maidens, which it offers a mix of romance, tragedy and comedy. C. Cheo tells tales of chiefs, heroes and lovely maidens, and it offers a mix of romance, tragedy and comedy. D. Cheo which tells tales of chiefs, heroes and lovely maidens, but it offers a mix of romance, tragedy and comedy.

___________THE END____________








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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 1. A. passion B. hardware C. background D. bank Question 2. A. learned B. pressed C. published D. matched

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 3. A. software B. printer C. sorrow D. routine Question 4. A. enclose B. harrow C. announce D. subtract

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the italic part in each of the following questions. Question 5. The medical community continues to make progress in the fight against cancer. A. do better B. treat better C. expect more D. speed Question 6. I drink some cups of tea, have a quick breakfast and then lead the buffalo to the field. A. fast B. mighty C. strong D. powerful

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the italic part in each of the following questions. Question 7. Why did the parents oppose to the idea of sending their children to the special class at first? A. undefined B. unlimited C. normal D. everyday Question 8. I don't really like getting up early but I have to because I often have lessons at 7.15. A. lately B. late C. firstly D. first

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 9. After George had returned to his house, he was reading a book. A. he B. to his house C. was reading D. had returned Question 10. Television and computer provide quickly access to information and entertainment. A. entertainment B. quickly C. and D. provide Question 11. Dr. Harler, which is the professor for this class, will be absent this week because of illness. A. which B. of illness C. this week D. will be

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 12. Send these dirty clothes to the________ . A. laundry B. bakery C. orchard D. grocery Question 13. We will send an E-mail to________ you the result of the interview if you are chosen. A. hold B. inform C. design D. store Question 14. We are working hard, so the job________ by tomorrow evening. A. has done B. will have been done C. will do D. has been done Question 15. Yesterday afternoon, Susan________ to the supermarket and________ a chicken and some cooking oil. A. goes - buys B. went - bought C. went - buyed D. gone - buyed Question 16. A new program on education for disabled people________ on VTV2. A. have been developed B. has been developing

C. has been developed D. has developed Question 17. The tragic end of "Swan Lake" shows that magic is________ over love. A. power B. powered C. powerfully D. powerless Question 18. ________ also helped to set up and arrange two retail stalls, selling the products to visitors. A. Volunteer B. Voluntary C. Volunteering D. Volunteers Question 19. The baby doesn't cry so much now but she________ cry every night. A. use B. used C. use to D. used to Question 20. Many people were killed in the plane crash. The bodies of ________ were taken away; ________ were taken to hospital.



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A. the death - the injured B. the dead - the injury C. the die - the injured D. the dead - the injured

Question 21. I have been writing a letter________ 9 o'clock. A. for B. before C. since D. from Question 22. My sister is keen on________ the English Club. A. to join B. joining C. join D. having joined Question 23. He will take us to the town________ we can see old temples. A. where B. that C. which D. at it

Read the following passage and choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) to each question. A recent survey of crime statistics shows that we are all more likely to be burgled now than

20 years ago and the police advise everyone to take a few simple precautions to protect their homes. The first fact is that burglars and other intruders prefer easy opportunities, like a house which is very obviously empty. This is much less of a challenge than an occupied house, and one which is well-protected. A burglar will wonder if it is worth the bother.

There are some general tips on how to avoid your home becoming another crime statistic. Avoid leaving signs that your house is empty. When you have to go out, leave at least one light on as well as a radio or television, and do not leave any curtains wide open. The sight of your latest music centre or computer is enough to tempt any burglar.

Never leave a spare key in a convenient hiding place. The first place a burglar will look is under the doormat or in a flower pot and even somewhere more 'imaginative' could soon be uncovered by the intruder. It is much safer to leave a key with a neighbour you can trust. But if your house is in a quiet, desolate area be aware that this will be a burglar's dream, so deter any potential criminal from approaching your house by fitting security lights to the outside of your house.

But what could happen if, in spite of the aforementioned precautions, a burglar or intruder has decided to target your home. Windows are usually the first point of entry for many intruders. Downstairs windows provide easy access while upstairs windows can be reached with a ladder or by climbing up the drainpipe. Before going to bed you should double-check that all windows and shutters are locked. No matter how small your windows may be, it is surprising what a narrow gap a determined burglar can manage to get through. For extra security, fit window locks to the inside of the window.

What about entry via doors? Your back door and patio doors, which are easily forced open, should have top quality security locks fitted. Even though this is expensive it will be money well spent. Install a burglar alarm if you can afford it as another line of defence against intruders.

A sobering fact is that not all intruders have to break and enter into a property. Why go to the trouble of breaking in if you can just knock and be invited in? Beware of bogus officials or workmen and, particularly if you are elderly, fit a chain and an eye hole so you can scrutinise callers at your leisure. When you do have callers never let anybody into your home unless you are absolutely sure they are genuine. Ask to see an identity card, for example.

If you are in the frightening position of waking in the middle of the night and think you can hear an intruder, then on no account should you approach the intruder. It is far better to telephone the police and wait for help.

Question 24. A well-protected house______. A. is less likely to be burgled. C. is regarded as a challenge by most criminals. B. is a lot of bother to maintain. D. is very unlikely to be burgled.

Question 25. According to the writer, we should______. A. avoid leaving our house empty. B. only go out when we have to. C. always keep the curtains closed. D. give the impression that our house is occupied when we go out.

Question 26. The writer thinks that hiding a key under a doormat or flower pot______. A. is predictable. C. is useful. B. is imaginative. D. is where you always find a spare key.



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Question 27. What word best replaces “desolate” in paragraph 4? A. isolated B. populous C. dissatisfying D. depressing

Question 28. The phrase “aforementioned precautions” in paragraph 5 refers to steps that______. A. will tell a burglar if your house is empty or not. B. are the most important precautions to take to make your home safe. C. will stop a potential burglar. D. will not stop an intruder if he has decided to try and enter your home.

Question 29. Gaining entry to a house through a small window______. A. is surprisingly difficult. B. is not as difficult as people think. C. is less likely to happen than gaining entry through a door. D. is tried only by very determined burglars.

Question 30. According to the writer, window locks, security locks and burglar alarms______. A. cost a lot of money but are worth it. C. are good value for money. B. are luxury items. D. are absolutely essential items.

Question 31. The writer argues that fitting a chain and an eye hole______. A. will prevent your home being burgled. B. avoids you having to invite people into your home. C. is only necessary for elderly people. D. gives you time to check if the visitor is genuine.

Question 32. What word best replaces “scrutinise” in paragraph 7? A. glance B. gaze C. search D. examine

Question 33. The best title for the text is______. A. Increasing household crime. C. Protecting your home from intruders. B. Burglary statistics. D. What to do if a burglar breaks into your home.

Read the following passage, and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase for each of the blanks. What do you do at the weekend? Some (34)_______ like to stay at home, but others like to go for a walk or play football. My friend Jack works (35)_______ a factory during the week. At the weekend, he always does the same thing. On Saturday, he washes his car. On Sunday, he goes with his family to a village (36)_______ the country. His uncle and aunt have a farm there. It isn't a big one (37)_______ there's always so much to do on a farm. The children help with the animals and give them their food. At the end of the day, they (38)_______ hungry.

Question 34. A. people B. ones C. peoples D. one Question 35. A. hardly on B. hard on C. hardly in D. hard in Question 36. A. in B. at C. into D. on Question 37. A. or B. so C. and D. but Question 38. A. all are B. are all C. have all D. all have

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. It is estimated that about 200 million people use the Internet computer network around the world. The Internet allows people to work at home instead of traveling to work. The Internet allows businesses to communicate with customers and workers in many parts of the world for the cost of a local telephone call.

E-mail allows users to send documents, pictures and other data from one part of the world to another in at least 5 minutes. People can use the Internet to do shopping. This saves a lot of time. It is possible to use the Internet for education - students may connect with their teachers from home to send or receive E-mail or talk their problems through "online" rather than attending a class.

Question 39. It takes_______ to do the shopping on the Internet. A. more time B. a little time C. less time D. a lot of time



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Question 40. E-mail can be used to send_______. A. data B. documents C. information D. all are correct Question 41. To use the Internet for education is_______. A. inconvenient B. impossible C. possible D. difficult Question 42. To a business, the Internet is_______ to communicate with customers. A. a difficult way B. a very expensive way C. a cheap way D. an inconvenient way Question 43. The Internet allows people_______. A. not to work B. to stay at home and rest C. to travel to work D. to work at home

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 44. We don't allow anyone to use their cell phones during the examination. A. Everybody isn't allowed using their cell phones during the examination. B. Nobody isn't allowed to use their cell phones during the examination. C. Nobody is allowed using their cell phones during the examination. D. Nobody is allowed to use their cell phones during the examination. Question 45. Because it was an interesting novel, I stayed up all night to finish it. A. Though it was an interesting novel, I stayed up all night to finish it. B. Unless it were an interesting novel, I would stay up all night to finish it. C. It was an interesting novel, so I stayed up all night to finish it. D. I stayed up all night to finish the novel, therefore, it was interesting. Question 46. Tom used to smoke when he was young. A. Tom smoked a lot when he was young. B. Tom has stopped smoking. C. Tom doesn't smoke no longer. D. Tom got used to smoking when he was young.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges. Question 47. Ann: "Bye!" Mary: " ____________ " A. See you later. B. See you lately. C. Meet you again. D. Thank you. Question 48. Mary: "If you are interested in this kind of work, I will introduce you to my team leader." Mike: "________________" A. Not really. B. Just by chance. C. Of course not. D. That sounds great!

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines of each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 49. He behaved in a very strange way. That surprised me a lot. A. What almost surprised me was the strange way he behaved. B. His behaviour was a very strange thing, that surprised me most. C. He behaved very strangely, which surprised me very much. D. I was almost not surprised by his strange behaviour. Question 50. Cheo tells tales of chiefs, heroes and lovely maidens. It offers a mix of romance, tragedy and comedy.

A. Cheo tells tales of chiefs, heroes and lovely maidens, or it offers a mix of romance, tragedy and comedy. B. Cheo tells tales of chiefs, heroes and lovely maidens, which it offers a mix of romance, tragedy and comedy. C. Cheo tells tales of chiefs, heroes and lovely maidens, and it offers a mix of romance, tragedy and comedy. D. Cheo which tells tales of chiefs, heroes and lovely maidens, but it offers a mix of romance, tragedy and comedy.

___________THE END____________



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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 1: A. volunteered B. disabled C. determined D. attended Question 2: A. hospital B. honest C. holiday D. hobby

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 3: A. culture B. protect C. support D. compare Question 4: A. national B. integrate C. donation D. charity

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the ITALIC word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 5: How many countries took part in the last Olympic Games? A. succeeded in B. hosted C. performed D. participated in Question 6: The event, watched by millions of people all over the country, takes place annually. A. once every year B. regularly C. smoothly D. sometimes

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the ITALIC word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 7: Our main aim is to increase sales by 12% this year. A. go up B. decrease C. rise D. reach Question 8: At about six in the evening the birthday party came to an end. We were all tired but happy. A. completed B. finished C. began D. stopped

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 9: She asked why did Mathew look so embarrassed when he saw Carole.

A. asked why B. did Mathew look C. embarrassed D. saw Question 10: We had better to review this chapter carefully because we will have some questions on it on our test tomorrow.

A. to review B. carefully C. will D. some Question 11: I won't be able to go on holiday this year unless I will get a part-time job.

A. won't B. to go C. unless D. will get

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 12: We encourage students to participate fully________ the running of the college. A. to B. in C. on D. for Question 13: Renowned MC Phan Anh himself________ VND500 million of his own money to support flood-affected victims in the centre of Vietnam. A. donated B. received C. lent D. raised Question 14: Anne hoped________ to join the private club. She could make important business contact here. A. to be invited B. to invite C. inviting D. being invited Question 15: If Mr. Smith________ this company, he would have made a lot of changes. A. ran B. is running C. had run D. runs Question 16: Harry said he________ some good marks the semester before.



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A. got B. had gotten C. have got D. gets Question 17: The government should________ family planning programmes to reduce overpopulation. A. carry on B. account for C. turn in D. carry out Question 18: I hate school. The teachers make us________ so much homework every day! A. did B. doing C. to do D. do Question 19: The woman who received a $4 million jackpot prize has no plans on how to spend the money yet, except for________ some of it to charity. A. being given B. to give C. giving D. gave Question 20. She________ a big fuss about not having a window seat on the plane. A. had B. made C. took D. did Question 21: They________ spent their summer vacations teaching illiterate people to read and write. A. voluntary B. voluntarily C. volunteer D. volunteered Question 22: Instead of________ about the good news, Tom seemed to be indifferent. A. being excited B. exciting C. to excite D. to be excited Question 23: By the end of next month, Sarah________ in government for 40 years. A. will have been working B. will be working C. is working D. will work

Read the passage then choose the best answer to each question that follows. Identify your answer by writing the corresponding letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet. Legend has it that sometime toward the end of the Civil War (1861-1865) a government train carrying oxen traveling through the northern plains of eastern Wyoming was caught in a snowstorm and had to be abandoned. The driver returned the next spring to see what had become of his cargo. Instead of the skeletons he had expected to find, he saw his oxen, living, fat, and healthy. How had they survived?

The answer lay in a resource that unknowing Americans lands trampled underfoot in their haste to cross the “Great American Desert” to reach lands that sometimes proved barren. In the eastern parts of the United States, the preferred grass for forage was a cultivated plant. It grew well with enough rain, then when cut and stored it would cure and become nourishing hay for winter feed. But in the dry grazing lands of the West that familiar bluejoint grass was often killed by drought. To raise cattle out there seemed risky or even hopeless.

Who could imagine a fairy-tale grass that required no rain and somehow made it possible for cattle to feed themselves all winter? But the surprising western wild grasses did just that. They had wonderfully convenient features that made them superior to the cultivated eastern grasses. Variously known as buffalo grass, grama grass, or mesquite grass, not only were they immune to drought; but they were actually preserved by the lack of summer and autumn rains. They were not juicy like the cultivated eastern grasses, but had short, hard stems. And they did not need to be cured in a barn, but dried right where they grew on the ground. When they dried in this way, they remained naturally sweet and nourishing through the winter. Cattle left outdoors to fend for themselves thrived on this hay. And the cattle themselves helped plant the fresh grass year after year for they trampled the natural seeds firmly into the soil to be watered by the melting snows of winter and the occasional rains of spring. The dry summer air cured them much as storing in a barn cured the cultivated grasses.

Question 24: What does the passage mainly discuss? A. A type of wild vegetation B. Western migration after Civil War C. The raising of cattle D. The climate of the Western United States Question 25: What can be inferred by the phrase “Legend has it” in line 1? A. Most history book include the story of the train. B. The story of the train is similar to other ones from that time period. C. The driver of the train invented the story. D. The story of the train may not be completed factual. Question 26: The word “they” in line 4 refers to___________.



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A. plains B. skeletons C. oxen D. Americans Question 27: What can be inferred about the “Great American Desert” mentioned in line 7? A. Many had settled there by the 1860’s. B. It was not originally assumed to be a fertile area. C. It was a popular place to raise cattle before the Civil War. D. It was not discovered until the late 1800’s. Question 28: The word “barren” in line 7 is closed in meaning to___________. A. lonely B. uncomfortable C. infertile D. dangerous Question 29: The word “preferred” in line 8 is closed in meaning to___________. A. favored B. available C. ordinary D. required Question 30: Which of the following can be inferred about the cultivated grass mentioned in the second paragraph? A. Cattle raised in the Western United States refused to eat it. B. It had to be imported into the United States. C. It would probably not grow in the western United States. D. It was difficult for cattle to digest. Question 31: Which of the following was NOT one of the names given to the western grasses? A. Mesquite grass B. Bluejoint grass C. Buffalo grass D. Grama grass Question 32: Which of the following was NOT mentioned as a characteristic of western grasses? A. They contain little moisture B. They have tough stems C. They can be grown indoors D. They are not affected by dry weather Question 33: According to the passage, the cattle help promote the growth of the wild grass by___________. A. eating only small quantities of grass

B. continually moving from one grazing area to another C. naturally fertilizing the soil D. stepping on and pressing the seeds into the ground


Caring for Children A volunteer caring for children abroad can take on many roles but primary focuses usually

include education, communication and creativity. Many of these children have lost their homes (34)_______ natural disasters or unstable political environments and are looking for someone to help them create new homes to house themselves, friends or family. Volunteers are encouraged to be (35)_______ in the lives of the children and their families. Some children may have lost their parents and are (36)_______ role models to respect and look up too. Volunteer with children abroad and you could not only ensure a better life for a rural, underdeveloped community but also bring a great deal of self-satisfaction. You will make friends for life (37)_______ the children and in many cases can choose (38)_______ in touch with those you've helped.

Question 34: A. thanks to B. because C. since D. due to Question 35: A. lived B. taken part C. involved D. entered Question 36: A. making B. calling C. asking D. looking for Question 37: A. to B. of C. with D. for Question 38: A. to stay B. to be stayed C. staying D. to staying


The most usual way to entertain friends at home is to invite them for a meal, either in the evening or at lunchtime on a Sunday. In smaller communities, for example a country village, people also invite each other for a drink before a meal, for morning coffee or afternoon tea.



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When guests are invited for a meal, they often sit and chat while they have a drink before the meal, and coffee is usually served afterwards. Several friends are sometimes invited at once to make a small party. These parties are almost always informal. Formal occasions, when written invitations are sent out and people dress formally, rarely take place in people's homes, although they did in the past.

Larger parties are arranged to celebrate a particular event. Children's birthdays are often celebrated with a tea party for the child's friends. The meal will often be followed by party games. Parties are held to celebrate a person's coming of age (formerly at 21 but now at 18), a couple's silver wedding anniversary (after 25 years of marriage), a couple's engagement and New Year's Eve. In the USA a person's 40th birthday is often marked with a special celebration. A housewarming party is sometimes held to invite friends to one's new home. In summer, if the weather is fine, people may hold a barbecue in the garden. A much grander, more formal occasion is a garden party, held in the afternoon, when tea is served.

Question 39: The word "grander" in paragraph 4 mostly means ______. A. more convenient B. more exciting C. more pleasant D. more important Question 40: Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage? A. People don't hold any parties to celebrate a particular event. B. People often sit and chat before a meal they are invited for. C. People don't invite each other for a drink before a meal in a country village. D. People often hold garden parties on informal occasions. Question 41: Nowadays, parties are held to celebrate a person's coming of age when they are______. A. 25 B. 21 C. 40 D. 18 Question 42: Which of the following could be the best title of the passage? A. Entertaining guests B. A garden party C. A birthday party D. A housewarming party Question 43: When are written invitations sent out? A. On formal occasions. B. On a Sunday evening. C. On informal occasions. D. On a Sunday morning.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 44: "Why didn't you answer my phone last night?" he said. A. He asked me why he hadn't answered my phone last night. B. He asked me why I hadn't answered his phone the night before. C. He asked me why I hadn't answered his phone the night after. D. He asked me why I didn't answer his phoned the night before. Question 45: The picnic was cancelled because it rained. A. If it hadn't rained, the picnic wouldn't have been cancelled. B. If it hadn't rained, the picnic wouldn't be cancelled. C. If it didn't rain, the picnic wouldn't have been cancelled. D. If it didn't rain, the picnic wouldn't be cancelled. Question 46: They finished their tea and then they left. A. They finished their tea after they left. B. After they had left, they finished their tea. C. After they had finished their tea, they left. D. They had left before they finished their tea.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges. Question 47: Helen and Michael are waiting for the next bus at their school gate. - Helen: "Excuse me. Can you tell me the time?" - Michael: "____________" A. I've forgotten it. B. Here you are. C. It's ten past nine. D. I've to go now. Question 48: Lora is speaking to Tom at their friend's birthday party. - Lora: "When's your birthday?" - Tom: "____________" A. I'm 24. B. On June 10th. C. Good idea! D. Congratulations!



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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 49: I had never seen her before. However, I recognized her from a photograph. A. I recognized her from a photograph before I had never seen her. B. After I had seen her, I recognized her from a photograph. C. Although I had never seen her before, but I recognized her from a photograph. D. Although I had never seen her before, I recognized her from a photograph. Question 50: He started to study at 2 o'clock. He is still studying now. A. He was studying since 2 o'clock. B. He has been studying for 2 hours. C. He has been studying since 2 o'clock. D. He usually studies for 2 hours.

___________THE END____________ SƠ GD&ĐT VINH PHUC TRƯƠNG THPT LIÊ N SƠN





Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 1: A. volunteered B. disabled C. determined D. attended Question 2: A. hospital B. honest C. holiday D. hobby

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 3: A. culture B. protect C. support D. compare Question 4: A. national B. integrate C. donation D. charity

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the ITALIC word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 5: How many countries took part in the last Olympic Games? A. succeeded in B. hosted C. performed D. participated in Question 6: The event, watched by millions of people all over the country, takes place annually. A. once every year B. regularly C. smoothly D. sometimes

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the ITALIC word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 7: Our main aim is to increase sales by 12% this year. A. go up B. decrease C. rise D. reach Question 8: At about six in the evening the birthday party came to an end. We were all tired but happy. A. completed B. finished C. began D. stopped

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 9: She asked why did Mathew look so embarrassed when he saw Carole.

A. asked why B. did Mathew look C. embarrassed D. saw Question 10: We had better to review this chapter carefully because we will have some questions on it on our test tomorrow.

A. to review B. carefully C. will D. some Question 11: I won't be able to go on holiday this year unless I will get a part-time job.

A. won't B. to go C. unless D. will get

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 12: We encourage students to participate fully________ the running of the college. A. to B. in C. on D. for



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Question 13: Renowned MC Phan Anh himself________ VND500 million of his own money to support flood-affected victims in the centre of Vietnam. A. donated B. received C. lent D. raised Question 14: Anne hoped________ to join the private club. She could make important business contact here. A. to be invited B. to invite C. inviting D. being invited Question 15: If Mr. Smith________ this company, he would have made a lot of changes. A. ran B. is running C. had run D. runs Question 16: Harry said he________ some good marks the semester before. A. got B. had gotten C. have got D. gets Question 17: The government should________ family planning programmes to reduce overpopulation. A. carry on B. account for C. turn in D. carry out Question 18: I hate school. The teachers make us________ so much homework every day! A. did B. doing C. to do D. do Question 19: The woman who received a $4 million jackpot prize has no plans on how to spend the money yet, except for________ some of it to charity. A. being given B. to give C. giving D. gave Question 20. She________ a big fuss about not having a window seat on the plane. A. had B. made C. took D. did Question 21: They________ spent their summer vacations teaching illiterate people to read and write. A. voluntary B. voluntarily C. volunteer D. volunteered Question 22: Instead of________ about the good news, Tom seemed to be indifferent. A. being excited B. exciting C. to excite D. to be excited Question 23: By the end of next month, Sarah________ in government for 40 years. A. will have been working B. will be working C. is working D. will work

Read the passage then choose the best answer to each question that follows. Identify your answer by writing the corresponding letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet. Legend has it that sometime toward the end of the Civil War (1861-1865) a government train carrying oxen traveling through the northern plains of eastern Wyoming was caught in a snowstorm and had to be abandoned. The driver returned the next spring to see what had become of his cargo. Instead of the skeletons he had expected to find, he saw his oxen, living, fat, and healthy. How had they survived?

The answer lay in a resource that unknowing Americans lands trampled underfoot in their haste to cross the “Great American Desert” to reach lands that sometimes proved barren. In the eastern parts of the United States, the preferred grass for forage was a cultivated plant. It grew well with enough rain, then when cut and stored it would cure and become nourishing hay for winter feed. But in the dry grazing lands of the West that familiar bluejoint grass was often killed by drought. To raise cattle out there seemed risky or even hopeless.

Who could imagine a fairy-tale grass that required no rain and somehow made it possible for cattle to feed themselves all winter? But the surprising western wild grasses did just that. They had wonderfully convenient features that made them superior to the cultivated eastern grasses. Variously known as buffalo grass, grama grass, or mesquite grass, not only were they immune to drought; but they were actually preserved by the lack of summer and autumn rains. They were not juicy like the cultivated eastern grasses, but had short, hard stems. And they did not need to be cured in a barn, but dried right where they grew on the ground. When they dried in this way, they remained naturally sweet and nourishing through the winter. Cattle left outdoors to fend for themselves thrived on this hay. And the cattle themselves helped plant the fresh grass year after year for they trampled the natural seeds firmly into the soil to be watered by the melting snows of winter and the occasional rains of spring. The dry summer air cured them much as storing in a barn cured the cultivated grasses.



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Question 24: What does the passage mainly discuss? A. A type of wild vegetation B. Western migration after Civil War C. The raising of cattle D. The climate of the Western United States Question 25: What can be inferred by the phrase “Legend has it” in line 1? A. Most history book include the story of the train. B. The story of the train is similar to other ones from that time period. C. The driver of the train invented the story. D. The story of the train may not be completed factual. Question 26: The word “they” in line 4 refers to___________. A. plains B. skeletons C. oxen D. Americans Question 27: What can be inferred about the “Great American Desert” mentioned in line 7? A. Many had settled there by the 1860’s. B. It was not originally assumed to be a fertile area. C. It was a popular place to raise cattle before the Civil War. D. It was not discovered until the late 1800’s. Question 28: The word “barren” in line 7 is closed in meaning to___________. A. lonely B. uncomfortable C. infertile D. dangerous Question 29: The word “preferred” in line 8 is closed in meaning to___________. A. favored B. available C. ordinary D. required Question 30: Which of the following can be inferred about the cultivated grass mentioned in the second paragraph? A. Cattle raised in the Western United States refused to eat it. B. It had to be imported into the United States. C. It would probably not grow in the western United States. D. It was difficult for cattle to digest. Question 31: Which of the following was NOT one of the names given to the western grasses? A. Mesquite grass B. Bluejoint grass C. Buffalo grass D. Grama grass Question 32: Which of the following was NOT mentioned as a characteristic of western grasses? A. They contain little moisture B. They have tough stems C. They can be grown indoors D. They are not affected by dry weather Question 33: According to the passage, the cattle help promote the growth of the wild grass by___________. A. eating only small quantities of grass

B. continually moving from one grazing area to another C. naturally fertilizing the soil D. stepping on and pressing the seeds into the ground


Caring for Children A volunteer caring for children abroad can take on many roles but primary focuses usually

include education, communication and creativity. Many of these children have lost their homes (34)_______ natural disasters or unstable political environments and are looking for someone to help them create new homes to house themselves, friends or family. Volunteers are encouraged to be (35)_______ in the lives of the children and their families. Some children may have lost their parents and are (36)_______ role models to respect and look up too. Volunteer with children abroad and you could not only ensure a better life for a rural, underdeveloped community but also bring a great deal of self-satisfaction. You will make friends for life (37)_______ the children and in many cases can choose (38)_______ in touch with those you've helped.

Question 34: A. thanks to B. because C. since D. due to Question 35: A. lived B. taken part C. involved D. entered



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Question 36: A. making B. calling C. asking D. looking for Question 37: A. to B. of C. with D. for Question 38: A. to stay B. to be stayed C. staying D. to staying


The most usual way to entertain friends at home is to invite them for a meal, either in the evening or at lunchtime on a Sunday. In smaller communities, for example a country village, people also invite each other for a drink before a meal, for morning coffee or afternoon tea.

When guests are invited for a meal, they often sit and chat while they have a drink before the meal, and coffee is usually served afterwards. Several friends are sometimes invited at once to make a small party. These parties are almost always informal. Formal occasions, when written invitations are sent out and people dress formally, rarely take place in people's homes, although they did in the past.

Larger parties are arranged to celebrate a particular event. Children's birthdays are often celebrated with a tea party for the child's friends. The meal will often be followed by party games. Parties are held to celebrate a person's coming of age (formerly at 21 but now at 18), a couple's silver wedding anniversary (after 25 years of marriage), a couple's engagement and New Year's Eve. In the USA a person's 40th birthday is often marked with a special celebration. A housewarming party is sometimes held to invite friends to one's new home. In summer, if the weather is fine, people may hold a barbecue in the garden. A much grander, more formal occasion is a garden party, held in the afternoon, when tea is served.

Question 39: The word "grander" in paragraph 4 mostly means ______. A. more convenient B. more exciting C. more pleasant D. more important Question 40: Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage? A. People don't hold any parties to celebrate a particular event. B. People often sit and chat before a meal they are invited for. C. People don't invite each other for a drink before a meal in a country village. D. People often hold garden parties on informal occasions. Question 41: Nowadays, parties are held to celebrate a person's coming of age when they are______. A. 25 B. 21 C. 40 D. 18 Question 42: Which of the following could be the best title of the passage? A. Entertaining guests B. A garden party C. A birthday party D. A housewarming party Question 43: When are written invitations sent out? A. On formal occasions. B. On a Sunday evening. C. On informal occasions. D. On a Sunday morning.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 44: "Why didn't you answer my phone last night?" he said. A. He asked me why he hadn't answered my phone last night. B. He asked me why I hadn't answered his phone the night before. C. He asked me why I hadn't answered his phone the night after. D. He asked me why I didn't answer his phoned the night before. Question 45: The picnic was cancelled because it rained. A. If it hadn't rained, the picnic wouldn't have been cancelled. B. If it hadn't rained, the picnic wouldn't be cancelled. C. If it didn't rain, the picnic wouldn't have been cancelled. D. If it didn't rain, the picnic wouldn't be cancelled. Question 46: They finished their tea and then they left. A. They finished their tea after they left. B. After they had left, they finished their tea. C. After they had finished their tea, they left. D. They had left before they finished their tea.



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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges. Question 47: Helen and Michael are waiting for the next bus at their school gate. - Helen: "Excuse me. Can you tell me the time?" - Michael: "____________" A. I've forgotten it. B. Here you are. C. It's ten past nine. D. I've to go now. Question 48: Lora is speaking to Tom at their friend's birthday party. - Lora: "When's your birthday?" - Tom: "____________" A. I'm 24. B. On June 10th. C. Good idea! D. Congratulations!

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 49: I had never seen her before. However, I recognized her from a photograph. A. I recognized her from a photograph before I had never seen her. B. After I had seen her, I recognized her from a photograph. C. Although I had never seen her before, but I recognized her from a photograph. D. Although I had never seen her before, I recognized her from a photograph. Question 50: He started to study at 2 o'clock. He is still studying now. A. He was studying since 2 o'clock. B. He has been studying for 2 hours. C. He has been studying since 2 o'clock. D. He usually studies for 2 hours.

___________THE END____________






Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 1: A. educate B. engineer C. acceptable D. department Question 2: A. future B. picture C. culture D. turn

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 3: A. habitat B. inflation C. disease D. remove Question 4: A. complete B. command C. common D. community

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 5: They asked me how long did it take to get to Paris by train.

A. how long B. did it take C. get to D. by train Question 6: After driving for twenty miles, he suddenly realized that he has been driving in the wrong direction.

A. After driving B. suddenly realized C. has been driving D. in the wrong Question 7: Because the Red Cross accepts blood from most donors, the nurses will not let you give blood if you have just had a cold.

A. Because B. accepts C. give D. had

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the italic word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 8: He’s really delighted with his success. A. pleased B. angry C. entertained D. annoyed Question 9: Try to eliminate fatty foods from your diet.



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A. limit B. move C. add D. get rid of

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the italic word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 10: Those clothes are inappropriate for this morning. A. improper B. attractive C. suitable D. available Question 11: She is a very generous woman. She has given most of her wealth to a charity organization. A. mean B. amicable C. kind D. hospitable

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 12: In Vietnam, application forms for the National Entrance Examinations must be ________ before the deadline, often in April. A. issued B. signed C. filed D. submitted Question 13: He walked________ I could not catch up with him. A. fast B. so fast that C. as fast as D. faster than Question 14: It is high time we________ something to protect our environment . A. do B. to do C. did D. have done Question 15: The more________ you are, the easier it is for you to make friends. A. reserved B. funny C. sociable D. social Question 16: I can________ with most things but I cannot stand noisy children. A. put up B. put on C. put aside D. put off Question 17: Neither the students nor their lecturer________ English in the classroom. A. use B. are using C. uses D. have used Question 18: ________ she can buy everything she likes. A. So rich is she that B. So rich she is that C. Such rich is she that D. All are right Question 19: This is the second time________. A. you are losing your door key B. you've lost your door key C. you were losing your door key D. your door key was lost by you Question 20: The man________ is very friendly. A. that lives next door B. who live next door C. which lives next door D. who lives the next door Question 21: Universities send letters of________ to successful candidates by post. A. accept B. acceptable C. acceptably D. acceptance Question 22: If you do not learn seriously, ________ to understand the subject well. A. you will never be able B. will you never be able C. never you will be able D. will never you be able Question 23: His research has not been able to be________ because of a financial difficulty. A. set up B. put off C. turned on D. carried out


American movies create myths about college life in the United States. These stories are entertaining, but they are not true. You have to look beyond Hollywood movies to understand what college is really like.

Thanks to the movies, many people believe that college students party and socialize more than they study. Movies almost never show students working hard in class or in the library. Instead, movies show them eating, talking, hanging out, or dancing to loud music at wild parties. While it is true that American students have the freedom to participate in activities, they also have academic responsibilities. In order to succeed, they have to attend classes and study hard.

Another movie myth is that athletics is the only important extracurricular activity. In fact, there is a wide variety of nonacademic activities on campus such as special clubs, service organizations, art, and theater programs. This variety allows students to choose what interests



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them. Êven more important, after graduation, students’ résumés look better to employers if they list a few extracurricular activities.

Most students in the movies can easily afford higher education. If only this were true! While it is true that some American college students are wealthy, most are from families with moderate incomes. Up to 80% of them get some type of financial aid. Students from middle and lower-income families often work part-time throughout their college years. There is one thing that many college students have in common, but it is not something you will see in the movies. They have parents who think higher education is a priority, a necessary and important part of their children's lives.

Movies about college life usually have characters that are extreme in some way: super athletic, super intelligent, super wealthy, super glamorous, etc. Movies use these stereotypes, along with other myths of romance and adventure because audiences like going to movies that include these elements. Of course, real college students are not like movie characters at all.

So the next time you want a taste of the college experience, do not go to the movies. Look at some college websites or brochures instead. Take a walk around your local college campus. Visit a few classes. True, you may not be able to see the same people or exciting action you will see in the movies, but you can be sure that there are plenty of academic adventures going on all around you!

Question 24: The stories about college life in American movies are not________. A. true B. interesting C. boring D. exciting

Question 25: The phrase “academic responsibilities” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to “________”.

A. learning duties B. training skills C. caring professions D. teaching methods Question 26: Which of the following is NOT true?

A. Learning is only part of students’ college life. B. There is a wide choice of extracurricular activities for college students. C. Extracurricular activities are of no importance to employers. D. Not all extracurricular activities are students’ academic responsibilities.

Question 27: The word “they” in the third paragraph refers to________. A. employers B. activities C. colleges D. résumés

Question 28: The word “moderate” in the fourth paragraph is closest in meaning to “________”. A. not high B. unlimited C. not steady D. sensible

Question 29: Many American students have to work part-time throughout their college years because________.

A. they are not allowed to work full-time B. they want to gain experience C. their parents force them to D. they can earn money for their expenses

Question 30: Which of the following could best serve as the title of the passage? A. Going to College: The Only Way to Succeed in Life B. Hollywood Movies: The Best About College Life C. Extracurricular Activities and Job Opportunities D. American College Life and the Movies

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35. Singapore has a highly developed market-based economy, (31)_______ historically revolves around extended trade. Along with Hong Kong, South Korea and Taiwan, Singapore is one (32)_______ The Four Asian Tigers. The economy depends heavily on exports , refining, imported goods, especially in manufacturing. Manufacturing constituted 26 (33)_______ of Singapore’s GDP in 2005. The manufacturing industry is well-diversified into electronics, petroleum refining, chemicals, (34)_______ engineering and biomedical sciences manufacturing. In 2006, Singapore produced about 10 percent of the world’s foundry water output. Singapore is the busiest port in the world in terms of tonnage shipped. Singapore is the world’s fourth largest foreign exchange trading centre after London, New York City (35)_______ Tokyo.



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Question 31: A. who B. whom C. why D. which Question 32: A. of B. in C. for D. at Question 33: A. percentage B. persuasion C. perception D. percent Question 34: A. machine B. mechanical C. mechanically D. mechanic Question 35: A. and B. but C. or D. so

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 43. The need for a surgical operation, especially an emergency operation, almost always comes as a severe shock to the patient and his family. Despite modern advances, most people still have an irrational fear of hospitals and anaesthetics. Patients do not often believe they really need surgery- cutting into a part of the body as opposed to treatment with drugs.

In the early year of the 20th century, there was little specialization in surgery. A good surgeon was capable of performing almost every operation that had been advised up to that time. Today the situation is different. Operations are now being carried out that were not even dreamed of fifty years ago. The heart can be safely opened and its valves repaired. Clogged blood vessels can be clean out, and broken ones mended and replaced. A lung, the whole stomach, or even part of the brain can be removed and still permit the patient to live a comfortable and satisfactory life. However, not every surgeon wants to, or is qualified to carry out every type of modern operation. The scope of surgery has increase remarkably in the past decades. Its safety has increased, too. Deaths from most operations are about 20% of what they were in 1910 and surgery has been extended in many directions, for example, to certain types of birth defects in new born babies, and at the other end of the scale, to life-saving operation for the octogenarian. The hospital stay after surgery has been shortened to as little as a week for most major operations. Most patients are out of bed on the day after an operation and may be back at work in two or three weeks.

One of the most revolutionary areas of modern surgery is that of organ transplants. Until a few decades ago, no person, except an identical twins, was able to accept into his body the tissues of another person without reacting against them and eventually killing them. Recently, however, it has been discovered that with the use of X-rays and special drugs, it is possible to graft tissues from one person to another which will survive for periods of a year or more. Kidneys have been successfully transplanted between non-identical twins. Heart and lung transplants have also been reasonably successful.

“Spare parts” surgery, the simple routine replacement of all worn-out organs by new ones, is still a dream of the future but surgery is ready for such miracles. In the meantime, you can be happy if the doctors say to you: “Yes, I think it is possible to operate on you for this condition.”

Question 36: Most people are afraid of being operated on________. A. in spite of improvements in modern surgery B. because they think modern drugs are dangerous C. because they do not believe they need anesthetics D. unless it is an emergency operation Question 37: Surgeons in the early 20th century compared with modern ones________. A. had less to learn about surgery B. needed more knowledge C. were more trusted by their patients D. could perform every operation known today Question 38: A patient can still live a comfortable life even after the removal of________. A. his brain B. a major organ such as the stomach or one lung C. his lungs D. part of the stomach or the whole liver Question 39: The word “clogged” is most likely to correspond to________. A. clean B. blocked C. covered D. unwashed Question 40: Today, compared with 1910________. A. 20% fewer of all operation patients die B. 20% of all operation patients recover C. operation deaths have increased by 20% D. five times fewer patients die after being operated on



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Question 41: What is the similar meaning to the word “octogenarian”? A. eighteen-year-old B. person in his eighties C. person having eighth operation D. eye specialist Question 42: The main difficulty with organ transplants is________. A. it is difficult to find organs of the same size B. only identical twins can give permission for their organs to be exchanged C. the body’s tendency to reject alien tissues D. the patient is not allowed to use drugs after them Question 43: You can be happy if your surgeon can operate because it means________. A. he thinks your condition may be curable B. he is a good doctor C. he knows you will survive D. you are getting better already.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 44: People say that he gets a high salary.

A. It is said that he gets a high salary. B. It is said for him to get high salary. C. He is said that he gets a high salary. D. That he gets a high salary is said.

Question 45: It’s high time you started revising for the coming exam. A. I think you should start revising for the coming exam right now. B. Revising for the coming exam takes your time. C. It’s time to come to the exam after revising. D. The time is high because you started revising for the coming exam.

Question 46: This film is interesting but the film we saw last week was more interesting. A. The film we saw last week was as interesting as this one. B. The film we saw last week was less interesting than this one. C. The film we saw last week was more interesting as this one. D. The film we saw last week was more interesting than this one.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges. Question 47: - Tim: “Let’s go to Fuji for our summer holiday!“ - Tom: “___________“. A. How about you? B. What’s the matter C. Not at all D. OK. It sounds good Question 48: - Lora: “Sorry, the manager is not here.“ - Jane: “___________?“ A. Can I take a message then B. Can I speak to the manager, please C. Would you like to leave a message D. Can I leave a message then.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 49: The weather was very hot. They continued playing football. A. Although the hot weather, they continued playing football. B. In spite of the hot weather, they continued playing football. C. In spite of the weather was hot, they continued playing football. D. Despite the weather was hot, they continued playing football. Question 50: She helped us a lot with our project. We couldn’t continue without her. A. Provided her contribution wouldn’t come, we couldn’t have continued with the project. B. Unless we had her contribution, we couldn’t have continued with the project. C. If she hadn’t contributed positively, we couldn’t have continued with the project. D. But for her contribution, we could have continued with the project.

___________THE END____________







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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 1: A. educate B. engineer C. acceptable D. department Question 2: A. future B. picture C. culture D. turn

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 3: A. habitat B. inflation C. disease D. remove Question 4: A. complete B. command C. common D. community

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 5: They asked me how long did it take to get to Paris by train.

A. how long B. did it take C. get to D. by train Question 6: After driving for twenty miles, he suddenly realized that he has been driving in the wrong direction.

A. After driving B. suddenly realized C. has been driving D. in the wrong Question 7: Because the Red Cross accepts blood from most donors, the nurses will not let you give blood if you have just had a cold.

A. Because B. accepts C. give D. had

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the italic word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 8: He’s really delighted with his success. A. pleased B. angry C. entertained D. annoyed Question 9: Try to eliminate fatty foods from your diet. A. limit B. move C. add D. get rid of

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the italic word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 10: Those clothes are inappropriate for this morning. A. improper B. attractive C. suitable D. available Question 11: She is a very generous woman. She has given most of her wealth to a charity organization. A. mean B. amicable C. kind D. hospitable

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 12: In Vietnam, application forms for the National Entrance Examinations must be ________ before the deadline, often in April. A. issued B. signed C. filed D. submitted Question 13: He walked________ I could not catch up with him. A. fast B. so fast that C. as fast as D. faster than Question 14: It is high time we________ something to protect our environment . A. do B. to do C. did D. have done Question 15: The more________ you are, the easier it is for you to make friends. A. reserved B. funny C. sociable D. social Question 16: I can________ with most things but I cannot stand noisy children. A. put up B. put on C. put aside D. put off Question 17: Neither the students nor their lecturer________ English in the classroom. A. use B. are using C. uses D. have used Question 18: ________ she can buy everything she likes. A. So rich is she that B. So rich she is that C. Such rich is she that D. All are right



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Question 19: This is the second time________. A. you are losing your door key B. you've lost your door key C. you were losing your door key D. your door key was lost by you Question 20: The man________ is very friendly. A. that lives next door B. who live next door C. which lives next door D. who lives the next door Question 21: Universities send letters of________ to successful candidates by post. A. accept B. acceptable C. acceptably D. acceptance Question 22: If you do not learn seriously, ________ to understand the subject well. A. you will never be able B. will you never be able C. never you will be able D. will never you be able Question 23: His research has not been able to be________ because of a financial difficulty. A. set up B. put off C. turned on D. carried out


American movies create myths about college life in the United States. These stories are entertaining, but they are not true. You have to look beyond Hollywood movies to understand what college is really like.

Thanks to the movies, many people believe that college students party and socialize more than they study. Movies almost never show students working hard in class or in the library. Instead, movies show them eating, talking, hanging out, or dancing to loud music at wild parties. While it is true that American students have the freedom to participate in activities, they also have academic responsibilities. In order to succeed, they have to attend classes and study hard.

Another movie myth is that athletics is the only important extracurricular activity. In fact, there is a wide variety of nonacademic activities on campus such as special clubs, service organizations, art, and theater programs. This variety allows students to choose what interests them. Êven more important, after graduation, students’ résumés look better to employers if they list a few extracurricular activities.

Most students in the movies can easily afford higher education. If only this were true! While it is true that some American college students are wealthy, most are from families with moderate incomes. Up to 80% of them get some type of financial aid. Students from middle and lower-income families often work part-time throughout their college years. There is one thing that many college students have in common, but it is not something you will see in the movies. They have parents who think higher education is a priority, a necessary and important part of their children's lives.

Movies about college life usually have characters that are extreme in some way: super athletic, super intelligent, super wealthy, super glamorous, etc. Movies use these stereotypes, along with other myths of romance and adventure because audiences like going to movies that include these elements. Of course, real college students are not like movie characters at all.

So the next time you want a taste of the college experience, do not go to the movies. Look at some college websites or brochures instead. Take a walk around your local college campus. Visit a few classes. True, you may not be able to see the same people or exciting action you will see in the movies, but you can be sure that there are plenty of academic adventures going on all around you!

Question 24: The stories about college life in American movies are not________. A. true B. interesting C. boring D. exciting

Question 25: The phrase “academic responsibilities” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to “________”.

A. learning duties B. training skills C. caring professions D. teaching methods Question 26: Which of the following is NOT true?

A. Learning is only part of students’ college life. B. There is a wide choice of extracurricular activities for college students. C. Extracurricular activities are of no importance to employers.



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D. Not all extracurricular activities are students’ academic responsibilities. Question 27: The word “they” in the third paragraph refers to________.

A. employers B. activities C. colleges D. résumés Question 28: The word “moderate” in the fourth paragraph is closest in meaning to “________”.

A. not high B. unlimited C. not steady D. sensible Question 29: Many American students have to work part-time throughout their college years because________.

A. they are not allowed to work full-time B. they want to gain experience C. their parents force them to D. they can earn money for their expenses

Question 30: Which of the following could best serve as the title of the passage? A. Going to College: The Only Way to Succeed in Life B. Hollywood Movies: The Best About College Life C. Extracurricular Activities and Job Opportunities D. American College Life and the Movies

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35. Singapore has a highly developed market-based economy, (31)_______ historically revolves around extended trade. Along with Hong Kong, South Korea and Taiwan, Singapore is one (32)_______ The Four Asian Tigers. The economy depends heavily on exports , refining, imported goods, especially in manufacturing. Manufacturing constituted 26 (33)_______ of Singapore’s GDP in 2005. The manufacturing industry is well-diversified into electronics, petroleum refining, chemicals, (34)_______ engineering and biomedical sciences manufacturing. In 2006, Singapore produced about 10 percent of the world’s foundry water output. Singapore is the busiest port in the world in terms of tonnage shipped. Singapore is the world’s fourth largest foreign exchange trading centre after London, New York City (35)_______ Tokyo.

Question 31: A. who B. whom C. why D. which Question 32: A. of B. in C. for D. at Question 33: A. percentage B. persuasion C. perception D. percent Question 34: A. machine B. mechanical C. mechanically D. mechanic Question 35: A. and B. but C. or D. so

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 43. The need for a surgical operation, especially an emergency operation, almost always comes as a severe shock to the patient and his family. Despite modern advances, most people still have an irrational fear of hospitals and anaesthetics. Patients do not often believe they really need surgery- cutting into a part of the body as opposed to treatment with drugs.

In the early year of the 20th century, there was little specialization in surgery. A good surgeon was capable of performing almost every operation that had been advised up to that time. Today the situation is different. Operations are now being carried out that were not even dreamed of fifty years ago. The heart can be safely opened and its valves repaired. Clogged blood vessels can be clean out, and broken ones mended and replaced. A lung, the whole stomach, or even part of the brain can be removed and still permit the patient to live a comfortable and satisfactory life. However, not every surgeon wants to, or is qualified to carry out every type of modern operation. The scope of surgery has increase remarkably in the past decades. Its safety has increased, too. Deaths from most operations are about 20% of what they were in 1910 and surgery has been extended in many directions, for example, to certain types of birth defects in new born babies, and at the other end of the scale, to life-saving operation for the octogenarian. The hospital stay after surgery has been shortened to as little as a week for most major operations. Most patients are out of bed on the day after an operation and may be back at work in two or three weeks.



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One of the most revolutionary areas of modern surgery is that of organ transplants. Until a few decades ago, no person, except an identical twins, was able to accept into his body the tissues of another person without reacting against them and eventually killing them. Recently, however, it has been discovered that with the use of X-rays and special drugs, it is possible to graft tissues from one person to another which will survive for periods of a year or more. Kidneys have been successfully transplanted between non-identical twins. Heart and lung transplants have also been reasonably successful.

“Spare parts” surgery, the simple routine replacement of all worn-out organs by new ones, is still a dream of the future but surgery is ready for such miracles. In the meantime, you can be happy if the doctors say to you: “Yes, I think it is possible to operate on you for this condition.”

Question 36: Most people are afraid of being operated on________. A. in spite of improvements in modern surgery B. because they think modern drugs are dangerous C. because they do not believe they need anesthetics D. unless it is an emergency operation Question 37: Surgeons in the early 20th century compared with modern ones________. A. had less to learn about surgery B. needed more knowledge C. were more trusted by their patients D. could perform every operation known today Question 38: A patient can still live a comfortable life even after the removal of________. A. his brain B. a major organ such as the stomach or one lung C. his lungs D. part of the stomach or the whole liver Question 39: The word “clogged” is most likely to correspond to________. A. clean B. blocked C. covered D. unwashed Question 40: Today, compared with 1910________. A. 20% fewer of all operation patients die B. 20% of all operation patients recover C. operation deaths have increased by 20% D. five times fewer patients die after being operated on Question 41: What is the similar meaning to the word “octogenarian”? A. eighteen-year-old B. person in his eighties C. person having eighth operation D. eye specialist Question 42: The main difficulty with organ transplants is________. A. it is difficult to find organs of the same size B. only identical twins can give permission for their organs to be exchanged C. the body’s tendency to reject alien tissues D. the patient is not allowed to use drugs after them Question 43: You can be happy if your surgeon can operate because it means________. A. he thinks your condition may be curable B. he is a good doctor C. he knows you will survive D. you are getting better already.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 44: People say that he gets a high salary.

A. It is said that he gets a high salary. B. It is said for him to get high salary. C. He is said that he gets a high salary. D. That he gets a high salary is said.

Question 45: It’s high time you started revising for the coming exam. A. I think you should start revising for the coming exam right now. B. Revising for the coming exam takes your time. C. It’s time to come to the exam after revising. D. The time is high because you started revising for the coming exam.

Question 46: This film is interesting but the film we saw last week was more interesting. A. The film we saw last week was as interesting as this one. B. The film we saw last week was less interesting than this one.



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C. The film we saw last week was more interesting as this one. D. The film we saw last week was more interesting than this one.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges. Question 47: - Tim: “Let’s go to Fuji for our summer holiday!“ - Tom: “___________“. A. How about you? B. What’s the matter C. Not at all D. OK. It sounds good Question 48: - Lora: “Sorry, the manager is not here.“ - Jane: “___________?“ A. Can I take a message then B. Can I speak to the manager, please C. Would you like to leave a message D. Can I leave a message then.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 49: The weather was very hot. They continued playing football. A. Although the hot weather, they continued playing football. B. In spite of the hot weather, they continued playing football. C. In spite of the weather was hot, they continued playing football. D. Despite the weather was hot, they continued playing football. Question 50: She helped us a lot with our project. We couldn’t continue without her. A. Provided her contribution wouldn’t come, we couldn’t have continued with the project. B. Unless we had her contribution, we couldn’t have continued with the project. C. If she hadn’t contributed positively, we couldn’t have continued with the project. D. But for her contribution, we could have continued with the project.

___________THE END____________






Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 1: A. uniform B. university C. student D. customer Question 2: A. economy B. came C. computers D. device

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 3: A. admittance B. origin C. regional D. government Question 4: A. penalize B. athletic C. amateur D. synchronize

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 5: In America, when a woman and a man are introduced, shaking hands is up to woman. A. depends on B. replies on C. waits on D. congratulates on Question 6: I haven’t been to the cinema for a decade. A. five years B. seven years C. ten years D. twenty years

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 7: In remote communities, it's important to replenish stocks before the winter sets in. A. remake B. empty C. refill D. repeat Question 8: Strongly advocating health foods, Jane doesn’t eat any chocolate. A. supporting B. impugning C. advising D. denying



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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 9: A number of applicants has already been interviewed but none of them are qualified enough.

A. A number of B. has already C. none of them D. enough Question 10: We wouldn’t share our opinions so quickly if there isn’t Internet connectivity.

A. wouldn’t share B. opinions C. if D. isn’t Question 11: The lifestyle of the people who live in each culture area reflect the geography of that area.

A. lifestyle B. who C. reflect D. geography

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 12: Mr.Pike______ for this company for more than thirty years, and he intends to stay here until he_______. A. worked/ retires B. works/ is retiring

C. has worked/ retires D. is working/ will retire Question 13: John forgot ____ his ticket so he was not allowed_______ the club. A. brought/ enter B. bring/ entering C. bringing/ to enter D. to bring/ to enter Question 14: There _____ mutual understanding between friends. A. must be B. must to be C. are D. must have been Question 15: Neither the mother nor the children ______ aware of the danger. A. were B. was C. is D. has been Question 16: _______ she got the salary last week, she has complained that she is out of money. A. Unless B. Even though C. In case D. As Question 17: _______ we save, _______ we can buy a new house. A. The much money/ the less soon B. More money/ the soon C. More money/ sooner D. The more money/ the sooner Question 18: When you finish writing, you should_______ your composition. A. keep up B. look on C. pass away D. go over Question 19: Nam studied hard_______. A. in order to passing the exam B. so that he will pass the exam C. in order pass the exam D. so as that he will pass the exam Question 20: The government has_______ measures to promote the development of the economy. A. made B. taken C. carried D. achieved Question 21: Mountain gorillas are an endangered species_______ habitats are being destroyed. A. whose B. why C. which D. that Question 22: My father_______ an interest in collecting stamps. He had a valuable stamp collection. A. got on B. kept in C. went over D. took up Question 23: If we_______ earlier in the morning, we_______ at the village now. A. departed/ would have arrived B. had departed/ would arrive C. departed/ would arrived D. had departed/ would have arrived

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 24 to 30. During the teenage years, many young people can at times be difficult to talk to. They often seem to dislike being questioned. They may seem unwilling to talk about their work at school. This is a normal development becoming independent of teenagers trying to be adult while they are still growing up. Young people are usually more willing to talk if they believe that questions are asked out of real interest and not because people are trying to check up on them. Parents should do their best to talk to their sons and daughters about school work and future



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plan but should not push them to talk if they don’t want to. Parents should also watch for the danger signs: some young people in trying to be adult may experiment with sex, drugs, alcohol or smoking. Parents need to watch for any signs of unusual behavior which may be connected with these and get help if necessary.

Question 24: This passage is taken from a______. A. handbook for parents B. school timetable C. teenage magazine D. book for children

Question 25: Why do adults sometimes find teenagers difficult to talk to? A. Because most teenagers are quiet B. Because teenagers don’t want to talk to other people C. Because teenagers think adults are not honest D. Because most teenagers hate adults.

Question 26: What does the word “they” in bold in paragraph 1 refer to_____? A. parents B. future plan C. school work D. teenagers

Question 27: When can you expect young people to be more talkative than usual? A. when people talk to them because they are really interested and not just checking on them. B. when adults give them a lot of money to spend C. when adults talk to them about something other than their work in school. D. when adults talk to them about sex, alcohol and drugs

Question 28: Some teenagers experiment with drinking and smoking because_____. A. cigarettes and alcohol are available everywhere. B. cigarettes and alcohol are cheap C. women like smoking and drinking men. D. they regard them as a mark of adulthood.

Question 29: The word “behavior” in the passage most nearly means _______. A. feeling B. manners C. activities D. reaction

Question 30: When is it necessary for parents to find help for their child ? A. When the teens starts taking up smoking B. When it’s difficult to communicate with C. When they don’t have future plans D. When they have low marks in school

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35. BRINGING THE LEARNING OUTDOORS Kindergarten is a fun place (31)________ young children learn. In some special kindergartens, children learn outside most of the day! Some kindergartens are (32)________ the forest. In these "forest kindergartens," children play freely. They're outside in all kinds of weather. At forest kindergartens, children learn by climbing trees and picking fruit. They also learn about and (33)________ animals. For example, they collect chicken eggs and feed baby mice. Little Flower Kindergarten is in Dong Nai, Vietnam. At this school, children learn about farming. They also learn that it is important (34)________ healthy food. They grow vegetables in gardens - on the roof! They eat the vegetables they grow in their lunches. At Fuji Kindergarten in Tokyo, Japan, trees grow inside the building! The classroom windows and sliding doors (35)________ open to the outside most of the year. The roof is a big, wooden circle. Children love to play and run on it. (Source: Discoveries magazine April 2016)

Question 31: A. which B. where C. when D. why Question 32: A. in B. on C. at D. by Question 33: A. take on B. take over C. take after D. take care of Question 34: A. to eat B. eating C. ate D. eaten Question 35: A. make B. stay C. do D. be




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You can usually tell when your friends are happy or angry by the looks on their faces or by their actions. This is useful because reading their emotional expressions helps you to know how to respond to them. Emotions have evolved to help us respond to important situations and to convey our intentions to others. But does raising the eyebrows and rounding the mouth say the same thing in Minneapolis as it does in Madagascar? Much research on emotional expressions has centered on such questions. According to Paul Ekman, the leading researcher in this area, people speak and understand substantially the same “facial language”. Studies by Êkman’s group have demonstrated that humans share a set of universal emotional expressions that testify to the common biological heritage of the human species. Smiles, for example, signal happiness and frowns indicate sadness on the faces of people in such far- flung places as Argentina, Japan, Spain, Hungary, Poland , Sumatra ,the United States, Vietnam, the jungles of New Guinea , and the Eskimo villages north of Artic Circle. Ekman and his colleagues claim that people everywhere can recognize at least seven basic emotions: sadness, fear, anger, disgust, contempt, happiness, and surprise. There are, however, huge differences across cultures in both the context and intensity of emotional displays – the so called display rules. In many Asian cultures, for example, children are taught to control emotional responses – especially negative ones- while many American children are encouraged to express their feelings more openly. Regardless of culture, however, emotions usually show themselves, to some degree , in people’s behavior. From their first days of life, babies produce facial expressions that communicate their feelings. The ability to read facial expressions develops early, too. Very young children pay close attention to facial expressions, and by age five, they nearly equal adults in their skill at reading emotions on people’s faces. This evidence all points to a biological underpinning for our abilities to express and interpret a basic set of human emotions. Moreover, as Charles Darwin pointed out over a century ago, some emotional expressions seem to appear across species boundaries. Cross - cultural psychologists tell us that certain emotional responses carry different meanings in different cultures. For example, what emotion do you suppose might be conveyed by sticking out your tongue? For Americans, this might indicate disgust, while in China it can signify surprise. Likewise, a grin on an American face may indicate joy, while on a Japanese face it may just as easily mean embarrassment. Clearly, culture influences emotional expressions.

Question 36: According to the passage, we respond to others by_________. A. observing their looks B. watching their actions C. observing their emotional expressions D. looking at their faces Question 37: Many studies on emotional expressions try to answer the question whether _________. A. different cultures have similar emotional expressions. B. eyebrow raising means the same in Minneapolis and Madagascar. C. raising the eyebrows has similar meaning to rounding the mouth.

D. rounding the mouth has the same meaning in Minneapolis and Madagascar. Question 38: The word “evolved” in line 3 is closest in meaning to__________. A. reduced B. increased C. simplified D. developed Question 39: Paul Ekman is mentioned in the passage as an example of__________. A. lacked many main ingredients B. researchers on universal language

C. researchers who can speak and understand many languages D. investigators on universal emotional expressions

Question 40: The biggest difference lies in_________. A. how long negative emotions are displayed B. how intensive emotions are expressed C. how emotional responses are controlled D. how often positive emotions are shown Question 41: Unlike American children, Asian children are encouraged to_______. A. control their emotions B. display their emotions openly C. conceal their positive emotions D. change their behaviour Question 42: The phrase “This evidence” in line 21 refers to________.



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A. the fact that children are good at recognizing others’ emotions B. human facial expressions

C. a biological underpinning for humans to express emotions D. the fact that children can control their feelings Question 43: The best title for the passage is____________. A. Cultural universals in emotional expressions B. Ways to control emotional expressions C. review of research on emotional expressions D. Human habit of displaying emotions

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 44: We asked some workers to redecorate the house last year. A. We redecorated the house by ourselves last year. B. The house was not redecorated by any workers last year. C. We had the house redecorated last year. D. The workers refused to redecorate the house last year. Question 45: John said, “ Mary, do not forget to send the letters”. A. John reminded Mary to send the letters. B. John told Mary that he did not forget to send the letters. C. Mary promised not to forget to send the letters. D. Mary asked Peter to send the letters. Question 46: What a pity ! I did not take my camera. A. I regret taking my camera. B. If only I had taken my camera. C. I wish I took my camera D. My camera used to be taken.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges. Question 47: - Tim: “ What are you going to do for the vacation?“ - Tom: “____________ .“ A. That sounds great B. How about you ? What will you do ? C. I will take some tests. D. I’m not sure, but I might go camping for a few days. Question 48: - Lora: “ How did you feel when you first started work?“ - Jane: “___________.” A. Not at all B. I don’t think so C. A bit nervous D. Thanks for asking me

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 49: Hartford is the capital of Connecticut. It is the second largest city in the state. A. The capital of Connecticut, Hartford which is the second largest city in the state. B. Hartford, the capital of Connecticut, is the second largest city in the state. C. Hartford, the second largest city in the state, which is the capital of Connecticut. D. Hartford, the capital of Connecticut, that is the second largest city in the state. Question 50: He had just finished eating his breakfast. Then he fell down. A. Hardly did he finished eating his breakfast when he fell down B. Hardly he had finished eating his breakfast when he fell down C. Hardly had he finished eating his breakfast when he fell down D. Hardly have he finished eating his breakfast when he fell down

___________THE END____________






Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from



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the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 1: A. uniform B. university C. student D. customer Question 2: A. economy B. came C. computers D. device

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 3: A. admittance B. origin C. regional D. government Question 4: A. penalize B. athletic C. amateur D. synchronize

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 5: In America, when a woman and a man are introduced, shaking hands is up to woman. A. depends on B. replies on C. waits on D. congratulates on Question 6: I haven’t been to the cinema for a decade. A. five years B. seven years C. ten years D. twenty years

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 7: In remote communities, it's important to replenish stocks before the winter sets in. A. remake B. empty C. refill D. repeat Question 8: Strongly advocating health foods, Jane doesn’t eat any chocolate. A. supporting B. impugning C. advising D. denying

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 9: A number of applicants has already been interviewed but none of them are qualified enough.

A. A number of B. has already C. none of them D. enough Question 10: We wouldn’t share our opinions so quickly if there isn’t Internet connectivity.

A. wouldn’t share B. opinions C. if D. isn’t Question 11: The lifestyle of the people who live in each culture area reflect the geography of that area.

A. lifestyle B. who C. reflect D. geography

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 12: Mr.Pike______ for this company for more than thirty years, and he intends to stay here until he_______. A. worked/ retires B. works/ is retiring

C. has worked/ retires D. is working/ will retire Question 13: John forgot ____ his ticket so he was not allowed_______ the club. A. brought/ enter B. bring/ entering C. bringing/ to enter D. to bring/ to enter Question 14: There _____ mutual understanding between friends. A. must be B. must to be C. are D. must have been Question 15: Neither the mother nor the children ______ aware of the danger. A. were B. was C. is D. has been Question 16: _______ she got the salary last week, she has complained that she is out of money. A. Unless B. Even though C. In case D. As Question 17: _______ we save, _______ we can buy a new house. A. The much money/ the less soon B. More money/ the soon C. More money/ sooner D. The more money/ the sooner Question 18: When you finish writing, you should_______ your composition. A. keep up B. look on C. pass away D. go over Question 19: Nam studied hard_______.



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A. in order to passing the exam B. so that he will pass the exam C. in order pass the exam D. so as that he will pass the exam Question 20: The government has_______ measures to promote the development of the economy. A. made B. taken C. carried D. achieved Question 21: Mountain gorillas are an endangered species_______ habitats are being destroyed. A. whose B. why C. which D. that Question 22: My father_______ an interest in collecting stamps. He had a valuable stamp collection. A. got on B. kept in C. went over D. took up Question 23: If we_______ earlier in the morning, we_______ at the village now. A. departed/ would have arrived B. had departed/ would arrive C. departed/ would arrived D. had departed/ would have arrived

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 24 to 30. During the teenage years, many young people can at times be difficult to talk to. They often seem to dislike being questioned. They may seem unwilling to talk about their work at school. This is a normal development becoming independent of teenagers trying to be adult while they are still growing up. Young people are usually more willing to talk if they believe that questions are asked out of real interest and not because people are trying to check up on them. Parents should do their best to talk to their sons and daughters about school work and future plan but should not push them to talk if they don’t want to. Parents should also watch for the danger signs: some young people in trying to be adult may experiment with sex, drugs, alcohol or smoking. Parents need to watch for any signs of unusual behavior which may be connected with these and get help if necessary.

Question 24: This passage is taken from a______. A. handbook for parents B. school timetable C. teenage magazine D. book for children

Question 25: Why do adults sometimes find teenagers difficult to talk to? A. Because most teenagers are quiet B. Because teenagers don’t want to talk to other people C. Because teenagers think adults are not honest D. Because most teenagers hate adults.

Question 26: What does the word “they” in bold in paragraph 1 refer to_____? A. parents B. future plan C. school work D. teenagers

Question 27: When can you expect young people to be more talkative than usual? A. when people talk to them because they are really interested and not just checking on them. B. when adults give them a lot of money to spend C. when adults talk to them about something other than their work in school. D. when adults talk to them about sex, alcohol and drugs

Question 28: Some teenagers experiment with drinking and smoking because_____. A. cigarettes and alcohol are available everywhere. B. cigarettes and alcohol are cheap C. women like smoking and drinking men. D. they regard them as a mark of adulthood.

Question 29: The word “behavior” in the passage most nearly means _______. A. feeling B. manners C. activities D. reaction

Question 30: When is it necessary for parents to find help for their child ? A. When the teens starts taking up smoking B. When it’s difficult to communicate with C. When they don’t have future plans D. When they have low marks in school

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35. BRINGING THE LEARNING OUTDOORS



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Kindergarten is a fun place (31)________ young children learn. In some special kindergartens, children learn outside most of the day! Some kindergartens are (32)________ the forest. In these "forest kindergartens," children play freely. They're outside in all kinds of weather. At forest kindergartens, children learn by climbing trees and picking fruit. They also learn about and (33)________ animals. For example, they collect chicken eggs and feed baby mice. Little Flower Kindergarten is in Dong Nai, Vietnam. At this school, children learn about farming. They also learn that it is important (34)________ healthy food. They grow vegetables in gardens - on the roof! They eat the vegetables they grow in their lunches. At Fuji Kindergarten in Tokyo, Japan, trees grow inside the building! The classroom windows and sliding doors (35)________ open to the outside most of the year. The roof is a big, wooden circle. Children love to play and run on it. (Source: Discoveries magazine April 2016)

Question 31: A. which B. where C. when D. why Question 32: A. in B. on C. at D. by Question 33: A. take on B. take over C. take after D. take care of Question 34: A. to eat B. eating C. ate D. eaten Question 35: A. make B. stay C. do D. be

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 43. You can usually tell when your friends are happy or angry by the looks on their faces or by their actions. This is useful because reading their emotional expressions helps you to know how to respond to them. Emotions have evolved to help us respond to important situations and to convey our intentions to others. But does raising the eyebrows and rounding the mouth say the same thing in Minneapolis as it does in Madagascar? Much research on emotional expressions has centered on such questions. According to Paul Ekman, the leading researcher in this area, people speak and understand substantially the same “facial language”. Studies by Êkman’s group have demonstrated that humans share a set of universal emotional expressions that testify to the common biological heritage of the human species. Smiles, for example, signal happiness and frowns indicate sadness on the faces of people in such far- flung places as Argentina, Japan, Spain, Hungary, Poland , Sumatra ,the United States, Vietnam, the jungles of New Guinea , and the Eskimo villages north of Artic Circle. Ekman and his colleagues claim that people everywhere can recognize at least seven basic emotions: sadness, fear, anger, disgust, contempt, happiness, and surprise. There are, however, huge differences across cultures in both the context and intensity of emotional displays – the so called display rules. In many Asian cultures, for example, children are taught to control emotional responses – especially negative ones- while many American children are encouraged to express their feelings more openly. Regardless of culture, however, emotions usually show themselves, to some degree , in people’s behavior. From their first days of life, babies produce facial expressions that communicate their feelings. The ability to read facial expressions develops early, too. Very young children pay close attention to facial expressions, and by age five, they nearly equal adults in their skill at reading emotions on people’s faces. This evidence all points to a biological underpinning for our abilities to express and interpret a basic set of human emotions. Moreover, as Charles Darwin pointed out over a century ago, some emotional expressions seem to appear across species boundaries. Cross - cultural psychologists tell us that certain emotional responses carry different meanings in different cultures. For example, what emotion do you suppose might be conveyed by sticking out your tongue? For Americans, this might indicate disgust, while in China it can signify surprise. Likewise, a grin on an American face may indicate joy, while on a Japanese face it may just as easily mean embarrassment. Clearly, culture influences emotional expressions.

Question 36: According to the passage, we respond to others by_________.



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A. observing their looks B. watching their actions C. observing their emotional expressions D. looking at their faces Question 37: Many studies on emotional expressions try to answer the question whether _________. A. different cultures have similar emotional expressions. B. eyebrow raising means the same in Minneapolis and Madagascar. C. raising the eyebrows has similar meaning to rounding the mouth.

D. rounding the mouth has the same meaning in Minneapolis and Madagascar. Question 38: The word “evolved” in line 3 is closest in meaning to__________. A. reduced B. increased C. simplified D. developed Question 39: Paul Ekman is mentioned in the passage as an example of__________. A. lacked many main ingredients B. researchers on universal language

C. researchers who can speak and understand many languages D. investigators on universal emotional expressions

Question 40: The biggest difference lies in_________. A. how long negative emotions are displayed B. how intensive emotions are expressed C. how emotional responses are controlled D. how often positive emotions are shown Question 41: Unlike American children, Asian children are encouraged to_______. A. control their emotions B. display their emotions openly C. conceal their positive emotions D. change their behaviour Question 42: The phrase “This evidence” in line 21 refers to________. A. the fact that children are good at recognizing others’ emotions B. human facial expressions

C. a biological underpinning for humans to express emotions D. the fact that children can control their feelings Question 43: The best title for the passage is____________. A. Cultural universals in emotional expressions B. Ways to control emotional expressions C. review of research on emotional expressions D. Human habit of displaying emotions

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 44: We asked some workers to redecorate the house last year. A. We redecorated the house by ourselves last year. B. The house was not redecorated by any workers last year. C. We had the house redecorated last year. D. The workers refused to redecorate the house last year. Question 45: John said, “ Mary, do not forget to send the letters”. A. John reminded Mary to send the letters. B. John told Mary that he did not forget to send the letters. C. Mary promised not to forget to send the letters. D. Mary asked Peter to send the letters. Question 46: What a pity ! I did not take my camera. A. I regret taking my camera. B. If only I had taken my camera. C. I wish I took my camera D. My camera used to be taken.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges. Question 47: - Tim: “ What are you going to do for the vacation?“ - Tom: “____________ .“ A. That sounds great B. How about you ? What will you do ? C. I will take some tests. D. I’m not sure, but I might go camping for a few days. Question 48: - Lora: “ How did you feel when you first started work?“ - Jane: “___________.” A. Not at all B. I don’t think so C. A bit nervous D. Thanks for asking me



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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 49: Hartford is the capital of Connecticut. It is the second largest city in the state. A. The capital of Connecticut, Hartford which is the second largest city in the state. B. Hartford, the capital of Connecticut, is the second largest city in the state. C. Hartford, the second largest city in the state, which is the capital of Connecticut. D. Hartford, the capital of Connecticut, that is the second largest city in the state. Question 50: He had just finished eating his breakfast. Then he fell down. A. Hardly did he finished eating his breakfast when he fell down B. Hardly he had finished eating his breakfast when he fell down C. Hardly had he finished eating his breakfast when he fell down D. Hardly have he finished eating his breakfast when he fell down

___________THE END____________






Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 1: A. measure B. breathe C.breath D. head Question 2: A. missed B. stopped C. talked D. arrived

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 3: A. explain B. involve C. purpose D. control Question 4: A. dictation B. communicate C. occasion D. reservation

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 5: Around 150 B.C. the Greek astronomer Hipparchus developed a system to classify stars according to brightness. A. record B. shine C. categorize D. diversify Question 6: She is always diplomatic when she deals with angry students. A. strict B. outspoken C. firm D. tactful

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 7: The situation in the country has remained relatively stable for a few months now. A. constant B. objective C. changeable D. ignorant Question 8: In big cities, animals should be kept under control. A. out of dispute B. out of hand C. out of order D. out of discipline

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 9: The world is becoming more industrialized and the number of animal species that have become extinct have increased.

A. industrialized B. species C. extinct D. have Question 10: Each of the members of the group were made to write a report every week. A. members B. were C. to write D. week



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Question 11: If you think carefully before making your decision, you will avoid to get into trouble later. A. carefully B. making C. to get D. later

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 12: Those who don’t get_________ their colleagues are sometimes isolated at their jobs.

A. up with B. on to C .by with D. along with Question 13: When I_________ to visit her yesterday, she_________ a party. A. come/ was prepared B. came/ prepared C. came/ was preparing D. came/has prepared Question 14: Peter is so_________ that he never thinks of anything bad and unsuccessful.

A. optimistic B. disappointed C. pessimistic D. keen Question 15: If you finish the report, please give it to your supervisor. He will read_________ and make any necessary changes.

A. out B. through C. over D. with Question 16: I_________ Tom with me if I had known you and he didn’t get along well with each other. A. won’t bring B. didn’t bring C. hadn’t brought D. wouldn’t have brought Question 17: Last year Matt earned_________ his brother, who had a better position. A. twice as much as B. twice more than C. twice as more as D. twice as many as Question 18: Reagan_________ an actor years ago. A. is said to be B. was said being C. was said have been D. is said to have been Question 19: No sooner_________ the feast will start tomorrow. A. will the bell ring than B. the bell will ring than C. the bell will ring when D. will the bell ring when Question 20: A (n)_________ child means a child who behaves badly and saddens his parents. A. active B. hard – working C. obedient D. insubordinate Question 21: Much progress on computers_________ since 1950. A. has been made B. has done C. has been done D. has made Question 22: It looks like they’re going to succeed_________ their present difficulties. A. despite B. because of C. even though D. yet Question 23: Everyone likes_________ when they have got some success. A. to congratulate B. to be congratulating C. to be congratulated D. being congratulated

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 24 to 30. According to airline industry statistics, almost 90 percent of airline accidents are survivable or partially survivable. But passengers can increase their chances of survival by learning and following certain tips. Experts say that you should read and listen to safety instructions before take-off and ask questions if you have uncertainties. You should fasten your seat belt low on your hips and as tightly as possible. Of course, you should also know how the release mechanism of your belt operates. During take-off and landings you are advised to keep your feet flat on the floor. Before takeoff you should locate the nearest exit and an alternative exit and count the rows of seat between you and the exits so that you can find them in the dark if necessary. In the even that you are forewarned of the possible accident, you should put your hands on your ankles and keep your head down until the plane come to complete stop. If smoke is present in the cabin, you should keep your head low and cover your face with napkins, towels, or clothing. If possible, wet these for added protection against smoke inhalation. To evacuate as quickly as possible, follow crew command and do not take personal belongings with you. Do not jump on escape slides before they are fully inflated and when you jump, do so with your arms and legs extended in front of you. When you get to the ground, you should move away from the plane as quickly as possible, and never smoke near the wreckage.



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Question 24: According to the passage, which exits should an airline passenger locate before take-off ? A. The nearest one. B. The ones that can be found in the dark.

C. The two closest to the passenger’s seat. D. The ones with counted rows of seats between them.

Question 25. The word “evacuate” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to______. A. vacate B. escape C. maintain D. return

Question 26. According to the passage, airline travelers should keep their feet flat on the floor______.

A. during take-off and landings B. throughout the flight C. especially during landings D. only if an accident is possible

Question 27. What is the main topic of the passage? A. Airline industry accident statistics. B. Guidelines for increasing aircraft passengers survival. C. Procedures for evacuating aircraft. D. Safety instructions in air travel.

Question 28. Airline passenger are to do all of the following EXCEPT______. A. fasten their seat belt before take-off B. locate the nearest exist C. carry personal belongings in an emergency D. ask questions about safety

Question 29. The word “inflated” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to______. A. expanded B. lifted C. increased D. assembled

Question 30. Travelers are urged by experts to read and listen to safety instructions______. A. if smoke is in the cabin B. before take-off C. before locating the exits D. in an emergency

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35. There is usually one important subject missing from most school timetables. Very few students are (31)______ how to organize their learning, and how to make the best use of their time. Let’s take some simple examples. Do you know how to (32)______ up words in a dictionary , and do you understand all the information the dictionary contains ? Can you (33)______ notes quickly, and can you understand them afterwards ? For some reason, many schools give learners no help with these matters. Teachers ask students to (34)______ pages from books , or tell them to write ten pages, but don’t explain how to do it. Learning by heart can be useful, but it is important to have a genuine understanding of a subject. You can (35)______ a lot of time memorizing books, without understanding anything about the subject.

Question 31: A. taught B. learned C. educated D. graduated Question 32: A. find B. get C. research D. look Question 33: A. do B. send C. make D. revise Question 34: A. concentrate B. remind C. forget D. memorize Question 35: A. pass B. waste C. tell D. use

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 43. In the exploration of the linguistic life circle, it is apparent that it is much more difficult to learn a second language in adulthood than a first language in childhood. Most adults never completely master a foreign language, especially in phonology - hence the foreign accent. Their development often 'fossilizes' into permanent error patterns that no teaching or correction can undo. Of course there are great individual differences, which depend on effort, attitudes, amount of exposure, quality of teaching, and plain talent, but there seems to be a cap for the best adults in the best circumstances.

Many explanations have been advanced for children's superiority: they exploit the simplified, repetitive conversation between parents and children, make errors unself-consciously, are more motivated to communicate, like to conform, are not set in their ways, and have no first



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language to, interfere. But some of these accounts are unlikely, based on what is known about how language acquisition works.: Recent evidence is calling these social and motivation explanations into doubt. Holding every other factor constant, a key factor stands out: sheer age.

Systematic evidence comes from the psychologist Elissa Newport and her colleagues. They tested Korean and Chinese-born students at the University of Illinois who had spent at least ten years in the U.S. The immigrants were given a list of 276 simple English sentences, half of them containing some grammatical error. The immigrants who came to the U.S. between the ages of three an seven performed identically to American-born students. Those who arrived between the ages of 8 and 15 did worse the later they arrived, and those who arrived between 17 and 39 did the worst of all, and showed huge variability unrelated their age of arrival.

Question 36: The passage mainly discusses_______. A. adult differences in learning a foreign language B. children's ability to learn a language C. the age factor in learning languages fast D. Research into language acquisition Question 37: The word 'cap' is closest in meaning to_______. A. prize B. limit C. covering D. level Question 38: According to the passage, young children learn languages quickly for all the following reasons EXCEPT_______. A. they make many mistakes B. they want to talk C. their approach is flexible D. they frequently repeat words Question 39: The word 'set' is closest in meaning to_______. A. fixed B. changed C. stable D. formed Question 40: The word 'unrelated' could be replaced by_______. A. unconnected B. unfamiliar C. unclassified D. unidentified Question 41: In the experiment in the passage, the psychologists discovered_______. A. most students had lived in the U.S. for more than ten years B. older students were unable to learn English C. young students learn English best D. students who arrived late were worst of all Question 42: The word 'who' refers to_______. A. Elissa Newport B. Koreans C. students D. colleagues Question 43: According to the passage, what was the purpose of examining a sample number of immigrants ? A. To compare different age groups B. To detect differences in nationalities C. To confirm different language characteristics D. To measure the use of grammar

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 44: Although my father’s always busy, he often helps me with my homework. A. My father’s always busy, but he often helps me with my homework. B. My father’s always busy, and he often helps me with my homework. C. My father’s always busy, so he often helps me with my homework. D. My father’s always busy because he often helps me with my homework. Question 45: We had to put off our wedding until September. A. It was not until September that our wedding had to be put off. B. Not until September did we have to put off our wedding. C. Our wedding until September had to be postponed. D. Our wedding had to be postponed until September. Question 46: As soon as he arrived at the airport, he called home. A. He arrived at the airport sooner than he had expected. B. No sooner had he arrived at the airport than he called home. C. Calling home, he said that he had arrived at the airport. D. He arrived at the airport and called me to take him home.



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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges. Question 47: - Nam: “ I don’t think Ênglish is too hard to study.” - Huy: “____________ “ . A. I do too B. I don’t neither C. Neither do I D. I do either Question 48: - Duy: “ How nice ! You performed so beautifully!“ - Huong: “____________“ A. Thank you. I am happy you like me. B. Thank you. But I don’t think I did well. C. Thank you. But I am not so sure. D. Thank you. It’s very encouraging. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 49: He behaved in a very strange way. That surprised me a lot. A. His behaviour was a very strange thing, that surprised me most. B. He behaved very strangely, which surprised me very much. C. What almost surprised me was the strange way he behaved. D. I was almost not surprised by his strange behaviour. Question 50: Put your coat on. You will get cold. A. You will not get cold unless you put your coat on. B. Put your coat on, otherwise you will get cold. C. It is not until you put your coat on that you will get cold. D. You not only put your coat on but also get cold.

___________THE END____________






Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 1: A. measure B. breathe C.breath D. head Question 2: A. missed B. stopped C. talked D. arrived

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 3: A. explain B. involve C. purpose D. control Question 4: A. dictation B. communicate C. occasion D. reservation

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 5: Around 150 B.C. the Greek astronomer Hipparchus developed a system to classify stars according to brightness. A. record B. shine C. categorize D. diversify Question 6: She is always diplomatic when she deals with angry students. A. strict B. outspoken C. firm D. tactful

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 7: The situation in the country has remained relatively stable for a few months now. A. constant B. objective C. changeable D. ignorant Question 8: In big cities, animals should be kept under control. A. out of dispute B. out of hand C. out of order D. out of discipline

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.



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Question 9: The world is becoming more industrialized and the number of animal species that have become extinct have increased.

A. industrialized B. species C. extinct D. have Question 10: Each of the members of the group were made to write a report every week. A. members B. were C. to write D. week Question 11: If you think carefully before making your decision, you will avoid to get into trouble later. A. carefully B. making C. to get D. later

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 12: Those who don’t get_________ their colleagues are sometimes isolated at their jobs.

A. up with B. on to C .by with D. along with Question 13: When I_________ to visit her yesterday, she_________ a party. A. come/ was prepared B. came/ prepared C. came/ was preparing D. came/has prepared Question 14: Peter is so_________ that he never thinks of anything bad and unsuccessful.

A. optimistic B. disappointed C. pessimistic D. keen Question 15: If you finish the report, please give it to your supervisor. He will read_________ and make any necessary changes.

A. out B. through C. over D. with Question 16: I_________ Tom with me if I had known you and he didn’t get along well with each other. A. won’t bring B. didn’t bring C. hadn’t brought D. wouldn’t have brought Question 17: Last year Matt earned_________ his brother, who had a better position. A. twice as much as B. twice more than C. twice as more as D. twice as many as Question 18: Reagan_________ an actor years ago. A. is said to be B. was said being C. was said have been D. is said to have been Question 19: No sooner_________ the feast will start tomorrow. A. will the bell ring than B. the bell will ring than C. the bell will ring when D. will the bell ring when Question 20: A (n)_________ child means a child who behaves badly and saddens his parents. A. active B. hard – working C. obedient D. insubordinate Question 21: Much progress on computers_________ since 1950. A. has been made B. has done C. has been done D. has made Question 22: It looks like they’re going to succeed_________ their present difficulties. A. despite B. because of C. even though D. yet Question 23: Everyone likes_________ when they have got some success. A. to congratulate B. to be congratulating C. to be congratulated D. being congratulated

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 24 to 30. According to airline industry statistics, almost 90 percent of airline accidents are survivable or partially survivable. But passengers can increase their chances of survival by learning and following certain tips. Experts say that you should read and listen to safety instructions before take-off and ask questions if you have uncertainties. You should fasten your seat belt low on your hips and as tightly as possible. Of course, you should also know how the release mechanism of your belt operates. During take-off and landings you are advised to keep your feet flat on the floor. Before takeoff you should locate the nearest exit and an alternative exit and count the rows of seat between you and the exits so that you can find them in the dark if necessary. In the even that you are forewarned of the possible accident, you should put your hands on your ankles and keep your head down until the plane come to complete stop. If smoke is present in the cabin, you should keep your head low and cover your face with napkins, towels, or clothing. If possible, wet these for added protection against smoke inhalation. To evacuate as quickly as possible, follow crew command and do not take personal belongings with



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you. Do not jump on escape slides before they are fully inflated and when you jump, do so with your arms and legs extended in front of you. When you get to the ground, you should move away from the plane as quickly as possible, and never smoke near the wreckage.

Question 24: According to the passage, which exits should an airline passenger locate before take-off ? A. The nearest one. B. The ones that can be found in the dark.

C. The two closest to the passenger’s seat. D. The ones with counted rows of seats between them.

Question 25. The word “evacuate” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to______. A. vacate B. escape C. maintain D. return

Question 26. According to the passage, airline travelers should keep their feet flat on the floor______.

A. during take-off and landings B. throughout the flight C. especially during landings D. only if an accident is possible

Question 27. What is the main topic of the passage? A. Airline industry accident statistics. B. Guidelines for increasing aircraft passengers survival. C. Procedures for evacuating aircraft. D. Safety instructions in air travel.

Question 28. Airline passenger are to do all of the following EXCEPT______. A. fasten their seat belt before take-off B. locate the nearest exist C. carry personal belongings in an emergency D. ask questions about safety

Question 29. The word “inflated” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to______. A. expanded B. lifted C. increased D. assembled

Question 30. Travelers are urged by experts to read and listen to safety instructions______. A. if smoke is in the cabin B. before take-off C. before locating the exits D. in an emergency

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35. There is usually one important subject missing from most school timetables. Very few students are (31)______ how to organize their learning, and how to make the best use of their time. Let’s take some simple examples. Do you know how to (32)______ up words in a dictionary , and do you understand all the information the dictionary contains ? Can you (33)______ notes quickly, and can you understand them afterwards ? For some reason, many schools give learners no help with these matters. Teachers ask students to (34)______ pages from books , or tell them to write ten pages, but don’t explain how to do it. Learning by heart can be useful, but it is important to have a genuine understanding of a subject. You can (35)______ a lot of time memorizing books, without understanding anything about the subject.

Question 31: A. taught B. learned C. educated D. graduated Question 32: A. find B. get C. research D. look Question 33: A. do B. send C. make D. revise Question 34: A. concentrate B. remind C. forget D. memorize Question 35: A. pass B. waste C. tell D. use

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 43. In the exploration of the linguistic life circle, it is apparent that it is much more difficult to learn a second language in adulthood than a first language in childhood. Most adults never completely master a foreign language, especially in phonology - hence the foreign accent. Their development often 'fossilizes' into permanent error patterns that no teaching or correction can undo. Of course there are great individual differences, which depend on effort, attitudes, amount of exposure, quality of teaching, and plain talent, but there seems to be a cap for the best adults in the best circumstances.



110

Many explanations have been advanced for children's superiority: they exploit the simplified, repetitive conversation between parents and children, make errors unself-consciously, are more motivated to communicate, like to conform, are not set in their ways, and have no first language to, interfere. But some of these accounts are unlikely, based on what is known about how language acquisition works.: Recent evidence is calling these social and motivation explanations into doubt. Holding every other factor constant, a key factor stands out: sheer age.

Systematic evidence comes from the psychologist Elissa Newport and her colleagues. They tested Korean and Chinese-born students at the University of Illinois who had spent at least ten years in the U.S. The immigrants were given a list of 276 simple English sentences, half of them containing some grammatical error. The immigrants who came to the U.S. between the ages of three an seven performed identically to American-born students. Those who arrived between the ages of 8 and 15 did worse the later they arrived, and those who arrived between 17 and 39 did the worst of all, and showed huge variability unrelated their age of arrival.

Question 36: The passage mainly discusses_______. A. adult differences in learning a foreign language B. children's ability to learn a language C. the age factor in learning languages fast D. Research into language acquisition Question 37: The word 'cap' is closest in meaning to_______. A. prize B. limit C. covering D. level Question 38: According to the passage, young children learn languages quickly for all the following reasons EXCEPT_______. A. they make many mistakes B. they want to talk C. their approach is flexible D. they frequently repeat words Question 39: The word 'set' is closest in meaning to_______. A. fixed B. changed C. stable D. formed Question 40: The word 'unrelated' could be replaced by_______. A. unconnected B. unfamiliar C. unclassified D. unidentified Question 41: In the experiment in the passage, the psychologists discovered_______. A. most students had lived in the U.S. for more than ten years B. older students were unable to learn English C. young students learn English best D. students who arrived late were worst of all Question 42: The word 'who' refers to_______. A. Elissa Newport B. Koreans C. students D. colleagues Question 43: According to the passage, what was the purpose of examining a sample number of immigrants ? A. To compare different age groups B. To detect differences in nationalities C. To confirm different language characteristics D. To measure the use of grammar

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 44: Although my father’s always busy, he often helps me with my homework. A. My father’s always busy, but he often helps me with my homework. B. My father’s always busy, and he often helps me with my homework. C. My father’s always busy, so he often helps me with my homework. D. My father’s always busy because he often helps me with my homework. Question 45: We had to put off our wedding until September. A. It was not until September that our wedding had to be put off. B. Not until September did we have to put off our wedding. C. Our wedding until September had to be postponed. D. Our wedding had to be postponed until September. Question 46: As soon as he arrived at the airport, he called home. A. He arrived at the airport sooner than he had expected.



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B. No sooner had he arrived at the airport than he called home. C. Calling home, he said that he had arrived at the airport. D. He arrived at the airport and called me to take him home.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges. Question 47: - Nam: “ I don’t think Ênglish is too hard to study.” - Huy: “____________ “ . A. I do too B. I don’t neither C. Neither do I D. I do either Question 48: - Duy: “ How nice ! You performed so beautifully!“ - Huong: “____________“ A. Thank you. I am happy you like me. B. Thank you. But I don’t think I did well. C. Thank you. But I am not so sure. D. Thank you. It’s very encouraging. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 49: He behaved in a very strange way. That surprised me a lot. A. His behaviour was a very strange thing, that surprised me most. B. He behaved very strangely, which surprised me very much. C. What almost surprised me was the strange way he behaved. D. I was almost not surprised by his strange behaviour. Question 50: Put your coat on. You will get cold. A. You will not get cold unless you put your coat on. B. Put your coat on, otherwise you will get cold. C. It is not until you put your coat on that you will get cold. D. You not only put your coat on but also get cold.

___________THE END____________






Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 1: A. host B. prove C. compose D. program Question 2: A. pencil B. penalty C. personality D. peasant

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 3: A. prisoner B. disaster C. agency D. president Question 4: A. pity B. event C. medal D. spirit

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the italic word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 5: The situation seems to be changing minute by minute A. again and again B. from time to time C. very rapidly D. time after time. Question 6: Human beings are constantly contaminating natural habitats of the wildlife. A. polluting B. promoting C. destroying D. protecting

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the italic word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 7: The proposal will go ahead despite strong objections from the public A. support B. disagreement C. agreement D. dislike Question 8: Mathematics, a required subject in all schools, is divided into many branches.



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A. assembled B. separated C. strengthened D. shortened

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 9: Many young people lack skills, good education, and financial to settle in the urban areas where many jobs are found.

A. lack B. finacial C. urban areas D. are found Question 10: A basic knowledge of social studies, such as history and geography, are considered a basic part of the education of every child. A. basic B. history C. are D. child Question 11: It has been said that laser to be the most miraculous to cure patients.

A. has been said B. that C. to be D. the most

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 12: Only because she had to support her family________ to leave school. A. that Alice decides B. so Alice decided C. Alice decided D. did Alice decide Question 13: ________ today, there would be nowhere for them to stay. A. If they arrive B. Had they arrive C. Were they to arrive D. Provided they arrived Question 14: An economic________ is a time when there is very little economic activity, which causes a lot of unemployment and poverty.

A. improvement B. depression C. development D. mission Question 15: Our plan________ by the members of the committee A. considers B. considered C. is considering D. is being considered Question 16: The children were quite attracted by the tamer and his animals________ were performing on the stage. A. that B. which C. whom D. who Question 17: Government have________ laws to protect wildlife from overhunting and commercial trade. A. enacted B. enabled C. enlarged D. encouraged Question 18: I________ a terrible accident while I________ on the beach. A. see/ am walking B. saw/ was walking

C. was seeing/ walked D. have seen/ were walking Question 19: There's a rumor that the National Bank is going to________ the company I work for. A. take on B. take out of C. take over D. take off Question 20: Peter won’t come to see you tomorrow, ________? A. is he B. will you C. will he D. does he Question 21: By working systematically, you________ achieve the results you desire. A. should B. may C. had better D. would rather Question 22: As soon as I________ smoking, I felt a lot better. A. took up B. took out C. gave out D. gave up Question 23: Smoking is not permitted here, so you’d better________ your cigarette. A. extinguish B. to extinguish C. extinguishing D. extinguished

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 24 to 30. Marian Anderson’s brilliant singing career began at age six when she sang spirituals at the Union Baptist Church in her hometown of Philadelphia. She toured Europe in the 1920s, drawing vast acclaim. However, when she returned to the United States she was still barred from performing on the American operatic stage. After she was prevented from singing in Washington’s segregated Constitution Hall in 1939, Eleanor Roosevelt intervened and arranged for Miss Anderson to perform at the Lincoln Memorial. A crowd of 75,000 people came to watch her sing before the Memorial. Marian Anderson’s beautiful contralto voice broke down racial barriers,



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showing white Americans that blacks had a profound contribution to make to America’s cultural life. Eventually, in 1955, she became the first African- American singer to perform at New York’s Metropolitan Opera. In her many years of touring, she had to endure a racism that forced her to enter concert halls and hotels through service entrances. Her grace under this stress showed a moral perseverance that paralleled that of the famous Martin Luther King, Jr.

Question 24: We can conclude from the passage that Marian Anderson first toured Europe instead of the United States because_______. A. it was too expensive to tour in the United States B. she was not allowed to perform in the United States C. she was paid more in Europe D. there were better operatic facilities in Europe Question 25: The word "barred" in line 3 could best be replaced by which of the following ? A. purged B. released C. overpowered D. prohibited Question 26: The significance of Anderson's Lincoln Memorial performance was that_______. A. 75,000 people came B. her contralto voice was beautiful C. She was too young D. she was a black performer Question 27: The phrase "broke down racial barriers" in the first paragraph means_______. A. shattered obstacles B. disclosed opportunities C. revealed inaccuracies D. analyzed destinations Question 28: The word "eventually" in the second paragraph could best be replaced by_______. A. sooner B. in the long run C. at last D. recently Question 29: According to the passage, what did Marian Anderson have in common with Martin Luther King, Jr? A. singing in church B. a performance at the Lincoln Memorial C. a clear strong voice D. moral perseverance Question 30: What is NOT TRUE about Marian Anderson? A. She had contralto voice. B. She was a black singer. C. Her singing career started after she was ten years old. D. She was the first who performed at New York’s Metropolitan Opera in 1955.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35. It’s quite rare to meet teenagers who don’t like sports. When you are young, you know how important (31)______ to do physical exercise if you want to be healthy and strong, and for that reason you often concentrate on just one sport with so (32)______ enthusiasm that in the end you can’t live without it. The problem is, though, that as you grow up you have less and less spare time. At your age you have to study harder if you want to get good marks to go to university, with perhaps only one afternoon a week to do any sport. This happens just when you are the best (33)______ for many sports, such as gymnastics and swimming. By the time you finish all your studies you will probably be too old to be really good at sports like those, but if you spend enough time on (34)______ while you are young, then one day you will find that you are very good at your sport but too old to study, and you will find it (35)______ to get a good job. Somehow, it doesn’t seem fair.

Question 31: A. this is B. you are C. it is D. things are Question 32: A. keen B. many C. great D. much Question 33: A. stage B. age C. period D. time Question 34: A. training B. practice C. exercise D. sporting Question 35: A. impractical B. unlikely C. improbable D. impossible

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 43. Sometimes people add to what they say even when they don't talk. Gestures are the "silent language" of every culture. We point a finger or move another part of the body to show what we want to say. It is important to know the body language of every country or



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we may be misunderstood. In the United States, people greet each other with a handshake in a formal introduction. The handshake must be firm. If the handshake is weak, it is a sign of weakness or unfriendliness. Friends may place a hand on the other's arm or shoulder. Some people, usually women, greet a friend with a hug. Space is important to Americans. When two people talk to each other, they usually stand about two and a half feet away and at an angle, so they are not facing each other directly. Americans get uncomfortable when a person stands too close. They will move back to have their space. If Americans touch another person by accident, they say, "Pardon me." or "Excuse me." Americans like to look the other person in the eyes when they are talking. If you don't do so, it means you are bored, hiding something, or are not interested. But when you are stare at someone, it is not polite. For Americans, thumbs-up means yes, very good, or well done. Thumbs down means the opposite. To call a waiter, raise one hand to head level or above. To show you want the check, make a movement with your hands as if you are signing a piece of paper. It is all right to point at things but not at people with the hand and index finger. Americans shake their index finger at children when they scold them and pat them on the head when they admire them. Learning a culture's body language is sometimes confusing. If you don't know what to do, the safest thing to do is to smile.

Question 36: From the passage we can learn that_______. A. gestures don't mean anything while talking B. It's confusing to understand a culture's body language C. gestures can help us to express ourselves D. American people often use body language in communication Question 37: The word “firm ” in the first paragraph refers to_________. A. tight B. small C. light D. fast Question 38: If you are introduced to a stranger from the USA, you should_______. A. greet him with a hug B. place a hand on his shoulder C. shake his hand weakly D. shake his hand firmly Question 39: American people often________. A. show their friendship by touching each other B. face each other directly when they are talking C. say "Pardon me" to each other when they are talking D. get uncomfortable when you stand or sit too close to them Question 40: When your friend give you a thumbs-up, he, in fact, ______. A. shows his rudeness to you B. shows his anger to you C. expresses his satisfaction to you D. expresses his worries about you Question 41: The word “confusing” in the second paragraph refers to_______. A. easy to understand B. difficult to understand

C. convenient to understand D. comfortable to understand Question 42: Which of the following is NOT true about the culture of the United States? A. It's impolite to look the other person in the eyes while talking. B. It's rude to look at the other person for a long time. C. Pointing at someone is usually considered rude.

D. It's all right to raise your hand slightly to attract the waiter's attention. Question 43: From this passage, we should pay much attention to_________ when communicating with Americans. A. gesture B. posture C. body language and space D. Both A & C

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 44: I did not come to your party due to the rain. A. If it did not rained, I would come to your party. B. It was the rain that prevented me from coming to your party. C. Even though it rained, I came to your party. D. Suppose it did not rain, I would come to your party.



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Question 45: As soon as he approached the house, the policeman stopped him. A. No sooner had he approached the house than the policeman stopped him. B. Hardly had he approached the house than the policeman stopped him. C. No sooner had he approached the house when the policeman stopped him. D. Hardly he had approached the house when the policeman stopped him. Question 46: I have never talked to the headmaster before . A. It’s the first time I ever talked to the headmaster B. It’s the first time I had ever talked to the headmaster. C. It’s the first time I have ever talked to the headmaster. D. It’s the first time I will ever have talked to the headmaster.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges. Question 47: - Nam: “I’m really tired. I’m taking next week off.“ - Mai: “_____________“ A. Take care, my love. Have a nice weekend! B. Really? I don’t know what you are going to do. C. That sounds like a good idea. The break will do you good. D. Well, you must be telling a lie! Question 48: - Huy: “I would like some more tea.” - Dung : “____________“. A. Well, I’d rather have coffee B. Certainly you are C. I’m sorry. I haven’t got any left D. No. I’ve had enough

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 49: They spent more money. They had to work harder. A. The more money they spent, the harder they had to work. B. The more they spent money, the harder work they had to. C. The more money they spent, the more harder they had to work. D. The more they spent money, the more hard they had to work. Question 50: I don’t remember the man. You met him at the canteen last week. A. I don’t remember the man whom you met him at the canteen last week. B. I don’t remember the man whose you met at the canteen last week. C. I don’t remember the man whom you met at the canteen last week. D. I don’t remember the man that you met him at the canteen last week.

___________THE END____________ SƠ GD&ĐT VINH PHUC TRƯƠNG THPT LIÊ N SƠN





Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 1: A. host B. prove C. compose D. program Question 2: A. pencil B. penalty C. personality D. peasant

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 3: A. prisoner B. disaster C. agency D. president Question 4: A. pity B. event C. medal D. spirit

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the italic word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 5: The situation seems to be changing minute by minute



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A. again and again B. from time to time C. very rapidly D. time after time. Question 6: Human beings are constantly contaminating natural habitats of the wildlife. A. polluting B. promoting C. destroying D. protecting

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the italic word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 7: The proposal will go ahead despite strong objections from the public A. support B. disagreement C. agreement D. dislike Question 8: Mathematics, a required subject in all schools, is divided into many branches. A. assembled B. separated C. strengthened D. shortened

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 9: Many young people lack skills, good education, and financial to settle in the urban areas where many jobs are found.

A. lack B. finacial C. urban areas D. are found Question 10: A basic knowledge of social studies, such as history and geography, are considered a basic part of the education of every child. A. basic B. history C. are D. child Question 11: It has been said that laser to be the most miraculous to cure patients.

A. has been said B. that C. to be D. the most

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 12: Only because she had to support her family________ to leave school. A. that Alice decides B. so Alice decided C. Alice decided D. did Alice decide Question 13: ________ today, there would be nowhere for them to stay. A. If they arrive B. Had they arrive C. Were they to arrive D. Provided they arrived Question 14: An economic________ is a time when there is very little economic activity, which causes a lot of unemployment and poverty.

A. improvement B. depression C. development D. mission Question 15: Our plan________ by the members of the committee A. considers B. considered C. is considering D. is being considered Question 16: The children were quite attracted by the tamer and his animals________ were performing on the stage. A. that B. which C. whom D. who Question 17: Government have________ laws to protect wildlife from overhunting and commercial trade. A. enacted B. enabled C. enlarged D. encouraged Question 18: I________ a terrible accident while I________ on the beach. A. see/ am walking B. saw/ was walking

C. was seeing/ walked D. have seen/ were walking Question 19: There's a rumor that the National Bank is going to________ the company I work for. A. take on B. take out of C. take over D. take off Question 20: Peter won’t come to see you tomorrow, ________? A. is he B. will you C. will he D. does he Question 21: By working systematically, you________ achieve the results you desire. A. should B. may C. had better D. would rather Question 22: As soon as I________ smoking, I felt a lot better. A. took up B. took out C. gave out D. gave up Question 23: Smoking is not permitted here, so you’d better________ your cigarette. A. extinguish B. to extinguish C. extinguishing D. extinguished




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Marian Anderson’s brilliant singing career began at age six when she sang spirituals at the Union Baptist Church in her hometown of Philadelphia. She toured Europe in the 1920s, drawing vast acclaim. However, when she returned to the United States she was still barred from performing on the American operatic stage. After she was prevented from singing in Washington’s segregated Constitution Hall in 1939, Eleanor Roosevelt intervened and arranged for Miss Anderson to perform at the Lincoln Memorial. A crowd of 75,000 people came to watch her sing before the Memorial. Marian Anderson’s beautiful contralto voice broke down racial barriers, showing white Americans that blacks had a profound contribution to make to America’s cultural life. Eventually, in 1955, she became the first African- American singer to perform at New York’s Metropolitan Opera. In her many years of touring, she had to endure a racism that forced her to enter concert halls and hotels through service entrances. Her grace under this stress showed a moral perseverance that paralleled that of the famous Martin Luther King, Jr.

Question 24: We can conclude from the passage that Marian Anderson first toured Europe instead of the United States because_______. A. it was too expensive to tour in the United States B. she was not allowed to perform in the United States C. she was paid more in Europe D. there were better operatic facilities in Europe Question 25: The word "barred" in line 3 could best be replaced by which of the following ? A. purged B. released C. overpowered D. prohibited Question 26: The significance of Anderson's Lincoln Memorial performance was that_______. A. 75,000 people came B. her contralto voice was beautiful C. She was too young D. she was a black performer Question 27: The phrase "broke down racial barriers" in the first paragraph means_______. A. shattered obstacles B. disclosed opportunities C. revealed inaccuracies D. analyzed destinations Question 28: The word "eventually" in the second paragraph could best be replaced by_______. A. sooner B. in the long run C. at last D. recently Question 29: According to the passage, what did Marian Anderson have in common with Martin Luther King, Jr? A. singing in church B. a performance at the Lincoln Memorial C. a clear strong voice D. moral perseverance Question 30: What is NOT TRUE about Marian Anderson? A. She had contralto voice. B. She was a black singer. C. Her singing career started after she was ten years old. D. She was the first who performed at New York’s Metropolitan Opera in 1955.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35. It’s quite rare to meet teenagers who don’t like sports. When you are young, you know how important (31)______ to do physical exercise if you want to be healthy and strong, and for that reason you often concentrate on just one sport with so (32)______ enthusiasm that in the end you can’t live without it. The problem is, though, that as you grow up you have less and less spare time. At your age you have to study harder if you want to get good marks to go to university, with perhaps only one afternoon a week to do any sport. This happens just when you are the best (33)______ for many sports, such as gymnastics and swimming. By the time you finish all your studies you will probably be too old to be really good at sports like those, but if you spend enough time on (34)______ while you are young, then one day you will find that you are very good at your sport but too old to study, and you will find it (35)______ to get a good job. Somehow, it doesn’t seem fair.

Question 31: A. this is B. you are C. it is D. things are Question 32: A. keen B. many C. great D. much Question 33: A. stage B. age C. period D. time



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Question 34: A. training B. practice C. exercise D. sporting Question 35: A. impractical B. unlikely C. improbable D. impossible

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 43. Sometimes people add to what they say even when they don't talk. Gestures are the "silent language" of every culture. We point a finger or move another part of the body to show what we want to say. It is important to know the body language of every country or we may be misunderstood. In the United States, people greet each other with a handshake in a formal introduction. The handshake must be firm. If the handshake is weak, it is a sign of weakness or unfriendliness. Friends may place a hand on the other's arm or shoulder. Some people, usually women, greet a friend with a hug. Space is important to Americans. When two people talk to each other, they usually stand about two and a half feet away and at an angle, so they are not facing each other directly. Americans get uncomfortable when a person stands too close. They will move back to have their space. If Americans touch another person by accident, they say, "Pardon me." or "Excuse me." Americans like to look the other person in the eyes when they are talking. If you don't do so, it means you are bored, hiding something, or are not interested. But when you are stare at someone, it is not polite. For Americans, thumbs-up means yes, very good, or well done. Thumbs down means the opposite. To call a waiter, raise one hand to head level or above. To show you want the check, make a movement with your hands as if you are signing a piece of paper. It is all right to point at things but not at people with the hand and index finger. Americans shake their index finger at children when they scold them and pat them on the head when they admire them. Learning a culture's body language is sometimes confusing. If you don't know what to do, the safest thing to do is to smile.

Question 36: From the passage we can learn that_______. A. gestures don't mean anything while talking B. It's confusing to understand a culture's body language C. gestures can help us to express ourselves D. American people often use body language in communication Question 37: The word “firm ” in the first paragraph refers to_________. A. tight B. small C. light D. fast Question 38: If you are introduced to a stranger from the USA, you should_______. A. greet him with a hug B. place a hand on his shoulder C. shake his hand weakly D. shake his hand firmly Question 39: American people often________. A. show their friendship by touching each other B. face each other directly when they are talking C. say "Pardon me" to each other when they are talking D. get uncomfortable when you stand or sit too close to them Question 40: When your friend give you a thumbs-up, he, in fact, ______. A. shows his rudeness to you B. shows his anger to you C. expresses his satisfaction to you D. expresses his worries about you Question 41: The word “confusing” in the second paragraph refers to_______. A. easy to understand B. difficult to understand

C. convenient to understand D. comfortable to understand Question 42: Which of the following is NOT true about the culture of the United States? A. It's impolite to look the other person in the eyes while talking. B. It's rude to look at the other person for a long time. C. Pointing at someone is usually considered rude.

D. It's all right to raise your hand slightly to attract the waiter's attention. Question 43: From this passage, we should pay much attention to_________ when communicating with Americans. A. gesture B. posture C. body language and space D. Both A & C



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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 44: I did not come to your party due to the rain. A. If it did not rained, I would come to your party. B. It was the rain that prevented me from coming to your party. C. Even though it rained, I came to your party. D. Suppose it did not rain, I would come to your party. Question 45: As soon as he approached the house, the policeman stopped him. A. No sooner had he approached the house than the policeman stopped him. B. Hardly had he approached the house than the policeman stopped him. C. No sooner had he approached the house when the policeman stopped him. D. Hardly he had approached the house when the policeman stopped him. Question 46: I have never talked to the headmaster before . A. It’s the first time I ever talked to the headmaster B. It’s the first time I had ever talked to the headmaster. C. It’s the first time I have ever talked to the headmaster. D. It’s the first time I will ever have talked to the headmaster.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges. Question 47: - Nam: “I’m really tired. I’m taking next week off.“ - Mai: “_____________“ A. Take care, my love. Have a nice weekend! B. Really? I don’t know what you are going to do. C. That sounds like a good idea. The break will do you good. D. Well, you must be telling a lie! Question 48: - Huy: “I would like some more tea.” - Dung : “____________“. A. Well, I’d rather have coffee B. Certainly you are C. I’m sorry. I haven’t got any left D. No. I’ve had enough

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 49: They spent more money. They had to work harder. A. The more money they spent, the harder they had to work. B. The more they spent money, the harder work they had to. C. The more money they spent, the more harder they had to work. D. The more they spent money, the more hard they had to work. Question 50: I don’t remember the man. You met him at the canteen last week. A. I don’t remember the man whom you met him at the canteen last week. B. I don’t remember the man whose you met at the canteen last week. C. I don’t remember the man whom you met at the canteen last week. D. I don’t remember the man that you met him at the canteen last week.

___________THE END____________






Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 1: A. relaxed B. kissed C. surprised D. stopped Question 2: A. integration B. international C. immigration D. operation



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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 3: A. effective B. informal C. dependent D. kangaroo Question 4: A. vacancy B. remember C. impression D. experience

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the italic word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 5: Your failure is the consequence of not studying hard enough for the test. A. cause B. motive C. result D. status Question 6: This is the instance where big, obvious non-verbal signals are appropriate. A. matter B. attention C. place D. situation

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the italic word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 7: The boy denied breaking the window of the neighbor’s house. A. admitted B. agreed C. regretted D. refused Question 8: I found a job at a local hospital after I had graduated from Hai Phong Medicine College. A. out of work B. out of fashion C. out of order D. out of practice

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 9: There must be something wrong with him because he looks rather tiredly. A. There B. something wrong C. with D. tiredly Question 10: It wasn’t until I graduated from university that I didn’t realize the value of good education. A. until B. from C. that D. didn’t realize Question 11: Last week Mark told me that he got very bored with his present job and is looking for a new one. A. told B. got C. is looking for D. new one

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 12: Volunteers spend a lot of time_________ the elderly in their neighborhood to settle their lives. A. help B. to help C. helping D. on helping Question 13: He can't go out because he_________ his work. A. doesn't finish B. hasn't finished C. didn't finish D. hadn't finished Question 14: I saw him hiding something in a_________ bag. A. plastic small black B. small plastic black C. black small plastic D. small black plastic Question 15: No sooner _________ the soldiers leaped into the water. A. had the ship touched the shore than B. had the ship touched the shore when C. the ship had touched the shore then D. the ship touched the shore than Question 16: This present will be given to_________ can answer the last question. A. whomever B. whoever C. whom D. who Question 17: Had I not stayed up late last night, I_________ tired now. A. wouldn’t be B. won’t be. C. can’t be. D. wouldn’t have been Question 18: I can’t recall_________ that old movie, but maybe I did many years ago. A. to see B. to have seen C. having been seen D. having seen Question 19: I told you_________ the computer, didn’t I ? A. not switch off B. don’t switch off C. to switch off D. switch off Question 20: Claire wanted to know what time_________ . A. do the banks close B. the banks closed C. did the banks close D. the banks would close Question 21: They_________ my application because I didn’t know Japanese. A. turned down B. turned on C. turned up D. turned into Question 22: _________ his physical handicap, he has become a successful businessman. A. Although B Because C. In spite D. Despite



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Question 23: Neil Armstrong, the first person_________ on the moon, reported that the surface was fine and powdery. A. set foot B. to set foot C. setting foot D. that set foot

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 24 to 30. Since the world became industrialized, the number of animal species that have either become extinct or have neared extinction has increased. Bengal tigers, for instance, which once roamed the jungles in vast numbers, now number only about 2,300. By the year 2025, it is estimated that they will become extinct. What is alarming about the case of the Bengal tiger is that this extinction will have been caused almost entirely by poachers who, according to some sources, are not always interested in material gain but in personal gratification. This is an example of the callousness that is contributing to the problem of extinction. Animals such as the Bengal tiger, as well as other endangered species, are valuable parts of the world’s ecosystem. International laws protecting these animals must be enacted to ensure their survival – and the survival of our planet. Countries around the world have begun to deal with the problem in various ways. Some countries, in an effort to circumvent the problem, have allocated large amounts of land to animals reserves. They then charge admission prices to help defray the costs of maintaining the parks, and they often must also depend on world organizations for support. This money enables them to invest in equipment and patrols to protect the animals. Another response to the increase in animal extinction is an international boycott of products made from endangered species. This has had some effect, but by itself it will not prevent animals from being hunted and killed.

Question 24: What is the main topic of the passage? A. Endangered species B. Problems with industrialization C. The Bengal tiger D. International boycotts Question 25: The word “poachers” could be best replaced by which of the following? A. Concerned scientists B. Enterprising researchers C. Illegal hunters D. Trained hunters Question 26: The word “callousness” could be best replaced by which of the following? A. incompetence B. indirectness C. insensitivity D. independence Question 27: The previous passage is divided into two paragraphs in order to contrast_______ . A. A comparison and a contrast B. A problem and a solution C. A statement and an illustration D. Specific and general information Question 28: What does the word “this” refer to in the passage? A. Bengal tiger B. Interest in material gain C. Killing animals for personal satisfaction D. The decrease in the Bengal tiger population Question 29: Which of the following could best replace the word “allocated”? A. set aside B. combined C. taken D. organized Question 30: What does the term “international boycott” refer to? A. A global increase in animal survival B. A refusal to buy animal products worldwide C. Defraying the cost of maintaining national parks D. Buying and selling of animal products overseas


Environmental Concerns Earth is the only place we know of in the universe that can support human life. (31)_______ human activities are making the planet less fit to live on. As the western world carries on consuming two-thirds of the world's resources while half of the world's population do so just to stay (32)_______ we are rapidly destroying the only resource we have by which all people can survive and prosper. Everywhere fertile soil is either built on or washed into the sea. Renewable resources are exploited so much that they will never be able to recover (33)_______. We discharge



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pollutants into the atmosphere without any thought of the consequences. As a result ,the planet's ability to support people is being reduced at the very time when rising human numbers and consumption are making increasingly heavy demands on it. The Earth's (34)_______ resources are there for us to use. We need food, water, air, energy, medicines, warmth, shelter and minerals to keep us fed, comfortable, healthy and active. If we are sensible in how we use the resources they will last indefinitely. But if we use them wastefully and excessively they will soon (35)_______ and everyone will suffer.

Question 31: A. Still B. Despite C. Yet D. Although Question 32: A. survival B. alive C. existent D. live Question 33: A. completely B. quite C. greatly D. utterly Question 34: A. real B. living C. genuine D. natural Question 35: A. run out B. run away C. run up D. run off

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50. May 7, 1840 , was the birthday of one of the most famous Russian composers of the nineteenth century : Peter Illich Tchaikovsky . The son of a mining inspector , Tchaikovsky studied music as a child and later studied composition at the St. Petersburg Conservatory. His greatest period of productivity occurred between 1876 and 1890 , during which time he enjoyed the patronage of Madame Von Meck , a woman he never met , who gave him a living stipend of about 1,000 a year . Madame Von Meck later terminated her friendship with Tchaikovsky , as well as his living allowance, when she herself was facing financial difficulties . It was during the time of Madame Von Meck’ s patronage , however, that Tchaikovsky created the music for which he is most famous , including the music for the ballets of Swan Lake and The Sleeping Beauty . Tchaikovsky’s music , well known for its rich melodic and sometimes melancholy passages , was one of the first that brought serious dramatic music to dance .Before this , little attention had been given to the music behind the dance .Tchaikovsky died on November 6, 1893 , ostensibly of cholera, although there are now some scholars who argue that he committed suicide.

Question 36: What is the passage primarily about? A. The life and music of Tchaikovsky B. The development of Tchaikovsky’s music C. The cause of Tchaikovsky’s death D. Tchaikovsky’s relationship with his father

Question 37: According to the passage, Tchaikovsky’s father was most probably a________. A. Soldier B. composer C. musician D. supervisor

Question 38: The phrase “enjoyed the patronage of ” probably mean________. A. was mentally attached to B. liked the company of C. was financially dependent on D. received advice from

Question 39: According to the passage , all of the following are true about Madame von Meck EXCEPT________. A. She had trouble with money B. She was a generous woman

C. She liked Tchaikovsky’s music D. She never saw Tchaikovsky in person Question 40: Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage?

A. Tchaikovsky’s school B. Tchaikovsky’s death C. Tchaikovsky’s wife D.Tchaikovsky’s music

Question 41: According to the passage, Swan lake and The Sleeping Beauty are________. A. dances B. plays C. operas D. songs

Question 42: The word “terminated” in the passage is closest in meaning to which of the following? A. ended B. started C. continued D. strengthened Question 43: The word “which” in the passage refers to________.

A. Madame von Meck’s patronage B. the ballet Swan Lake C. Tchaikovsky’s music D. Tchaikovsky’s living allowance



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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 44: In spite of all our efforts, we failed in the final match. A. Although we tried very hard, we failed in the final match. B. We made all our efforts so that we could again success in the final match. C. Whatever efforts we had made, we weren’t able to win in the final match. D. We failed in the final match as a result of all our great efforts. Question 45: She was so busy that she couldn’t answer the phone. A. She was very busy that she couldn’t answer the phone. B. She was too busy to answer the phone. C. She was too busy not to answer the phone. D. She was very busy so that she couldn’t answer the phone Question 46: The teacher did not let his students leave school until 6 p.m. A. Both the teacher and his students had to leave school before 6 p.m. B. All the students were allowed to leave school until 6 p.m. C. It was at 6 p.m. that the teacher and his students were made to leave school. D. It was not until 6 p.m. that the teacher let his students leave school.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges. Question 47: - Nam: “I wonder if you could help me”. - Kien: “_______________“.

A. Don’t mention it B. Really ? How nice. C. I’ll do my best. What’s up ? D. No, what is it ?

Question 48: - Boss: “How long will it take to finish that report ?” - Jane: “____________“. A. It’s about 10 pages long B. I agree. It’s very long C. I will report it to the manager D. I’ll have finished it by next week.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 49: John needs to see the doctor. His cough is terrible.

A. John, that cough is terrible, needs to see the doctor. B. John, whose cough is terrible, needs to see the doctor. C. John, who cough is terrible, needs to see the doctor. D. John, whom cough is terrible, needs to see the doctor.

Question 50: Vietnam exports a lot of rice. It is grown mainly in the south of the country. A. Vietnam exports a lot of rice which grown mainly in the south of the country. B. Vietnam exports a lot of rice, that is mainly grown in the south of the country. C. Vietnam exports a lot of rice grown mainly in the south of the country. D. Vietnam, which is grown mainly in the south of the country, exports a lot of rice.

___________THE END____________






Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 1: A. relaxed B. kissed C. surprised D. stopped Question 2: A. integration B. international C. immigration D. operation




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Question 3: A. effective B. informal C. dependent D. kangaroo Question 4: A. vacancy B. remember C. impression D. experience

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the italic word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 5: Your failure is the consequence of not studying hard enough for the test. A. cause B. motive C. result D. status Question 6: This is the instance where big, obvious non-verbal signals are appropriate. A. matter B. attention C. place D. situation

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the italic word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 7: The boy denied breaking the window of the neighbor’s house. A. admitted B. agreed C. regretted D. refused Question 8: I found a job at a local hospital after I had graduated from Hai Phong Medicine College. A. out of work B. out of fashion C. out of order D. out of practice

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 9: There must be something wrong with him because he looks rather tiredly. A. There B. something wrong C. with D. tiredly Question 10: It wasn’t until I graduated from university that I didn’t realize the value of good education. A. until B. from C. that D. didn’t realize Question 11: Last week Mark told me that he got very bored with his present job and is looking for a new one. A. told B. got C. is looking for D. new one

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 12: Volunteers spend a lot of time_________ the elderly in their neighborhood to settle their lives. A. help B. to help C. helping D. on helping Question 13: He can't go out because he_________ his work. A. doesn't finish B. hasn't finished C. didn't finish D. hadn't finished Question 14: I saw him hiding something in a_________ bag. A. plastic small black B. small plastic black C. black small plastic D. small black plastic Question 15: No sooner _________ the soldiers leaped into the water. A. had the ship touched the shore than B. had the ship touched the shore when C. the ship had touched the shore then D. the ship touched the shore than Question 16: This present will be given to_________ can answer the last question. A. whomever B. whoever C. whom D. who Question 17: Had I not stayed up late last night, I_________ tired now. A. wouldn’t be B. won’t be. C. can’t be. D. wouldn’t have been Question 18: I can’t recall_________ that old movie, but maybe I did many years ago. A. to see B. to have seen C. having been seen D. having seen Question 19: I told you_________ the computer, didn’t I ? A. not switch off B. don’t switch off C. to switch off D. switch off Question 20: Claire wanted to know what time_________ . A. do the banks close B. the banks closed C. did the banks close D. the banks would close Question 21: They_________ my application because I didn’t know Japanese. A. turned down B. turned on C. turned up D. turned into Question 22: _________ his physical handicap, he has become a successful businessman. A. Although B Because C. In spite D. Despite Question 23: Neil Armstrong, the first person_________ on the moon, reported that the surface was fine and powdery. A. set foot B. to set foot C. setting foot D. that set foot



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Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 24 to 30. Since the world became industrialized, the number of animal species that have either become extinct or have neared extinction has increased. Bengal tigers, for instance, which once roamed the jungles in vast numbers, now number only about 2,300. By the year 2025, it is estimated that they will become extinct. What is alarming about the case of the Bengal tiger is that this extinction will have been caused almost entirely by poachers who, according to some sources, are not always interested in material gain but in personal gratification. This is an example of the callousness that is contributing to the problem of extinction. Animals such as the Bengal tiger, as well as other endangered species, are valuable parts of the world’s ecosystem. International laws protecting these animals must be enacted to ensure their survival – and the survival of our planet. Countries around the world have begun to deal with the problem in various ways. Some countries, in an effort to circumvent the problem, have allocated large amounts of land to animals reserves. They then charge admission prices to help defray the costs of maintaining the parks, and they often must also depend on world organizations for support. This money enables them to invest in equipment and patrols to protect the animals. Another response to the increase in animal extinction is an international boycott of products made from endangered species. This has had some effect, but by itself it will not prevent animals from being hunted and killed.

Question 24: What is the main topic of the passage? A. Endangered species B. Problems with industrialization C. The Bengal tiger D. International boycotts Question 25: The word “poachers” could be best replaced by which of the following? A. Concerned scientists B. Enterprising researchers C. Illegal hunters D. Trained hunters Question 26: The word “callousness” could be best replaced by which of the following? A. incompetence B. indirectness C. insensitivity D. independence Question 27: The previous passage is divided into two paragraphs in order to contrast_______ . A. A comparison and a contrast B. A problem and a solution C. A statement and an illustration D. Specific and general information Question 28: What does the word “this” refer to in the passage? A. Bengal tiger B. Interest in material gain C. Killing animals for personal satisfaction D. The decrease in the Bengal tiger population Question 29: Which of the following could best replace the word “allocated”? A. set aside B. combined C. taken D. organized Question 30: What does the term “international boycott” refer to? A. A global increase in animal survival B. A refusal to buy animal products worldwide C. Defraying the cost of maintaining national parks D. Buying and selling of animal products overseas


Environmental Concerns Earth is the only place we know of in the universe that can support human life. (31)_______ human activities are making the planet less fit to live on. As the western world carries on consuming two-thirds of the world's resources while half of the world's population do so just to stay (32)_______ we are rapidly destroying the only resource we have by which all people can survive and prosper. Everywhere fertile soil is either built on or washed into the sea. Renewable resources are exploited so much that they will never be able to recover (33)_______. We discharge pollutants into the atmosphere without any thought of the consequences. As a result ,the planet's ability to support people is being reduced at the very time when rising human numbers and consumption are making increasingly heavy demands on it.



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The Earth's (34)_______ resources are there for us to use. We need food, water, air, energy, medicines, warmth, shelter and minerals to keep us fed, comfortable, healthy and active. If we are sensible in how we use the resources they will last indefinitely. But if we use them wastefully and excessively they will soon (35)_______ and everyone will suffer.

Question 31: A. Still B. Despite C. Yet D. Although Question 32: A. survival B. alive C. existent D. live Question 33: A. completely B. quite C. greatly D. utterly Question 34: A. real B. living C. genuine D. natural Question 35: A. run out B. run away C. run up D. run off

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50. May 7, 1840 , was the birthday of one of the most famous Russian composers of the nineteenth century : Peter Illich Tchaikovsky . The son of a mining inspector , Tchaikovsky studied music as a child and later studied composition at the St. Petersburg Conservatory. His greatest period of productivity occurred between 1876 and 1890 , during which time he enjoyed the patronage of Madame Von Meck , a woman he never met , who gave him a living stipend of about 1,000 a year . Madame Von Meck later terminated her friendship with Tchaikovsky , as well as his living allowance, when she herself was facing financial difficulties . It was during the time of Madame Von Meck’ s patronage , however, that Tchaikovsky created the music for which he is most famous , including the music for the ballets of Swan Lake and The Sleeping Beauty . Tchaikovsky’s music , well known for its rich melodic and sometimes melancholy passages , was one of the first that brought serious dramatic music to dance .Before this , little attention had been given to the music behind the dance .Tchaikovsky died on November 6, 1893 , ostensibly of cholera, although there are now some scholars who argue that he committed suicide.

Question 36: What is the passage primarily about? A. The life and music of Tchaikovsky B. The development of Tchaikovsky’s music C. The cause of Tchaikovsky’s death D. Tchaikovsky’s relationship with his father

Question 37: According to the passage, Tchaikovsky’s father was most probably a________. A. Soldier B. composer C. musician D. supervisor

Question 38: The phrase “enjoyed the patronage of ” probably mean________. A. was mentally attached to B. liked the company of C. was financially dependent on D. received advice from

Question 39: According to the passage , all of the following are true about Madame von Meck EXCEPT________. A. She had trouble with money B. She was a generous woman

C. She liked Tchaikovsky’s music D. She never saw Tchaikovsky in person Question 40: Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage?

A. Tchaikovsky’s school B. Tchaikovsky’s death C. Tchaikovsky’s wife D.Tchaikovsky’s music

Question 41: According to the passage, Swan lake and The Sleeping Beauty are________. A. dances B. plays C. operas D. songs

Question 42: The word “terminated” in the passage is closest in meaning to which of the following? A. ended B. started C. continued D. strengthened Question 43: The word “which” in the passage refers to________.

A. Madame von Meck’s patronage B. the ballet Swan Lake C. Tchaikovsky’s music D. Tchaikovsky’s living allowance

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 44: In spite of all our efforts, we failed in the final match. A. Although we tried very hard, we failed in the final match.



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B. We made all our efforts so that we could again success in the final match. C. Whatever efforts we had made, we weren’t able to win in the final match. D. We failed in the final match as a result of all our great efforts. Question 45: She was so busy that she couldn’t answer the phone. A. She was very busy that she couldn’t answer the phone. B. She was too busy to answer the phone. C. She was too busy not to answer the phone. D. She was very busy so that she couldn’t answer the phone Question 46: The teacher did not let his students leave school until 6 p.m. A. Both the teacher and his students had to leave school before 6 p.m. B. All the students were allowed to leave school until 6 p.m. C. It was at 6 p.m. that the teacher and his students were made to leave school. D. It was not until 6 p.m. that the teacher let his students leave school.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges. Question 47: - Nam: “I wonder if you could help me”. - Kien: “_______________“.

A. Don’t mention it B. Really ? How nice. C. I’ll do my best. What’s up ? D. No, what is it ?

Question 48: - Boss: “How long will it take to finish that report ?” - Jane: “____________“. A. It’s about 10 pages long B. I agree. It’s very long C. I will report it to the manager D. I’ll have finished it by next week.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 49: John needs to see the doctor. His cough is terrible.

A. John, that cough is terrible, needs to see the doctor. B. John, whose cough is terrible, needs to see the doctor. C. John, who cough is terrible, needs to see the doctor. D. John, whom cough is terrible, needs to see the doctor.

Question 50: Vietnam exports a lot of rice. It is grown mainly in the south of the country. A. Vietnam exports a lot of rice which grown mainly in the south of the country. B. Vietnam exports a lot of rice, that is mainly grown in the south of the country. C. Vietnam exports a lot of rice grown mainly in the south of the country. D. Vietnam, which is grown mainly in the south of the country, exports a lot of rice.

___________THE END____________






Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 1: A. idiom B. unite C. identify D. survive Question 2: A. certain B. equal C. record D. demand

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 3: A. agency B. influence C. memory D. encounter Question 4: A. advance B. polo C. crossbar D. goalie



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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the italic word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 5: She hesitated for a moment, and then went on. A. walked B. continued speaking C. arrived school D. climbing up Question 6: They were forced to postpone the trip. A. put off B. call off C. do without D. see about

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the italic word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 7: He was so insubordinate that he lost his job within a week. A. fresh B. disobedient C. obedient D. understanding Question 8: Population growth rates vary among regions and even among countries within the same region. A. restrain B. remain unstable C. fluctuate D. stay unchanged

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 9: If there were less cars on the roads , there would be fewer accidents.

A. were B. less C. on D. fewer Question 10: When teenagers finish school, they have several choices: going to college , getting a job or the army.

A. When B. going to college C. getting a job D. the army Question 11: Students suppose to read all the questions carefully and find out the answers to them.

A. suppose B. to read C. questions carefully D. them

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 12: You look angry. He kept you waiting, _______ ?. A. don’t you B. didn’t you C. doesn’t he D. didn’t he Question 13: Peter is not used_______ late for school. He prefers punctuality. A. to be B. to being C. been D. being Question 14: He was_______ to leave school because he couldn’t afford the fees. A. obliged B. willing C. able D. make Question 15: The teacher asked a difficult question, but finally Ted_______ a good answer. A. came up to B. came up with C. came up for D. came out of Question 16: _______ students in our class is 45. A. A large amount of B. A lot of C. A number of D. The number of Question 17: English and French, _______ do you think is easier to learn? A. which language that B. which language C. what one D. what Question 18: We believe that the conservation of natural resources and habitats should be part of technological and economic________. A. development B. strength C. blossom D. increase Question 19: It’s very cold in here. Do you mind if I________ the heating? A. put off B. put up with C. put on D. put down Question 20: Remember to bring with you your school certificate and letters of________ from your teachers or your previous employers when you come to the interview. A. assignment B. invitation C. recommendation D. advertisement Question 21: Had you done as I told you, you________. A. would succeed B. will succeed C. could succeed D. would have succeeded Question 22: ________ she can buy everything she likes. A. So rich is she that B So rich she is that C. Such rich is she that D. All are right



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Question 23: _______, he walked to the station. A. Despite being tired B. Although to be tired C. In spite being tired D. Despite tired

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 24 to 30. A recent study shows that an unequal share of household chores is still the norm in many households, despite the fact that many more women now have jobs. In a survey of 1,256 people ages between18 and 65, men said they contributed an average of 37 per cent of the total housework, while the women estimated their share to be nearly double that, at 70 per cent. This ratio was not affected by whether the woman was working or not.

When they were asked what they thought was a fair division of labor, women with jobs felt that housework should be shared equally between male and female partners. Women who did not work outside the home were satisfied to perform 80 per cent - the majority of the household work - if their husbands did the remainder. Research has shown that, if levels increase beyond these percentages, women become unhappy and anxious, and feel they are unimportant.

After marriage, a woman is reported to increase her household workload by 14 hours per week, but for men the amount is just 90 minutes. So the division of labor becomes unbalanced, as a man's share increases much less than the woman's. It is the inequality and loss of respect, not the actual number of hours, which leads to anxiety and depression. The research describes housework as thankless and unfulfilling. Activities included in the study were cooking, cleaning, shopping, doing laundry, washing-up and childcare. Women who have jobs report that they feel overworked by these chores in addition to their professional duties. In contrast, full-time homemakers frequently anticipate going back to work when the children grow up. Distress for this group is caused by losing the teamwork in the marriage.

Question 24: The word “remainder” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to_________. A. what is left B. what is done C. what is fulfilled. D. what is shared Question 25: Although women think men should share the housework, those who do not have a paid job share_______ of the chores. A. 37 per cent B. 70 per cent C. 80 per cent D. 14 per cent Question 26: After getting married, _________. A. men do less housework B. women do twice as much housework C. men do more housework D. women have a bigger house Question 27: Women who do not have jobs become depressed_________. A. if their husbands do 20 per cent of the chores B. if they have to do more than half of the housework C. because they have no self-respect D. when their husbands do not help them Question 28: The word “norm” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to_________. A. strange thing B. usual thing C. changing thing D. unequal thing Question 29: According to the passage, a good relationship is the one in which_________. A. women do 80 per cent of the housework C. men do more housework than women

B. women and men divide the housework equally D. women do 14 hours of housework Question 30: Objects of the survey were_________. A. married people B. working people C. unemployed people D. people of a wide range of ages

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35. Early writing and Alphabets



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When people first began to write, they did not use an alphabet. Instead, they drew small pictures to (31)______ the objects they were writing about. This was very slow because there was a different picture for any word. The Ancient Egyptians had a (32)______ of picture writing that was described hieroglyphics. The meaning of this writing was forgotten for a very long time but in 1799 some scientists discovered a stone near Alexandria, in Egypt. The stone had been there for (33)______ a thousand years. It had both Greek and hieroglyphics on it and researchers were finally able to understand what the hieroglyphics meant. An alphabet is quite different (34)______ picture writing. It consists of letters or symbols that represent a sound and each sound is just part of one word. The Phoenicians, who lived about 3,000 years ago, developed the modern alphabets. It was later improved by the Roman‘s and this alphabet is now used (35)______ throughout the world.

Question 31: A. notice B. show C. appear D. mark Question 32: A. practice B. manner C. plan D. system Question 33: A. quite B. more C. over D. already Question 34: A. at B. from C. before D. between Question 35: A. broadly B. widely C. deeply D. hugely

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 43. In the primary school, a child is in a comparatively simple setting and most of the time forms a relationship with one familiar teacher. On entering secondary school, a new world opens up and frequently it is a much more difficult world. The pupil soon learns to be less in the way he speaks to teachers and even to his fellow pupils. He begins to lose gradually the free and easy ways of the primary school, for he senses the need for a more cautions approach in the secondary school where there are older pupils. Secondary staff and pupils suffer from the pressures of academic work and seem to have less time to stop and talk. Teachers with specialist roles may see hundreds of children in week and a pupil may be able to form relationships with very few of the staff. He has to decide which adults are approachable; good schools will make clear to every young person from the first year what guidance and personal help is available- but whether the reality of life in the institution actually encourages requests for help is another matter. Adults often forget what a confusing picture school can offer to a child. He sees a great deal of movement, a great number of people-often rather frightening looking people- and realises that an increasing number of choices and decisions have to be made. As he progresses through the school the confusion may become less but the choices and decisions required will increase. The school will rightly expect the pupil to take the first steps to obtain the help he needs, for this is the pattern of adult life for which he has to be prepared, but all the time the opportunities for personal and group advice must be presented in a way which makes them easy to understand and within easy reach of pupils.

Question 36. According to the passage one of the problems for pupils entering secondary school is that_______. A. they are taught by many different teachers B. they do not attend lessons in every subject C. the teachers do not want to be friendly D. the teachers give most attention to the more academic pupils Question 37. The teachers at secondary school do not talk much to the pupils because_______. A. they want to keep a certain distance with the pupils C. the pupils are afraid of them B. they are too busy with their academic work D. it is the regulation of the school Question 38. In secondary schools every pupil having problems should_______. A. know how to ask for help B. be freed from any pressure of academic work C. be able to discuss his problems in class D. be able to discuss his problems with any teacher



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Question 39. What will the school rightly expect the pupils to do? A. they study hard B. they think carefully C. they understand well D. they firstly obtain the help Question 40. The word “adults” in the second paragraph (underlined) refers to_______. A. the pupils at secondary school B. the secondary pupils parents C. the staff at secondary school D. the teachers and pupils at secondary school. Question 41. How many pupils do teachers see in a week? A. One pupil B. A few of pupils C. Many pupils D. Hundreds of pupils Question 42. Who do the pupils make relationship with ? A. Other pupils B. Other parents C. Few of the staff D. A few of the staff Question 43. In this passage about secondary schools, the author is mainly concerned about A. academic standards B. the role of specialist teachers C. the training of the individual teachers D. the personal development of pupils

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 44. I have never seen this film before.

A. Never before have I seen this film B. Never before I have seen this film C. Before have never I seen this film D. Have I never before seen this film Question 45. My sister is often sick because she doesn’t do physical exercise. A. If my sister does physical exercise, she won’t often be sick. B. If my sister isn’t physical exercise, she does sick. C. If my sister did physical exercise, she wouldn’t often be sick. D. If my sister wasn’t physical exercise, she would do sick. Question 46. I did not answer the door even though I knew it was my friend. A. Unless I knew it was my friend, I would not answer the door. B. I knew it was my friend, but I did not answer the door. C. Only when I answered the door did I knew it was my friend. D. I answered the door since I knew it was my friend. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges. Question 47. - Nam: “You're a great dancer. I wish I could do half as well as you.” - Duy: “_____________ . I'm an awful dancer!“ A. You're too kind. B. That's a nice compliment! C. You've got to be kidding! D. Oh, thank you very much. Question 48. - Tim: “ I don’t think I can do this one“ - John: “____________ “. A. Oh, come on! Have a go! B. Not at all C. I hope not D. No way

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 49. Some events were cancelled. Thousands of people attended the festival. A. No matter how many people attended the festival, some events were cancelled B. In spite some cancelled events, thousands of people attended the festival. C. As some events were cancelled, thousands of people attended the festival. D. Despite the cancellation of some events, thousands of people attended the festival. Question 50. Anne jogs every morning. It is very good for her health. A. Anne jogs every morning and is very good for her health. B. Anne jogs every morning, which is very good for her health. C. Anne jogs every morning and then it is very good for her health. D. Anne jogs every morning that it is very good for her health.

___________THE END____________

SƠ GD&ĐT VINH PHUC ĐỀ KTCL ÔN THI THPT QUỐC GIA NĂM 2018



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TRƯƠNG THPT LIÊ N SƠN (Đề thi gồm: 04 trang)

Môn: TIẾNG ANH – ĐÊ SỐ 115 Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề


Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 1: A. idiom B. unite C. identify D. survive Question 2: A. certain B. equal C. record D. demand

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 3: A. agency B. influence C. memory D. encounter Question 4: A. advance B. polo C. crossbar D. goalie

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the italic word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 5: She hesitated for a moment, and then went on. A. walked B. continued speaking C. arrived school D. climbing up Question 6: They were forced to postpone the trip. A. put off B. call off C. do without D. see about

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the italic word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 7: He was so insubordinate that he lost his job within a week. A. fresh B. disobedient C. obedient D. understanding Question 8: Population growth rates vary among regions and even among countries within the same region. A. restrain B. remain unstable C. fluctuate D. stay unchanged

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 9: If there were less cars on the roads , there would be fewer accidents.

A. were B. less C. on D. fewer Question 10: When teenagers finish school, they have several choices: going to college , getting a job or the army.

A. When B. going to college C. getting a job D. the army Question 11: Students suppose to read all the questions carefully and find out the answers to them.

A. suppose B. to read C. questions carefully D. them

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 12: You look angry. He kept you waiting, _______ ?. A. don’t you B. didn’t you C. doesn’t he D. didn’t he Question 13: Peter is not used_______ late for school. He prefers punctuality. A. to be B. to being C. been D. being Question 14: He was_______ to leave school because he couldn’t afford the fees. A. obliged B. willing C. able D. make Question 15: The teacher asked a difficult question, but finally Ted_______ a good answer. A. came up to B. came up with C. came up for D. came out of Question 16: _______ students in our class is 45. A. A large amount of B. A lot of C. A number of D. The number of Question 17: English and French, _______ do you think is easier to learn?



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A. which language that B. which language C. what one D. what Question 18: We believe that the conservation of natural resources and habitats should be part of technological and economic________. A. development B. strength C. blossom D. increase Question 19: It’s very cold in here. Do you mind if I________ the heating? A. put off B. put up with C. put on D. put down Question 20: Remember to bring with you your school certificate and letters of________ from your teachers or your previous employers when you come to the interview. A. assignment B. invitation C. recommendation D. advertisement Question 21: Had you done as I told you, you________. A. would succeed B. will succeed C. could succeed D. would have succeeded Question 22: ________ she can buy everything she likes. A. So rich is she that B So rich she is that C. Such rich is she that D. All are right Question 23: _______, he walked to the station. A. Despite being tired B. Although to be tired C. In spite being tired D. Despite tired

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 24 to 30. A recent study shows that an unequal share of household chores is still the norm in many households, despite the fact that many more women now have jobs. In a survey of 1,256 people ages between18 and 65, men said they contributed an average of 37 per cent of the total housework, while the women estimated their share to be nearly double that, at 70 per cent. This ratio was not affected by whether the woman was working or not.

When they were asked what they thought was a fair division of labor, women with jobs felt that housework should be shared equally between male and female partners. Women who did not work outside the home were satisfied to perform 80 per cent - the majority of the household work - if their husbands did the remainder. Research has shown that, if levels increase beyond these percentages, women become unhappy and anxious, and feel they are unimportant.

After marriage, a woman is reported to increase her household workload by 14 hours per week, but for men the amount is just 90 minutes. So the division of labor becomes unbalanced, as a man's share increases much less than the woman's. It is the inequality and loss of respect, not the actual number of hours, which leads to anxiety and depression. The research describes housework as thankless and unfulfilling. Activities included in the study were cooking, cleaning, shopping, doing laundry, washing-up and childcare. Women who have jobs report that they feel overworked by these chores in addition to their professional duties. In contrast, full-time homemakers frequently anticipate going back to work when the children grow up. Distress for this group is caused by losing the teamwork in the marriage.

Question 24: The word “remainder” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to_________. A. what is left B. what is done C. what is fulfilled. D. what is shared Question 25: Although women think men should share the housework, those who do not have a paid job share_______ of the chores. A. 37 per cent B. 70 per cent C. 80 per cent D. 14 per cent Question 26: After getting married, _________. A. men do less housework B. women do twice as much housework C. men do more housework D. women have a bigger house Question 27: Women who do not have jobs become depressed_________. A. if their husbands do 20 per cent of the chores B. if they have to do more than half of the housework C. because they have no self-respect D. when their husbands do not help them Question 28: The word “norm” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to_________.



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A. strange thing B. usual thing C. changing thing D. unequal thing Question 29: According to the passage, a good relationship is the one in which_________. A. women do 80 per cent of the housework C. men do more housework than women

B. women and men divide the housework equally D. women do 14 hours of housework Question 30: Objects of the survey were_________. A. married people B. working people C. unemployed people D. people of a wide range of ages

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35. Early writing and Alphabets When people first began to write, they did not use an alphabet. Instead, they drew small pictures to (31)______ the objects they were writing about. This was very slow because there was a different picture for any word. The Ancient Egyptians had a (32)______ of picture writing that was described hieroglyphics. The meaning of this writing was forgotten for a very long time but in 1799 some scientists discovered a stone near Alexandria, in Egypt. The stone had been there for (33)______ a thousand years. It had both Greek and hieroglyphics on it and researchers were finally able to understand what the hieroglyphics meant. An alphabet is quite different (34)______ picture writing. It consists of letters or symbols that represent a sound and each sound is just part of one word. The Phoenicians, who lived about 3,000 years ago, developed the modern alphabets. It was later improved by the Roman‘s and this alphabet is now used (35)______ throughout the world.

Question 31: A. notice B. show C. appear D. mark Question 32: A. practice B. manner C. plan D. system Question 33: A. quite B. more C. over D. already Question 34: A. at B. from C. before D. between Question 35: A. broadly B. widely C. deeply D. hugely

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 43. In the primary school, a child is in a comparatively simple setting and most of the time forms a relationship with one familiar teacher. On entering secondary school, a new world opens up and frequently it is a much more difficult world. The pupil soon learns to be less in the way he speaks to teachers and even to his fellow pupils. He begins to lose gradually the free and easy ways of the primary school, for he senses the need for a more cautions approach in the secondary school where there are older pupils. Secondary staff and pupils suffer from the pressures of academic work and seem to have less time to stop and talk. Teachers with specialist roles may see hundreds of children in week and a pupil may be able to form relationships with very few of the staff. He has to decide which adults are approachable; good schools will make clear to every young person from the first year what guidance and personal help is available- but whether the reality of life in the institution actually encourages requests for help is another matter. Adults often forget what a confusing picture school can offer to a child. He sees a great deal of movement, a great number of people-often rather frightening looking people- and realises that an increasing number of choices and decisions have to be made. As he progresses through the school the confusion may become less but the choices and decisions required will increase. The school will rightly expect the pupil to take the first steps to obtain the help he needs, for this is the pattern of adult life for which he has to be prepared, but all the time the opportunities for personal and group advice must be presented in a way which makes them easy to understand and within easy reach of pupils.

Question 36. According to the passage one of the problems for pupils entering secondary school is that_______. A. they are taught by many different teachers



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B. they do not attend lessons in every subject C. the teachers do not want to be friendly D. the teachers give most attention to the more academic pupils Question 37. The teachers at secondary school do not talk much to the pupils because_______. A. they want to keep a certain distance with the pupils C. the pupils are afraid of them B. they are too busy with their academic work D. it is the regulation of the school Question 38. In secondary schools every pupil having problems should_______. A. know how to ask for help B. be freed from any pressure of academic work C. be able to discuss his problems in class D. be able to discuss his problems with any teacher Question 39. What will the school rightly expect the pupils to do? A. they study hard B. they think carefully C. they understand well D. they firstly obtain the help Question 40. The word “adults” in the second paragraph (underlined) refers to_______. A. the pupils at secondary school B. the secondary pupils parents C. the staff at secondary school D. the teachers and pupils at secondary school. Question 41. How many pupils do teachers see in a week? A. One pupil B. A few of pupils C. Many pupils D. Hundreds of pupils Question 42. Who do the pupils make relationship with ? A. Other pupils B. Other parents C. Few of the staff D. A few of the staff Question 43. In this passage about secondary schools, the author is mainly concerned about A. academic standards B. the role of specialist teachers C. the training of the individual teachers D. the personal development of pupils

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 44. I have never seen this film before.

A. Never before have I seen this film B. Never before I have seen this film C. Before have never I seen this film D. Have I never before seen this film Question 45. My sister is often sick because she doesn’t do physical exercise. A. If my sister does physical exercise, she won’t often be sick. B. If my sister isn’t physical exercise, she does sick. C. If my sister did physical exercise, she wouldn’t often be sick. D. If my sister wasn’t physical exercise, she would do sick. Question 46. I did not answer the door even though I knew it was my friend. A. Unless I knew it was my friend, I would not answer the door. B. I knew it was my friend, but I did not answer the door. C. Only when I answered the door did I knew it was my friend. D. I answered the door since I knew it was my friend. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges. Question 47. - Nam: “You're a great dancer. I wish I could do half as well as you.” - Duy: “_____________ . I'm an awful dancer!“ A. You're too kind. B. That's a nice compliment! C. You've got to be kidding! D. Oh, thank you very much. Question 48. - Tim: “ I don’t think I can do this one“ - John: “____________ “. A. Oh, come on! Have a go! B. Not at all C. I hope not D. No way

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 49. Some events were cancelled. Thousands of people attended the festival. A. No matter how many people attended the festival, some events were cancelled B. In spite some cancelled events, thousands of people attended the festival.



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C. As some events were cancelled, thousands of people attended the festival. D. Despite the cancellation of some events, thousands of people attended the festival. Question 50. Anne jogs every morning. It is very good for her health. A. Anne jogs every morning and is very good for her health. B. Anne jogs every morning, which is very good for her health. C. Anne jogs every morning and then it is very good for her health. D. Anne jogs every morning that it is very good for her health.

___________THE END____________







Question 1. A. uniform B. situation C. unemployment D. amusing Question 2. A. benefit B. every C. bed D. enjoy


Question 3. A. suspicion B. telephone C. relation D. direction Question 4. A. reduction B. popular C. financial D. romantic

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 5. Dictionaries frequently explain the origin of the defined word, state its part of speech and indication its correct use.

A. frequently B. the origin C. defined D. indication

Question 6. Tom said that if he had to do another homework tonight, he would not be able to attend the concert. A. if he had to B. another C. would not be able D. to attend

Question 7. The children forgot up the from the office and they worried. A. picking B. note C. now D. are

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 8. Several deserts are a quite vast and uninhabited ________.

A. plain B. territory C. corridor D. shrub Question 9. His health would be improved________. A. if he continued to smoke heavily B. unless he stopped smoking heavily C. if he gave up smoking D. if only he doesn't smoke any more. Question 10. Many tall and wide mountain ranges do not let much rain get ________ the desert.

A. into B. away C. out D. from Question 11. I wanted to go a more ________ route across Montana.

A. north B. northerly C. northerner D. northernmost Question 12. Toxic chemicals from factories are one of the serious factors that leads wildlife to the _______ of extinction.

A. wall B. fence C. verge D. bridge Question 13. ________ she could not say anything.

A. So upset was she that B. So upset was she C. However upset was she that D. Therefore upset was she that

Question 14. Migrant workers are________ to exploitation.



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A. eager B. vulnerable C. available D. considerate Question 15. Internationally, 189 countries have signed _______ accord agreeing to create Biodiversity Action Plans to protect endangered and other threatened species.

A. a B. an C. the D. Ø Question 16. Carl ________ studied harder; he failed the test again. A. must have B. should have C. could have D. needn't have Question 17. ________ to the skin, they eventually got to the station. A. Soaked B. Soaking C. To soak D. Having soaked Question 18. It's no good________ to him; he never answers letters. A. write B. to write C. writing D. for writing Question 19. When old Mr. Barnaby died, several people________ their claim to the substantial legacy that he left.

A. placed B. drew C. assumed D. laid

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges. Question 20. Would you mind closing the window please?

A. Yes of course. Are you cold? B. No, not at all. I will close it now. C. Yes I do. You can close it. D. Yes of course you can do it.

Question 21. Do you have the time please? A. I am very sorry. I am already late. B. I am busy right now. I am afraid. C. I am sorry I don’t have a watch here. D. Yes I have some time for you.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 22. The people of the province wanted to become a sovereign state.

A. rich B. self-ruling C. new D. colonized Question 23. The prince was next in the order of succession.

A. death B. eating C. height D. replacement

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 24. Because Jack defaulted on his loan, the bank took him to court.

A. failed to pay B. paid in full C. had a bad personality D. was paid much money

Question 25. His career in the illicit drug trade ended with the police raid this morning . A. elicited B. irregular C. secret D. legal

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 26. Slippery as the roads were, they managed to complete the race.

A. The roads were so slippery that they could hardly complete the race. B. The roads were slippery but they managed to complete the race. C. The roads were slippery so they could hardly complete the race. D. The roads were so slippery; therefore, they could hardly complete the race.

Question 27. They decided to go for a picnic though it was very cold. A. Because it was very cold, they decided to go for a picnic. B. However cold it was, they decided to go for a picnic. C. If it had been cold, they would not have gone for a picnic. D. It was very cold so they decided to go for a picnic.

Question 28. Both Peter and Mary enjoy scientific expedition. A. It is not Peter, but Mary, that enjoys scientific expedition. B. Peter enjoys scientific expedition. Therefore, does Mary.



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C. However Peter enjoys scientific expedition and Mary does. D. Peter enjoys scientific expedition, and so does Mary.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 29. Henry should have done his homework last night, but he watched TV instead.

A. Henry did not do his homework last night because he was busy with the television set. B. Henry watched TV last night instead of doing his homework. C. Henry did not watch TV last night because he had to do his homework. D. Henry did his homework while watching TV.

Question 30. Seeing that he was angry, she left the office. A. She didn't want to make him angry, so she left. B. He wouldn't have been so angry if she hadn't been there. C. He grew very angry when he saw her leaving the office. D. She left the office when she saw how angry he was.


English has without a (31) ____ become the second language of Europe and the world. European countries which have most (32) ____ assimilated English into daily life are England's neighbors in Northern Europe: Ireland, the Netherlands, Sweden, Norway, and the rest of Scandinavia.

The situation is so (33) ____ that any visitor to the Netherlands will soon be aware of the pressure of English on daily life: television, radio and print bring it into every home and the schoolyard conversation of children; advertisers use it to (34) ____ up their message, journalists take refuge in it when their home-bred skills fail them. Increasingly one hears the (35) ____ that Dutch will give way to English as the national tongue within two or three generations.

Question 31. A. question B. doubt C. problem D. thought Question 32. A. successfully B. victorious C. successful D. lucrative

Question 33. A. plain B. open C. blatant D. marked

Question 34. A. life B. energy C. pep D. enthusiasm

Question 35. A. feeling B. posture C. judgment D. view


ARE HUMAN BEINGS GETTING SMARTER? Do you think you're smarter than your parents and grandparents? According to James Flynn,

a professor at a New Zealand university, you are! Over the course of the last century, people who have taken IQ tests have gotten increasingly better scores-on average, three points better for every decade that has passed. This improvement is known as "the Flynn effect," and scientists want to know what is behind it.

IQ tests and other similar tests are designed to measure general intelligence rather than knowledge. Flynn knew that intelligence is partly inherited from our parents and partly the result of our environment and experiences, but the improvement in test scores was happening too quickly to be explained by heredity. So what was happening in the 20th century that was helping people achieve higher scores on intelligence tests?

Scientists have proposed several explanations for the Flynn effect. Some suggest that the improved test scores simply reflect an increased exposure to tests in general. Because we take so many tests, we learn test-taking techniques that help us perform better on any test. Others have pointed to better nutrition since it results in babies being born larger, healthier, and with more brain development than in the past. Another possible explanation is a change in educational styles, with teachers encouraging children to learn by discovering things for themselves rather than just memorizing information. This could prepare people to do the kind of problem solving that



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intelligence tests require. Flynn limited the possible explanations when he looked carefully at the test data and

discovered that the improvement in scores was only on certain parts of the IQ test. Test takers didn't do better on the arithmetic or vocabulary sections of the test; they did better on sections that required a special kind of reasoning and problem solving. For example, one part of the test shows a set of abstract shapes, and test-takers must look for patterns and connections between them and decide which shape should be added to the set.

According to Flynn, this visual intelligence improves as the amount of technology in our lives increases. Every time you play a computer game or figure out how to program a new cell phone, you are exercising exactly the kind of thinking and problem solving that helps you do well on one kind of intelligence test. So are you really smarter than your parents? In one very specific way, you may be.

Question 36. The Flynn effect is____________. A. used to measure intelligent B. an increase in IQ test scores over time C. unknown in some parts of the world D. not connected to our experiences

Question 37. The Flynn effect must be the result of____________. A. heredity B. our environment and experiences C. taking fewer tests D. memorizing information

Question 38. IQ tests evaluate____________. A. our knowledge B. our environment C. our intelligence D. our memories

Question 39. Which sentence from the article gives a main idea? A. Scientists have proposed several explanations for the Flynn effect. B. Because we take so many tests in our lives, we learn test-taking techniques that help us perform better on any test. C. Test-takers didn’t do better on the arithmetic or vocabulary sections of the test. D. For example, one part of the test shows a set of abstract shapes, and test-takers must look for pattern and connections between them and decide which shape should be added to the set.

Question 40. According to the article, newer education techniques include____________. A. exposure to many tests B. children finding things out themselves C. memorizing information D. improved test scores

Question 41. Why does the author mention computer games? A. to give an example of technology that improve our visual intelligence. B. to explain why young people have poor vocabularies. C. to encourage the reader to exercise. D. to show that young people are not getting more intelligent.

Question 42. Which statement would Professor Flynn agree with? A. People today are more intelligent than in the past in every way. B. People today have fewer problems to solve. C. People today are taking easier tests. D. People today have more visual intelligence.


Learning means acquiring knowledge or developing the ability to perform new behaviors. It is common to think of learning as something that takes place in school, but much of human learning occurs outside the classroom, and people continue to learn throughout their lives.

Even before they enter school, young children learn to walk, to talk, and to use their hands to manipulate toys, food, and other objects. They use all of their senses to learn about the sights, sounds, tastes, and smells in their environments. They learn how to interact with their parents, siblings, friends, and other people important to their world. When they enter school, children learn



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basic academic subjects such as reading, writing, and mathematics. They also continue to learn a great deal outside the classroom. They learn which behaviors are likely to be rewarded and which are likely to be punished. They learn social skills for interacting with other children. After they finish school, people must learn to adapt to the many major changes that affect their lives, such as getting married, raising children, and finding and keeping a job.

Because learning continues throughout our lives and affects almost everything we do, the study of learning is important in many different fields. Teachers need to understand the best ways to educate children. Psychologists, social workers, criminologists, and other human-service workers need to understand how certain experiences change people’s behaviors. Êmployers, politicians, and advertisers make use of the principles of learning to influence the behavior of workers, voters, and consumers.

Learning is closely related to memory, which is the storage of information in the brain. Psychologists who study memory are interested in how the brain stores knowledge, where this storage takes place, and how the brain later retrieves knowledge when we need it. In contrast, psychologists who study learning are more interested in behavior and how behavior changes as a result of a person’s experiences.

There are many forms of learning, ranging from simple to complex. Simple forms of learning involve a single stimulus. A stimulus is anything perceptible to the senses, such as a sight, sound, smell, touch, or taste. In a form of learning known as classical conditioning, people learn to associate two stimuli that occur in sequence, such as lightning followed by thunder. In operant conditioning, people learn by forming an association between a behavior and its consequences (reward or punishment). People and animals can also learn by observation – that is, by watching others perform behaviors. More complex forms of learning in clued learning languages, concepts, and motor skills.

Question 43. According to the passage, which of the following is learning in broad view comprised of?

A. Acquisition of academic knowledge B. Acquisition of social and behavioral skills C. Knowledge acquisition and ability development D. Knowledge acquisition outside the classroom

Question 44. According to the passage, what are children NOT usually taught outside the classroom?

A. Literacy and calculation B. Interpersonal communication C. Life skills D. Right from wrong

Question 45. Getting married, raising children, and finding and keeping a job are mentioned in paragraph 2 as examples of ________.

A. the situations in which people cannot teach themselves B. the changes to which people have to orient themselves C. the areas of learning which affect people’s lives D. the ways people’s lives are influenced by education

Question 46. Which of the following can be inferred about the learning process from the passage? A. It is more interesting and effective in school than that in life. B. It becomes less challenging and complicated when people grow older. C. It plays a crucial part in improving the learner’s motivation in school. D. It takes place more frequently in real life than in academic institutions.

Question 47. It can be inferred from the passage that social workers, employers, and politicians concern themselves with the study of learning because they need to ______.

A. understand how a stimulus relates to the senses of the objects of their interest B. change the behaviors of the objects of their interest towards learning C. thoroughly understand the behaviors of the objects of their interest D. make the objects of their interest more aware of the importance of learning

Question 48. The word “retrieves” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to ______. A. recovers B. generates C. creates D. gains

Question 49. Which of the following statements is NOT true according to the passage?



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A. Psychologists studying learning are interested in human behaviors. B. Psychologists studying memory are concerned with how the stored knowledge is used. C. Psychologists studying memory are concerned with the brain’s storage of knowledge. D. Psychologists are all interested in memory as much as behaviors.

Question 50. The passage mainly discusses ______. A. simple forms of learning B. practical examples of learning inside the classroom C. general principles of learning D. application of learning principles to formal education

___________THE END____________







Question 1. A. uniform B. situation C. unemployment D. amusing Question 2. A. benefit B. every C. bed D. enjoy


Question 3. A. suspicion B. telephone C. relation D. direction Question 4. A. reduction B. popular C. financial D. romantic

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 5. Dictionaries frequently explain the origin of the defined word, state its part of speech and indication its correct use.

A. frequently B. the origin C. defined D. indication

Question 6. Tom said that if he had to do another homework tonight, he would not be able to attend the concert. A. if he had to B. another C. would not be able D. to attend

Question 7. The children forgot up the from the office and they worried. A. picking B. note C. now D. are

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 8. Several deserts are a quite vast and uninhabited ________.

A. plain B. territory C. corridor D. shrub Question 9. His health would be improved________. A. if he continued to smoke heavily B. unless he stopped smoking heavily C. if he gave up smoking D. if only he doesn't smoke any more. Question 10. Many tall and wide mountain ranges do not let much rain get ________ the desert.

A. into B. away C. out D. from Question 11. I wanted to go a more ________ route across Montana.

A. north B. northerly C. northerner D. northernmost Question 12. Toxic chemicals from factories are one of the serious factors that leads wildlife to the _______ of extinction.

A. wall B. fence C. verge D. bridge Question 13. ________ she could not say anything.

A. So upset was she that B. So upset was she C. However upset was she that D. Therefore upset was she that

Question 14. Migrant workers are________ to exploitation.



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A. eager B. vulnerable C. available D. considerate Question 15. Internationally, 189 countries have signed _______ accord agreeing to create Biodiversity Action Plans to protect endangered and other threatened species.

A. a B. an C. the D. Ø Question 16. Carl ________ studied harder; he failed the test again. A. must have B. should have C. could have D. needn't have Question 17. ________ to the skin, they eventually got to the station. A. Soaked B. Soaking C. To soak D. Having soaked Question 18. It's no good________ to him; he never answers letters. A. write B. to write C. writing D. for writing Question 19. When old Mr. Barnaby died, several people________ their claim to the substantial legacy that he left.

A. placed B. drew C. assumed D. laid

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges. Question 20. Would you mind closing the window please?

A. Yes of course. Are you cold? B. No, not at all. I will close it now. C. Yes I do. You can close it. D. Yes of course you can do it.

Question 21. Do you have the time please? A. I am very sorry. I am already late. B. I am busy right now. I am afraid. C. I am sorry I don’t have a watch here. D. Yes I have some time for you.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 22. The people of the province wanted to become a sovereign state.

A. rich B. self-ruling C. new D. colonized Question 23. The prince was next in the order of succession.

A. death B. eating C. height D. replacement

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 24. Because Jack defaulted on his loan, the bank took him to court.

A. failed to pay B. paid in full C. had a bad personality D. was paid much money

Question 25. His career in the illicit drug trade ended with the police raid this morning . A. elicited B. irregular C. secret D. legal

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 26. Slippery as the roads were, they managed to complete the race.

A. The roads were so slippery that they could hardly complete the race. B. The roads were slippery but they managed to complete the race. C. The roads were slippery so they could hardly complete the race. D. The roads were so slippery; therefore, they could hardly complete the race.

Question 27. They decided to go for a picnic though it was very cold. A. Because it was very cold, they decided to go for a picnic. B. However cold it was, they decided to go for a picnic. C. If it had been cold, they would not have gone for a picnic. D. It was very cold so they decided to go for a picnic.

Question 28. Both Peter and Mary enjoy scientific expedition. A. It is not Peter, but Mary, that enjoys scientific expedition. B. Peter enjoys scientific expedition. Therefore, does Mary.



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C. However Peter enjoys scientific expedition and Mary does. D. Peter enjoys scientific expedition, and so does Mary.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 29. Henry should have done his homework last night, but he watched TV instead.

A. Henry did not do his homework last night because he was busy with the television set. B. Henry watched TV last night instead of doing his homework. C. Henry did not watch TV last night because he had to do his homework. D. Henry did his homework while watching TV.

Question 30. Seeing that he was angry, she left the office. A. She didn't want to make him angry, so she left. B. He wouldn't have been so angry if she hadn't been there. C. He grew very angry when he saw her leaving the office. D. She left the office when she saw how angry he was.


English has without a (31) ____ become the second language of Europe and the world. European countries which have most (32) ____ assimilated English into daily life are England's neighbors in Northern Europe: Ireland, the Netherlands, Sweden, Norway, and the rest of Scandinavia.

The situation is so (33) ____ that any visitor to the Netherlands will soon be aware of the pressure of English on daily life: television, radio and print bring it into every home and the schoolyard conversation of children; advertisers use it to (34) ____ up their message, journalists take refuge in it when their home-bred skills fail them. Increasingly one hears the (35) ____ that Dutch will give way to English as the national tongue within two or three generations.

Question 31. A. question B. doubt C. problem D. thought Question 32. A. successfully B. victorious C. successful D. lucrative

Question 33. A. plain B. open C. blatant D. marked

Question 34. A. life B. energy C. pep D. enthusiasm

Question 35. A. feeling B. posture C. judgment D. view


ARE HUMAN BEINGS GETTING SMARTER? Do you think you're smarter than your parents and grandparents? According to James Flynn,

a professor at a New Zealand university, you are! Over the course of the last century, people who have taken IQ tests have gotten increasingly better scores-on average, three points better for every decade that has passed. This improvement is known as "the Flynn effect," and scientists want to know what is behind it.

IQ tests and other similar tests are designed to measure general intelligence rather than knowledge. Flynn knew that intelligence is partly inherited from our parents and partly the result of our environment and experiences, but the improvement in test scores was happening too quickly to be explained by heredity. So what was happening in the 20th century that was helping people achieve higher scores on intelligence tests?

Scientists have proposed several explanations for the Flynn effect. Some suggest that the improved test scores simply reflect an increased exposure to tests in general. Because we take so many tests, we learn test-taking techniques that help us perform better on any test. Others have pointed to better nutrition since it results in babies being born larger, healthier, and with more brain development than in the past. Another possible explanation is a change in educational styles, with teachers encouraging children to learn by discovering things for themselves rather than just memorizing information. This could prepare people to do the kind of problem solving that



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intelligence tests require. Flynn limited the possible explanations when he looked carefully at the test data and

discovered that the improvement in scores was only on certain parts of the IQ test. Test takers didn't do better on the arithmetic or vocabulary sections of the test; they did better on sections that required a special kind of reasoning and problem solving. For example, one part of the test shows a set of abstract shapes, and test-takers must look for patterns and connections between them and decide which shape should be added to the set.

According to Flynn, this visual intelligence improves as the amount of technology in our lives increases. Every time you play a computer game or figure out how to program a new cell phone, you are exercising exactly the kind of thinking and problem solving that helps you do well on one kind of intelligence test. So are you really smarter than your parents? In one very specific way, you may be.

Question 36. The Flynn effect is____________. A. used to measure intelligent B. an increase in IQ test scores over time C. unknown in some parts of the world D. not connected to our experiences

Question 37. The Flynn effect must be the result of____________. A. heredity B. our environment and experiences C. taking fewer tests D. memorizing information

Question 38. IQ tests evaluate____________. A. our knowledge B. our environment C. our intelligence D. our memories

Question 39. Which sentence from the article gives a main idea? A. Scientists have proposed several explanations for the Flynn effect. B. Because we take so many tests in our lives, we learn test-taking techniques that help us perform better on any test. C. Test-takers didn’t do better on the arithmetic or vocabulary sections of the test. D. For example, one part of the test shows a set of abstract shapes, and test-takers must look for pattern and connections between them and decide which shape should be added to the set.

Question 40. According to the article, newer education techniques include____________. A. exposure to many tests B. children finding things out themselves C. memorizing information D. improved test scores

Question 41. Why does the author mention computer games? A. to give an example of technology that improve our visual intelligence. B. to explain why young people have poor vocabularies. C. to encourage the reader to exercise. D. to show that young people are not getting more intelligent.

Question 42. Which statement would Professor Flynn agree with? A. People today are more intelligent than in the past in every way. B. People today have fewer problems to solve. C. People today are taking easier tests. D. People today have more visual intelligence.


Learning means acquiring knowledge or developing the ability to perform new behaviors. It is common to think of learning as something that takes place in school, but much of human learning occurs outside the classroom, and people continue to learn throughout their lives.

Even before they enter school, young children learn to walk, to talk, and to use their hands to manipulate toys, food, and other objects. They use all of their senses to learn about the sights, sounds, tastes, and smells in their environments. They learn how to interact with their parents, siblings, friends, and other people important to their world. When they enter school, children learn



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basic academic subjects such as reading, writing, and mathematics. They also continue to learn a great deal outside the classroom. They learn which behaviors are likely to be rewarded and which are likely to be punished. They learn social skills for interacting with other children. After they finish school, people must learn to adapt to the many major changes that affect their lives, such as getting married, raising children, and finding and keeping a job.

Because learning continues throughout our lives and affects almost everything we do, the study of learning is important in many different fields. Teachers need to understand the best ways to educate children. Psychologists, social workers, criminologists, and other human-service workers need to understand how certain experiences change people’s behaviors. Êmployers, politicians, and advertisers make use of the principles of learning to influence the behavior of workers, voters, and consumers.

Learning is closely related to memory, which is the storage of information in the brain. Psychologists who study memory are interested in how the brain stores knowledge, where this storage takes place, and how the brain later retrieves knowledge when we need it. In contrast, psychologists who study learning are more interested in behavior and how behavior changes as a result of a person’s experiences.

There are many forms of learning, ranging from simple to complex. Simple forms of learning involve a single stimulus. A stimulus is anything perceptible to the senses, such as a sight, sound, smell, touch, or taste. In a form of learning known as classical conditioning, people learn to associate two stimuli that occur in sequence, such as lightning followed by thunder. In operant conditioning, people learn by forming an association between a behavior and its consequences (reward or punishment). People and animals can also learn by observation – that is, by watching others perform behaviors. More complex forms of learning in clued learning languages, concepts, and motor skills.

Question 43. According to the passage, which of the following is learning in broad view comprised of?

A. Acquisition of academic knowledge B. Acquisition of social and behavioral skills C. Knowledge acquisition and ability development D. Knowledge acquisition outside the classroom

Question 44. According to the passage, what are children NOT usually taught outside the classroom?

A. Literacy and calculation B. Interpersonal communication C. Life skills D. Right from wrong

Question 45. Getting married, raising children, and finding and keeping a job are mentioned in paragraph 2 as examples of ________.

A. the situations in which people cannot teach themselves B. the changes to which people have to orient themselves C. the areas of learning which affect people’s lives D. the ways people’s lives are influenced by education

Question 46. Which of the following can be inferred about the learning process from the passage? A. It is more interesting and effective in school than that in life. B. It becomes less challenging and complicated when people grow older. C. It plays a crucial part in improving the learner’s motivation in school. D. It takes place more frequently in real life than in academic institutions.

Question 47. It can be inferred from the passage that social workers, employers, and politicians concern themselves with the study of learning because they need to ______.

A. understand how a stimulus relates to the senses of the objects of their interest B. change the behaviors of the objects of their interest towards learning C. thoroughly understand the behaviors of the objects of their interest D. make the objects of their interest more aware of the importance of learning

Question 48. The word “retrieves” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to ______. A. recovers B. generates C. creates D. gains

Question 49. Which of the following statements is NOT true according to the passage?



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A. Psychologists studying learning are interested in human behaviors. B. Psychologists studying memory are concerned with how the stored knowledge is used. C. Psychologists studying memory are concerned with the brain’s storage of knowledge. D. Psychologists are all interested in memory as much as behaviors.

Question 50. The passage mainly discusses ______. A. simple forms of learning B. practical examples of learning inside the classroom C. general principles of learning D. application of learning principles to formal education

___________THE END____________






Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 01: A. pressure B. pleasure C. leisure D. measure Question 02: A. defended B. composed C. completed D. supported

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 03: A. character B. publisher C. wonderful D. understand Question 04: A. enterprise B. commitment C. inflation D. collection

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the italic word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 05: Dozens of applicants showed up for the vacant position, but only a handful of them were shortlisted for the interview. A. class B. hand C. small number D. small amount Question 06: I could see the finish line and thought I was home and dry. A. hopeless B. hopeful C. unsuccessful D. successful

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the italic word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 07: My little daughter would spend an inordinate amount of time in the shop, deciding which goods she was going to buy. A. excessive B. limited C. required D. abundant Question 08. Because Jack defaulted on his loan, the bank took him to court. A. failed to pay B. was paid much money C. had a bad personality D. paid in full

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 09: The room is so dirty that it needs to clean without delay. A. The B. so C. to clean D. delay Question 10: Nowhere you can enjoy delicious dishes like here. A. Nowhere B. you can enjoy C. dishes D. like Question 11: The package must be wrapped careful before it is posted.

A. The package B. must be wrapped C. careful D. is posted

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 12 : Nam never comes to class on time and_______.



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A. neither doesn’t Hung B. so doesn’t Hung C. so does Hung D. neither does Hung Question 13: Sorry, I’m late, but my car_______ on the way here, and I had to call the garage. A. was broke B. not working C. out of order D. broke down Question 14: _______ it with my own eyes, I would never have believed it. A. Had I not seen B. Unless I had not seen C. If I had seen D. Provided I had seen Question 15: Marie Curie was the first and only woman_______ two Nobel prizes. A. that win B. to be won C. who win D. to have won Question 16: It was in 1989_______ the Berlin Wall collapsed. A. which B. that C. when D. what Question 17: I_______ an old friend of mine in the street this morning.We haven’t seen each other for ages. A. ran into B. ran out C. came over D. came round Question 18: Charles was wearing_______ at the party. A. a tie yellow silk funny B. very funny wide yellow silk tie C. a yellow silk funny tie D. a funny wide yellow silk tie Question 19: I remember_______ him a message yesterday. A. sent B. sending C. sends D. to send Question 20: The man said that he_______ her the day before.

A. met B. have met C. will meet D. had met Question 21: _______ that he couldn’t go on working. A. So was his pain B. Such was his pain C. He has so pain D. His pain was such Question 22: What are the_______ between women in old time and women in modern time? A. differs B. different C. difference D. differences Question 23: _______ you study for these exams_______ you will do. A. The harder/ the better B. The more / the much C. The hardest / the best D. The more hard / the more good Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 24 to 30. Before applying to a foreign university, one should consider the disadvantages of studying abroad. First, a student may feel lonely by being far home and friends. Also, difficulty in understanding a foreign language can be very disappointing and can affect the student’s grades. It can be very expensive to pay the costs of travel and housing in a different country. Finally, if there is an emergency at home, it will be hard to get home in a hurry. However, studying in another country is advantageous in many ways. A student is exposed to a new culture. This culture teaches him or her about other people and other way of thinking, which can be promote friendships among countries. He can learn an new language which may be beneficial for keeping up with research after student has finished studying. He can learn experience not available in his country. The student may also get the opportunity to study at a university where leading expert in his field may be teaching. The leading expert can introduce the student to the most up-to-date finding of the tops researches in the field. Exposure to such available knowledge and insights into the field can aid the student in becoming an expert as well.

Question 24: _______________ to study abroad. A. There are only disadvantages. C. There are both advantages and disadvantages. B. There are only advantages. D. There are neither advantages nor advantages. Question 25: When studying abroad, a student ____________. A. is homesick and feel lonely B. spends a lot of money for accommodation and transportation C. cannot go home immediately in emergency. D. All are correct.



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Question 26: The word “affect ” in the first paragraph refers to _________ A. invest B. impact C. insist D. inform Question 27: When studying abroad, a student is exposed to a new culture that ________________ A. has no advantage. B. enriches his knowledge about people and other ways of thinking. C. has no effects D. causes some troubles Question 28: At a foreign university, a student ___________. A. can learn a foreign language. B. cannot learn a foreign language C. has to learn his mother tongue D. doesn’t have to learn a language Question 29: At a foreign university, a student may ___________. A. meet his neighbor B. travel a lot C. meet a leading expert in his field D. All are correct Question 30: The word “available” in the second paragraph refers to _________ A. difficult B. ready C. mischievous D. domestic

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35. Water is necessary for life. People can live only a few days (31)______ it. Yet nearly 25 million people die each year because of it. Both industrial nations and developing countries are worried about the (32)______ and quantity of water in the world. Even though people, animals, agriculture, and industry use a lot of water, there is more than enough on the earth. Water covers about three-quarters of the Êarth’s surface. However, 97.4 percent of it is salt water. Three-fourths of the Êarth’s fresh water is frozen in glaciers and in the great polar ice caps. Most of the water we use (33)______ from rivers, lakes, and the atmosphere. Less than one percent of the Êarth’s water is usable, and we use it over and over again. One of the (34)______ about water is distribution. Water is not always distributed where the large (35)______ centers are. Some regions get enough rain. But it is all in one or two short rainy seasons.

Question 31: A. with B. without C. for D. in Question 32: A. characteristics B. conditions C. situation D. quality Question 33: A. comes B. arrives C. goes D. gets Question 34: A. cases B. things C. problems D. facts Question 35: A. people B. men C. women D. population

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 43. After inventing dynamite, Swedish-born Alfred Nobel became a very rich man. However, he foresaw its universally destructive powers too late. Nobel preferred not to be remembered as the inventor of dynamite, so in 1895, just two weeks before his death·, he created a fund to be used for awarding prizes to people who had made worthwhile contributions to humanity. Originally there were five awards: literature, physics, chemistry, medicine, and peace. Economics was added in 1968, just sixty-seven years after the first awards ceremony. Nobel's original legacy of nine million dollars was invested, and the interest on this sum is used for the awards which vary from $30,000 to $125,000. Every year on December 10, the anniversary of Nobel's death, the awards (gold medal, illuminated diploma, and money) are presented to the winners. Sometimes politics plays an important role in the judges' decisions. Americans have won numerous science awards, but relatively few literature prizes. No awards were presented from 1940 to 1942 at the beginning of World War 11. Some people have won two prizes, but this is rare; others have shared their prizes.

Question 36. The word "foresaw" in the first paragraph is nearest in meaning to__________.



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A. prevailed B. postponed C. prevented D. predicted Question 37. The Nobel prize was established in order to________. A recognize worthwhile contributions to humanity B. resolve political differences C. honor the inventor of dynamite D. spend money Question 38. In which area have Americans received the most awards? A Literature B. Peace C. Economics D. Science Question 39. All of the following statements are true EXCEPT______ . A. Awards vary in monetary value B. ceremonies are held on December 10 to commemorate Nobel's invention C. Politics plays an important role in selecting the winners D. A few individuals have won two awards Question 40. It is implied that Nobel's profession was in_______. A economics B. medicine C. literature D. science Question 41. In the first paragraph, "worthwhile" is closest in meaning to_______. A. economic B. prestigious C. trivial D. valuable Question 42. What is the main idea of this passage? A. Alfred Nobel became very rich when he invented dynamite. B. Alfred Nobel created awards in six categories for contributions to humanity. C. Alfred Nobel left all of his money to science D. Alfred Nobel made a lasting contribution to humanity Question 43. The word "legacy" in the second paragraph means most nearly the same as_______. A. legend B. bequest C. prize D. debt

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 44: We lost the game because of my mistakes. A. I made mistakes but we lost the game. B. Although I made mistakes, we didn’t lose the game. C. If I hadn’t made mistakes, we wouldn’t have lost the game. D. Despite my mistakes, we didn’t lose the game. Question 45: People believe that he is a kind doctor. A. He is really a kind doctor. B. He is loved by people because he is a kind doctor. C. He is believed to be a kind doctor. D. Everybody admires him because he is a kind doctor. Question 46: You can refuse to answer my question in no way. A. In no way you can refuse to answer my question B. In no way can you refuse to answer my question C. In no way do you refuse to answer my question D. In no way you refuse to answer my question Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges. Question 47: - Nam : “ May I take my break now ?” - Huy : “ ____________ “. A. Yes, of course B. I think I need five minutes. C. I’ll be back in five minutes D. No, you didn’t break it. Question 48: - Tim : “ _____________ “. - John : “ Never mind ”. A. Would you mind going to dinner next Sunday ? B. Sorry for staining your carpet. Let me have it cleaned. C. Congratulations ! How wonderful ! D. Thank you for being honest with me.



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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 49: I did not read his book. I did not understand what the lecturer was saying . A. What the lecturer wrote and said was too difficult for me to understand. B. I found it very difficult to understand what the lecturer said in his book. C. I would have understood what the lecturer was saying if I had read his book. D. The lecturer's book which I had not read was difficult to understand. Question 50: They're my two sisters. They aren't teachers like me. A. They're my two sisters, both of those are teachers like me. B. They're my two sisters, neither of whom are teachers like me. C. Like me, neither of my two sisters aren't teachers. D. They're my two sisters who neither are teachers like me.

___________THE END____________






Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 01: A. pressure B. pleasure C. leisure D. measure Question 02: A. defended B. composed C. completed D. supported

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 03: A. character B. publisher C. wonderful D. understand Question 04: A. enterprise B. commitment C. inflation D. collection

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the italic word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 05: Dozens of applicants showed up for the vacant position, but only a handful of them were shortlisted for the interview. A. class B. hand C. small number D. small amount Question 06: I could see the finish line and thought I was home and dry. A. hopeless B. hopeful C. unsuccessful D. successful

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the italic word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 07: My little daughter would spend an inordinate amount of time in the shop, deciding which goods she was going to buy. A. excessive B. limited C. required D. abundant Question 08. Because Jack defaulted on his loan, the bank took him to court. A. failed to pay B. was paid much money C. had a bad personality D. paid in full

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 09: The room is so dirty that it needs to clean without delay. A. The B. so C. to clean D. delay



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Question 10: Nowhere you can enjoy delicious dishes like here. A. Nowhere B. you can enjoy C. dishes D. like Question 11: The package must be wrapped careful before it is posted.

A. The package B. must be wrapped C. careful D. is posted

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 12 : Nam never comes to class on time and_______. A. neither doesn’t Hung B. so doesn’t Hung C. so does Hung D. neither does Hung Question 13: Sorry, I’m late, but my car_______ on the way here, and I had to call the garage. A. was broke B. not working C. out of order D. broke down Question 14: _______ it with my own eyes, I would never have believed it. A. Had I not seen B. Unless I had not seen C. If I had seen D. Provided I had seen Question 15: Marie Curie was the first and only woman_______ two Nobel prizes. A. that win B. to be won C. who win D. to have won Question 16: It was in 1989_______ the Berlin Wall collapsed. A. which B. that C. when D. what Question 17: I_______ an old friend of mine in the street this morning.We haven’t seen each other for ages. A. ran into B. ran out C. came over D. came round Question 18: Charles was wearing_______ at the party. A. a tie yellow silk funny B. very funny wide yellow silk tie C. a yellow silk funny tie D. a funny wide yellow silk tie Question 19: I remember_______ him a message yesterday. A. sent B. sending C. sends D. to send Question 20: The man said that he_______ her the day before.

A. met B. have met C. will meet D. had met Question 21: _______ that he couldn’t go on working. A. So was his pain B. Such was his pain C. He has so pain D. His pain was such Question 22: What are the_______ between women in old time and women in modern time? A. differs B. different C. difference D. differences Question 23: _______ you study for these exams_______ you will do. A. The harder/ the better B. The more / the much C. The hardest / the best D. The more hard / the more good Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 24 to 30. Before applying to a foreign university, one should consider the disadvantages of studying abroad. First, a student may feel lonely by being far home and friends. Also, difficulty in understanding a foreign language can be very disappointing and can affect the student’s grades. It can be very expensive to pay the costs of travel and housing in a different country. Finally, if there is an emergency at home, it will be hard to get home in a hurry. However, studying in another country is advantageous in many ways. A student is exposed to a new culture. This culture teaches him or her about other people and other way of thinking, which can be promote friendships among countries. He can learn an new language which may be beneficial for keeping up with research after student has finished studying. He can learn experience not available in his country. The student may also get the opportunity to study at a university where leading expert in his field may be teaching. The leading expert can introduce the student to the most up-to-date finding of the tops researches in the field. Exposure to such available knowledge and insights into the field can aid the student in becoming an expert as well.



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Question 24: _______________ to study abroad. A. There are only disadvantages. C. There are both advantages and disadvantages. B. There are only advantages. D. There are neither advantages nor advantages. Question 25: When studying abroad, a student ____________. A. is homesick and feel lonely B. spends a lot of money for accommodation and transportation C. cannot go home immediately in emergency. D. All are correct. Question 26: The word “affect ” in the first paragraph refers to _________ A. invest B. impact C. insist D. inform Question 27: When studying abroad, a student is exposed to a new culture that ________________ A. has no advantage. B. enriches his knowledge about people and other ways of thinking. C. has no effects D. causes some troubles Question 28: At a foreign university, a student ___________. A. can learn a foreign language. B. cannot learn a foreign language C. has to learn his mother tongue D. doesn’t have to learn a language Question 29: At a foreign university, a student may ___________. A. meet his neighbor B. travel a lot C. meet a leading expert in his field D. All are correct Question 30: The word “available” in the second paragraph refers to _________ A. difficult B. ready C. mischievous D. domestic

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35. Water is necessary for life. People can live only a few days (31)______ it. Yet nearly 25 million people die each year because of it. Both industrial nations and developing countries are worried about the (32)______ and quantity of water in the world. Even though people, animals, agriculture, and industry use a lot of water, there is more than enough on the earth. Water covers about three-quarters of the Êarth’s surface. However, 97.4 percent of it is salt water. Three-fourths of the Êarth’s fresh water is frozen in glaciers and in the great polar ice caps. Most of the water we use (33)______ from rivers, lakes, and the atmosphere. Less than one percent of the Êarth’s water is usable, and we use it over and over again. One of the (34)______ about water is distribution. Water is not always distributed where the large (35)______ centers are. Some regions get enough rain. But it is all in one or two short rainy seasons.

Question 31: A. with B. without C. for D. in Question 32: A. characteristics B. conditions C. situation D. quality Question 33: A. comes B. arrives C. goes D. gets Question 34: A. cases B. things C. problems D. facts Question 35: A. people B. men C. women D. population

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 43. After inventing dynamite, Swedish-born Alfred Nobel became a very rich man. However, he foresaw its universally destructive powers too late. Nobel preferred not to be remembered as the inventor of dynamite, so in 1895, just two weeks before his death·, he created a fund to be used for awarding prizes to people who had made worthwhile contributions to humanity. Originally there were five awards: literature, physics, chemistry, medicine, and peace. Economics was added in 1968, just sixty-seven years after the first awards ceremony.



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Nobel's original legacy of nine million dollars was invested, and the interest on this sum is used for the awards which vary from $30,000 to $125,000. Every year on December 10, the anniversary of Nobel's death, the awards (gold medal, illuminated diploma, and money) are presented to the winners. Sometimes politics plays an important role in the judges' decisions. Americans have won numerous science awards, but relatively few literature prizes. No awards were presented from 1940 to 1942 at the beginning of World War 11. Some people have won two prizes, but this is rare; others have shared their prizes.

Question 36. The word "foresaw" in the first paragraph is nearest in meaning to__________. A. prevailed B. postponed C. prevented D. predicted Question 37. The Nobel prize was established in order to________. A recognize worthwhile contributions to humanity B. resolve political differences C. honor the inventor of dynamite D. spend money Question 38. In which area have Americans received the most awards? A Literature B. Peace C. Economics D. Science Question 39. All of the following statements are true EXCEPT______ . A. Awards vary in monetary value B. ceremonies are held on December 10 to commemorate Nobel's invention C. Politics plays an important role in selecting the winners D. A few individuals have won two awards Question 40. It is implied that Nobel's profession was in_______. A economics B. medicine C. literature D. science Question 41. In the first paragraph, "worthwhile" is closest in meaning to_______. A. economic B. prestigious C. trivial D. valuable Question 42. What is the main idea of this passage? A. Alfred Nobel became very rich when he invented dynamite. B. Alfred Nobel created awards in six categories for contributions to humanity. C. Alfred Nobel left all of his money to science D. Alfred Nobel made a lasting contribution to humanity Question 43. The word "legacy" in the second paragraph means most nearly the same as_______. A. legend B. bequest C. prize D. debt

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 44: We lost the game because of my mistakes. A. I made mistakes but we lost the game. B. Although I made mistakes, we didn’t lose the game. C. If I hadn’t made mistakes, we wouldn’t have lost the game. D. Despite my mistakes, we didn’t lose the game. Question 45: People believe that he is a kind doctor. A. He is really a kind doctor. B. He is loved by people because he is a kind doctor. C. He is believed to be a kind doctor. D. Everybody admires him because he is a kind doctor. Question 46: You can refuse to answer my question in no way. A. In no way you can refuse to answer my question B. In no way can you refuse to answer my question C. In no way do you refuse to answer my question D. In no way you refuse to answer my question Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.



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Question 47: - Nam : “ May I take my break now ?” - Huy : “ ____________ “. A. Yes, of course B. I think I need five minutes. C. I’ll be back in five minutes D. No, you didn’t break it. Question 48: - Tim : “ _____________ “. - John : “ Never mind ”. A. Would you mind going to dinner next Sunday ? B. Sorry for staining your carpet. Let me have it cleaned. C. Congratulations ! How wonderful ! D. Thank you for being honest with me. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 49: I did not read his book. I did not understand what the lecturer was saying . A. What the lecturer wrote and said was too difficult for me to understand. B. I found it very difficult to understand what the lecturer said in his book. C. I would have understood what the lecturer was saying if I had read his book. D. The lecturer's book which I had not read was difficult to understand. Question 50: They're my two sisters. They aren't teachers like me. A. They're my two sisters, both of those are teachers like me. B. They're my two sisters, neither of whom are teachers like me. C. Like me, neither of my two sisters aren't teachers. D. They're my two sisters who neither are teachers like me.

___________THE END____________






Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 01: A. measure B. decision C. pleasure D. permission Question 02: A. success B. festival C. equally D. collection

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 03: A. between B. abroad C. prepare D. modern Question 04: A. inspire B. wealthy C. protect D. extinct

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 05: I think we can safely say now that we have got our money back because we are home and dry. A. have been successful B. have not got wet C. have got no water D. have got home dry Question 06: He drives me to the edge because he never stops talking. A. steers me B. irritate me C. moves me D. frightens me

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 07: Unless the two signatures are identical, the bank won't honor the check.



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A. similar B. genuine C. fake D. different Question 08. The Red Cross is an international humanitarian agency dedicated to reducing the sufferings of wounded soldiers, civilians and prisoners of war. A. happiness B. worry and sadness C. pain and sorrow D. loss

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 09: In my opinion, the new foreign coach does his job relative well. A B C D Question 10: Hardly he had got downstairs when the phone stopped ringing. A B C D Question 11: I think she will be suitable for the work because she has been working like a teacher for a long time. A B C D

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 12: We have to save money as much as possible ………….. a new house. A. in order to buy B. so that buying C. so as buying D. in order that will buy Question 13: Only after you obtain a driving licence, ______ a car. A. you are able to drive B. can you drive C. you will be able to drive D. did you drive Question 14: ._________these plants regularly or they will die. A. Water B. If you water C. Unless you water D. Because you water Question 15: You should _______ more attention to what your teacher explains. A. set B. get C. pay D make. Question 16: When Carol _______ last night, I ______ my favorite show on television. A. called/ was watching B. called/ have watched C. was calling/ watched D. had called/ watched Question 17: Our English teacher would like __________. A. we to practice our pronunciation B. us practicing our pronunciation C. that we practicing our pronunciation D. us to practice our pronunciation Question 18: She reads newspapers every day to look for the vacant ______ for which she can apply. A. institutions B. indications C. positions D. locations Question 19: She had no difficulty________at her new school. A. to make friends B. make friends C. to making friends D. making friends Question 20: Neither Mary nor I ______ how to use a typewriter. A. knows B. know C. am knowing D. is knowing Question 21: There is no age requirement for _______ to Cambridge University. A. improvement B. establishment C. entertainment D. admission Question 22: He ________ this book for a week by next Monday. A. has been reading B. was reading C. is reading D. will have read Question 23: To solve the problems of economy and poverty, the Vietnamese government introduced a number of ________ measures. A. renovation B. renovator C. renovating D. renovate


Perhaps it was his own lack of adequate schooling that inspired Horace Mann to work so hard for the important reforms in education that he accomplished. While he was still a boy, his father and older brother died, and he became responsible for supporting his family. Like most of the children in his town, he attended school only two or three months a year. Later, with the help of several teachers, he was able to study law and became a member of the Massachusetts bar, but he never forgot those early struggles.



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While serving in Massachusetts legislature, he signed a historic education bill that set up a state board of education. Without regret, he gave up his successful legal practice and political career to become the first secretary of the board. There he exercised an enormous influence during the critical period of reconstruction that brought into existence the American graded elementary school as substitute for the older distinct school system. Under his leadership, the curriculum was restructured, the school year was increased to a minimum of six months, and mandatory schooling was extended to age sixteen. Other important reforms included the establishment of state normal schools for teacher training, institutes for in-service teacher education, and lyceums for adult education. He was also instrument in improving salaries for teachers and creating school libraries. Mann’s ideas about school reform were developed and distributed in twelve annual reports to the state of Massachusetts that he wrote during his tenure as secretary of education. Considered quite radical at the time, the Massachusetts reforms later served as a model for the nation. Mann was recognized as the father of public education.

Question 24: Which of the following titles would best express the main topic of the passage ? A. The Father of American Public Education B. Philosophy of Education C. The Massachusetts State Board of Education. D. Politics of Educational Institutions Question 25: Which of the following describes Horace Mann’s early life ? A. He attended school six months a year. B. He had to study alone, without help. C. He supported his family after his father died. D. He was an only child. Question 26: The word “struggles” in line 5 could best be replaced by_______. A. valuable experiences B. happy situations C. influential people D. difficult times Question 27: The word “mandatory” in line 11 is closest in meaning to_______.

A. required B. equal C. excellent D. basic Question 28: How were Mann’s educational reforms distributed ? A. In twelve annual reports to the state of Massachusetts B. In reports that he wrote for national distribution. C. In speeches that he made throughout the country. D. In books that could be found in school libraries. Question 29: The reforms that Horace Mann achieved were_______. A. not radical for the time. B. used only by the state of Massachusetts C. adopted by the nation as a model. D. enforced by the Massachusetts bar. Question 30: Among Mann’s school reforms, which of the following is NOT mentioned ? A. Restructuring curriculum B. Schools for teacher training C. Lyceums for adult education D. Creating museums

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35. Today, supermarkets are found in almost every large city in the world. But the first supermarket (31)_______ opened only fifty years ago. It was opened in New York by a man named Michael Cullen. A supermarket is different (32)_______ other types of stores in several ways. In supermarkets, goods are placed on open shelves. The (33)_______ choose what they want and take them to the checkout counter. This means that fewer shop assistants are needed than in other stores. The way products are displayed is another difference between supermarkets and many other types of stores; ( 34)_______ example, in supermarkets, there is usually a display of small inexpensive items just in front of the checkout counter : candies, chocolates, magazines, cheap foods and so on ... Most customers (35)_______ go to a supermarket buy goods from a shopping list. They know exactly what they need to buy. They do the shopping according to a plan.

Question 31: A. was B. were C. has been D. is Question 32: A. from B. with C. in D. of Question 33: A. managers B. assistants C. customers D. sellers Question 34: A. in B. of C. for D. by



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Question 35: A. who B. what C. whom D. which

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 43. During the seventeenth and eighteenth centuries, almost nothing was written about the contribution of women during the colonial period and the early history of the newly formed United States. Lacking the right to vote and absent from the seats of power, women were not considered an important force in history. Anne Bradstreet wrote some significant poetry in the seventeenth century, Mercy Otis Warren produced the best contemporary history of the American Revolution, and Abigail Adams penned important letters showing she exercised great political influence over her husband, John, the second President of the United States. But little or no notice was taken of these contributions. During these centuries, women remained invisible in history books. Throughout the nineteenth century, this lack of visibility continued, despite the efforts of female authors writing about women. These writers, like most of their male counterparts, were amateur historians. Their writings were celebratory in nature, and they were uncritical in their selection and use of sources. During the nineteenth century, however, certain feminists showed a keen sense of history by keeping records of activities in which women were engaged. National, regional, and local women’s organizations compiled accounts of their doings. Personal correspondence, newspaper clippings, and souvenirs were saved and stored. These sources form the core of the two greatest collections of women’s history in the United States – one at the Elizabeth and Arthur Schlesinger Library at Radcliffe College, and the other the Sophia Smith Collection at Smith College. Such sources have provided valuable materials for later generations of historians. Despite the gathering of more information about ordinary women during the nineteenth century, most of the writing about women conformed to the “great women” theory of history, just as much of mainstream American history concentrated on “great men”. To demonstrate that women were making significant contributions to American life, female authors singled out women leaders and wrote biographies, or else important women produced their autobiographies. Most of these leaders were involved in public life as reformers, activists working for women’s right to vote, or authors, and were not representative at all of the great mass of ordinary women. The lives of ordinary people continued, generally, to be untold in the American histories being published.

Question 36: What does the passage mainly discuss? A. The keen sense of history shown by American women. B. The “great women” approach to history used by American historians. C. The place of American women in written histories. D. The role of literature in early American histories. Question 37: The word “contemporary” in the passage is closest in meaning to_______. A. temporary B. written at that time C. belonging to the present time D. past Question 38: In the first paragraph, Bradstreet, Warren, and Adams are mentioned to show that _______. A. a woman’s status was changed by marriage B. poetry produced by women was more readily accepted than other writing by women C. only three women were able to get their writing published D. even the contributions of outstanding women were ignored Question 39: The word “celebratory” in the passage means that the writings referred to were _______. A. religious B. serious C. related to parties D. full of praise Question 40: The word “they” in the passage refers to_______. A. authors B. efforts C. counterparts D. sources Question 41: In the second paragraph, what weakness in nineteenth-century histories does the author point out ?



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A. The sources of the information they were based on were not necessarily accurate. B. They left out discussion of the influence on money on politics. C. They were printed on poor quality paper. D. They put too much emphasis on daily activities. Question 42: On the basis of information in the third paragraph, which of the following would most likely have been collected by nineteenth-century feminist organizations ? A. Newspaper accounts of presidential election results. B. Letters from a mother to a daughter advising her how to handle a family problem. C. Biographies of John Adams. D. Books about famous graduates of the country’s first college. Question 43: In the last paragraph, the author mentions all of the following as possible roles of nineteenth-century “great women” ÊXCEPT _______. A. activists for women’s rights B. authors C. reformers D. politicians

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 44: Julie and Anne had not met each other before he party. A. The party was the place where Julie and Anne could not meet each other. B. The party prevented Julie and Anne from meeting each other. C. Julie and Anne got acquainted when they were at the party. D. Julie and Anne used to meet each other for the party. Question 45: I have seldom heard such a talented singer. A. Seldom have I heard such a talented singer. B. Seldom I have heard such a talented singer. C. Seldom has I heard such a talented singer. D. All are correct. Question 46: You’re not to blame for what happened. A. You’re not accused of what happened. B. What happened is not your fault. C. You’re responsible for what happened. D. We blame you for what happened. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges. Question 47: - Nam: “ Why did you move to the capital ?” - Phong: “ ______ “. A. For my liking B. To find a good job C. Because I didn’t want D. I was told about it. Question 48: - Tim: “ Do you think you will get the job ? ” - Peter: “ _____ “. A. I know so B. Well, I hope so C. I think not D. Yes, that’s right

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 49: Most scientists know him well. However, very few ordinary people have heard of him. A. He is the only scientist that is not known to the general public. B. Not only scientists but also the general public know him as a big name. C. Although he is well known to scientists, he is little known to the general public. D. Many ordinary people know him better than most scientists do. Question 50: I did not dare to turn on the television. I was afraid of waking the baby up. A. I decided to turn the television down to avoid waking the baby up. B. Waking the baby up, I could not continue watching the television. C. I decided not to turn on the television in order to wake the baby up. D. I did not dare to turn on the television for fear of waking up the baby.

___________THE END____________



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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 01: A. measure B. decision C. pleasure D. permission Question 02: A. success B. festival C. equally D. collection

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 03: A. between B. abroad C. prepare D. modern Question 04: A. inspire B. wealthy C. protect D. extinct

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 05: I think we can safely say now that we have got our money back because we are home and dry. A. have been successful B. have not got wet C. have got no water D. have got home dry Question 06: He drives me to the edge because he never stops talking. A. steers me B. irritate me C. moves me D. frightens me

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 07: Unless the two signatures are identical, the bank won't honor the check. A. similar B. genuine C. fake D. different Question 08. The Red Cross is an international humanitarian agency dedicated to reducing the sufferings of wounded soldiers, civilians and prisoners of war. A. happiness B. worry and sadness C. pain and sorrow D. loss


Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 12: We have to save money as much as possible ………….. a new house. A. in order to buy B. so that buying C. so as buying D. in order that will buy Question 13: Only after you obtain a driving licence, ______ a car. A. you are able to drive B. can you drive C. you will be able to drive D. did you drive Question 14: ._________these plants regularly or they will die. A. Water B. If you water C. Unless you water D. Because you water Question 15: You should _______ more attention to what your teacher explains. A. set B. get C. pay D make. Question 16: When Carol _______ last night, I ______ my favorite show on television.



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A. called/ was watching B. called/ have watched C. was calling/ watched D. had called/ watched Question 17: Our English teacher would like __________. A. we to practice our pronunciation B. us practicing our pronunciation C. that we practicing our pronunciation D. us to practice our pronunciation Question 18: She reads newspapers every day to look for the vacant ______ for which she can apply. A. institutions B. indications C. positions D. locations Question 19: She had no difficulty________at her new school. A. to make friends B. make friends C. to making friends D. making friends Question 20: Neither Mary nor I ______ how to use a typewriter. A. knows B. know C. am knowing D. is knowing Question 21: There is no age requirement for _______ to Cambridge University. A. improvement B. establishment C. entertainment D. admission Question 22: He ________ this book for a week by next Monday. A. has been reading B. was reading C. is reading D. will have read Question 23: To solve the problems of economy and poverty, the Vietnamese government introduced a number of ________ measures. A. renovation B. renovator C. renovating D. renovate


Perhaps it was his own lack of adequate schooling that inspired Horace Mann to work so hard for the important reforms in education that he accomplished. While he was still a boy, his father and older brother died, and he became responsible for supporting his family. Like most of the children in his town, he attended school only two or three months a year. Later, with the help of several teachers, he was able to study law and became a member of the Massachusetts bar, but he never forgot those early struggles. While serving in Massachusetts legislature, he signed a historic education bill that set up a state board of education. Without regret, he gave up his successful legal practice and political career to become the first secretary of the board. There he exercised an enormous influence during the critical period of reconstruction that brought into existence the American graded elementary school as substitute for the older distinct school system. Under his leadership, the curriculum was restructured, the school year was increased to a minimum of six months, and mandatory schooling was extended to age sixteen. Other important reforms included the establishment of state normal schools for teacher training, institutes for in-service teacher education, and lyceums for adult education. He was also instrument in improving salaries for teachers and creating school libraries. Mann’s ideas about school reform were developed and distributed in twelve annual reports to the state of Massachusetts that he wrote during his tenure as secretary of education. Considered quite radical at the time, the Massachusetts reforms later served as a model for the nation. Mann was recognized as the father of public education.

Question 24: Which of the following titles would best express the main topic of the passage ? A. The Father of American Public Education B. Philosophy of Education C. The Massachusetts State Board of Education. D. Politics of Educational Institutions Question 25: Which of the following describes Horace Mann’s early life ? A. He attended school six months a year. B. He had to study alone, without help. C. He supported his family after his father died. D. He was an only child. Question 26: The word “struggles” in line 5 could best be replaced by_______. A. valuable experiences B. happy situations C. influential people D. difficult times Question 27: The word “mandatory” in line 11 is closest in meaning to_______.

A. required B. equal C. excellent D. basic Question 28: How were Mann’s educational reforms distributed ? A. In twelve annual reports to the state of Massachusetts



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B. In reports that he wrote for national distribution. C. In speeches that he made throughout the country. D. In books that could be found in school libraries. Question 29: The reforms that Horace Mann achieved were_______. A. not radical for the time. B. used only by the state of Massachusetts C. adopted by the nation as a model. D. enforced by the Massachusetts bar. Question 30: Among Mann’s school reforms, which of the following is NOT mentioned ? A. Restructuring curriculum B. Schools for teacher training C. Lyceums for adult education D. Creating museums

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35. Today, supermarkets are found in almost every large city in the world. But the first supermarket (31)_______ opened only fifty years ago. It was opened in New York by a man named Michael Cullen. A supermarket is different (32)_______ other types of stores in several ways. In supermarkets, goods are placed on open shelves. The (33)_______ choose what they want and take them to the checkout counter. This means that fewer shop assistants are needed than in other stores. The way products are displayed is another difference between supermarkets and many other types of stores; ( 34)_______ example, in supermarkets, there is usually a display of small inexpensive items just in front of the checkout counter : candies, chocolates, magazines, cheap foods and so on ... Most customers (35)_______ go to a supermarket buy goods from a shopping list. They know exactly what they need to buy. They do the shopping according to a plan.

Question 31: A. was B. were C. has been D. is Question 32: A. from B. with C. in D. of Question 33: A. managers B. assistants C. customers D. sellers Question 34: A. in B. of C. for D. by Question 35: A. who B. what C. whom D. which

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 43. During the seventeenth and eighteenth centuries, almost nothing was written about the contribution of women during the colonial period and the early history of the newly formed United States. Lacking the right to vote and absent from the seats of power, women were not considered an important force in history. Anne Bradstreet wrote some significant poetry in the seventeenth century, Mercy Otis Warren produced the best contemporary history of the American Revolution, and Abigail Adams penned important letters showing she exercised great political influence over her husband, John, the second President of the United States. But little or no notice was taken of these contributions. During these centuries, women remained invisible in history books. Throughout the nineteenth century, this lack of visibility continued, despite the efforts of female authors writing about women. These writers, like most of their male counterparts, were amateur historians. Their writings were celebratory in nature, and they were uncritical in their selection and use of sources. During the nineteenth century, however, certain feminists showed a keen sense of history by keeping records of activities in which women were engaged. National, regional, and local women’s organizations compiled accounts of their doings. Personal correspondence, newspaper clippings, and souvenirs were saved and stored. These sources form the core of the two greatest collections of women’s history in the United States – one at the Elizabeth and Arthur Schlesinger Library at Radcliffe College, and the other the Sophia Smith Collection at Smith College. Such sources have provided valuable materials for later generations of historians. Despite the gathering of more information about ordinary women during the nineteenth century, most of the writing about women conformed to the “great women” theory of history, just as much of mainstream American history concentrated on “great men”. To demonstrate that women were



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making significant contributions to American life, female authors singled out women leaders and wrote biographies, or else important women produced their autobiographies. Most of these leaders were involved in public life as reformers, activists working for women’s right to vote, or authors, and were not representative at all of the great mass of ordinary women. The lives of ordinary people continued, generally, to be untold in the American histories being published.

Question 36: What does the passage mainly discuss? A. The keen sense of history shown by American women. B. The “great women” approach to history used by American historians. C. The place of American women in written histories. D. The role of literature in early American histories. Question 37: The word “contemporary” in the passage is closest in meaning to_______. A. temporary B. written at that time C. belonging to the present time D. past Question 38: In the first paragraph, Bradstreet, Warren, and Adams are mentioned to show that _______. A. a woman’s status was changed by marriage B. poetry produced by women was more readily accepted than other writing by women C. only three women were able to get their writing published D. even the contributions of outstanding women were ignored Question 39: The word “celebratory” in the passage means that the writings referred to were _______. A. religious B. serious C. related to parties D. full of praise Question 40: The word “they” in the passage refers to_______. A. authors B. efforts C. counterparts D. sources Question 41: In the second paragraph, what weakness in nineteenth-century histories does the author point out ? A. The sources of the information they were based on were not necessarily accurate. B. They left out discussion of the influence on money on politics. C. They were printed on poor quality paper. D. They put too much emphasis on daily activities. Question 42: On the basis of information in the third paragraph, which of the following would most likely have been collected by nineteenth-century feminist organizations ? A. Newspaper accounts of presidential election results. B. Letters from a mother to a daughter advising her how to handle a family problem. C. Biographies of John Adams. D. Books about famous graduates of the country’s first college. Question 43: In the last paragraph, the author mentions all of the following as possible roles of nineteenth-century “great women” ÊXCÊPT _______. A. activists for women’s rights B. authors C. reformers D. politicians

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 44: Julie and Anne had not met each other before he party. A. The party was the place where Julie and Anne could not meet each other. B. The party prevented Julie and Anne from meeting each other. C. Julie and Anne got acquainted when they were at the party. D. Julie and Anne used to meet each other for the party. Question 45: I have seldom heard such a talented singer. A. Seldom have I heard such a talented singer. B. Seldom I have heard such a talented singer. C. Seldom has I heard such a talented singer.



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D. All are correct. Question 46: You’re not to blame for what happened. A. You’re not accused of what happened. B. What happened is not your fault. C. You’re responsible for what happened. D. We blame you for what happened. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges. Question 47: - Nam: “ Why did you move to the capital ?” - Phong: “ ______ “. A. For my liking B. To find a good job C. Because I didn’t want D. I was told about it. Question 48: - Tim: “ Do you think you will get the job ? ” - Peter: “ _____ “. A. I know so B. Well, I hope so C. I think not D. Yes, that’s right

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 49: Most scientists know him well. However, very few ordinary people have heard of him. A. He is the only scientist that is not known to the general public. B. Not only scientists but also the general public know him as a big name. C. Although he is well known to scientists, he is little known to the general public. D. Many ordinary people know him better than most scientists do. Question 50: I did not dare to turn on the television. I was afraid of waking the baby up. A. I decided to turn the television down to avoid waking the baby up. B. Waking the baby up, I could not continue watching the television. C. I decided not to turn on the television in order to wake the baby up. D. I did not dare to turn on the television for fear of waking up the baby.

___________THE END____________






Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 01: A. aunt B. daunting C. autumn D. taught Question 02: A. chore B. technology C. achieve D. exchange

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 03: A. enthusiasm B. appropriate C. communicate D. entertainment Question 04: A. powerful B. electricity C. standard D. peaceful

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 05: New Zealand has relatively few species of animals because of its long isolation from other landmasses.

A. respectively B. approximately C. considerably D. comparatively Question 06: Sports and festivals form an integral part of every human society. A. essential B. delighted C. exciting D. informative



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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 07: Population growth rates vary among regions and even among countries within the same region. A. restrain B. stay unchanged C. remain unstable D. fluctuate Question 08. The story told by the teacher amused children in the class. A. frightened B. jolted C. saddened D. astonished


Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 12: Friendship should be based on _______ understanding. A. deep B. mutual C. unselfish D. together Question 13: Many plants can grow in water, ______ nutrients are added. A. besides B. as long as C. above all D. in case Question 14: My supervisor is angry with me. I didn’t do all the work that I_______ last week. A. should have done B. can have done C. may have done D. must have done Question 15: You won’t know what to do_______ you listen carefully. A. when B. unless C. because D. if Question 16: If we don’t preserve the world’s wild life, many rare species are likely to_______ completely. A. die out B. die down C. die away D. die from Question 17. Waste paper can be used again after being_______. A. produced B. recycled C. wasted D. preserved Question 18: John asked me_______ that film the night before. A. that I saw B. had I seen C. if I had seen D. if had I seen Question 19: It was_______ we could not go out. A. such dark that B. so dark that C. very so dark D. too dark that Question 20: Many high school students in Vietnam have to work hard to ________ at a university. A. win a place B. get a cold C. lose touch with D. keep pace with Question 21: It was obviously a difficult situation, but he remained __________. A. optimistic B pessimistic C. optimistically D. pessimism Question 22: By the end of next month, we _______ our project. A. have finished B. will be finished C. will have finished D. finished Question 23: If you had not been careless, you _______. A. will not be sacked B. are not sacked C. will not have been sacked D. would not have been sacked

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42. Although most universities in the United States are on a semester system, which offers classes in the fall and spring, some schools observe a quarter system comprised of fall, winter, spring, and summer quarters. The academic year, September to June, is divided into three quarters of eleven weeks each beginning in September, January, and March: the summer quarter, June to August, is composed of shorter sessions of vary length.



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There are several advantages and disadvantages to the quarter system. On the plus side, students who wish to complete their degrees in less than the customary four years may take advantage of the opportunity to study year round by enrolling in all four quarters. In addition, although most students begin their programs in the fall quarter, they may enter at the beginning of any other quarters. Finally, since the physical facilities are kept in operation year round, the resources are used effectively to serve the greatest number of students. But there are several disadvantages as well. Many faculty complain that eleven-week term is simply not enough for them to cover the material required by most college coursed. Students also find it difficult to complete the assignments in such a short period of time. In order to combine the advantages of the quarter system with those of the semester system some colleges and universities have instituted a three-term trimester system. In fourteen weeks, faculty and students have more time to cover material and finish course requirements, but the additional term provides options for admission during the year and accelerates the degree programs for those students who wish to graduate early.

Question 24: Which of the following would be the best title for this passage? A. Universities in the United States C. The Quarter System B. The Academic Year D. The Semester System Question 25: A semester system______________ A. has eleven-week sessions B. gives students the opportunity to study year round C. Isn’t very popular in the United States D. has two major sessions a year Question 26: How many terms are there in a quarter system? A. Four regular terms and one summer term B. Three regular terms and one summer term C. Two regular terms and two summer terms D. One regular term and four summer terms Question 27: When is the academic year? A. September to August B. June to August C. August to June D. September to June Question 28: The word “them” in paragraph 2 refers to_____________ A. faculty B. weeks C. courses D. material Question 29: The word “instituted” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to_______________ A. established B. considered C. recommended D. attempted Question 30: Where would this passage most probably be found? A. In a college catalog for a university in the United States B. In a general guide to colleges and universities in the United States C. In a American newspaper D. In a dictionary published in the United States

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35. How many people do you communicate with in a day? Probably a lot more than you did ten years ago. With a few pieces of equipment, we can ‘talk’ to people in more and more ways, not (31)_________ face-to-face and on the phone, but also via the Internet. It is very important, therefore, for everyone to try and improve their communication skills. Despite all the technological advances of (32)________ years, the art of good conversation is still at the heart of successful communication. (33) ____ it’s a good idea to remember the four golden rules of good communication. Firstly, be as clear as you can. Misunderstandings arise if we don’t say exactly what we mean. Secondly, we have to work hard at listening. Pay attention to what the other person is saying. Thirdly, ask other people what they think, don’t only tell them what you think. And finally show respect for people, give them time to say what they want, and (34)__________ interest in what they say. If you (35)_________ these rules, you will be a good communicator.

Question 31. A. yet B. even C. just D. still Question 32. A. close B. last C. late D. recent Question 33. A. So B. There C. Such D. Or



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Question 34. A. get B. put C. show D. be Question 35. A. act B. move C. go D. follow

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 43. If we took a look at how people in Europe communicated just one hundred years ago, we would be very surprised to find out that English was hardly used outside the United Kingdom. The language most commonly used between people of different nationalities, and particularly the aristocracy, was French. In fact, French was the language of diplomacy, culture and education. However, that is not the case nowadays. English has replaced French as the international language of communication. Today, there are more people who speak English as a second language than people who speak it as a first language.

There are many reasons why English has become the language of international communication. Britain’s colonization of many parts of the world had something to do with it, but it is mainly due to America’s rise to the position of major world power. This helped spread popular American culture throughout the world bringing the language with it.

But is it good that English has spread to all parts of the world so quickly? Language specialists seem to be divided over this issue. There are those who claim that it is important to have a language that the people in our increasingly globalized world have in common. According to others, English is associated with a particular culture and therefore promotes that culture at the expense of others. Linguists have suggested “Êsperanto”, an artificially put-together language, as a solution to international communication problems but without success. So English will continue being the world language until some other language, maybe Chinese, which is the most widely-spoken native language in the world, takes over as the world’s international language instead of English.

Question 36: According to the passage, a century ago ______________. A. educated people throughout Europe spoke English. B. foreign travelers to England spoke only French. C. French was much more popular than English. D. only the French aristocracy could speak English. Question 37: What is chiefly responsible for the growth in popularity of English?

A. Britain’s becoming an international power B. The French losing many colonies C. American’s becoming powerful D. The development of American culture

Question 38: What is meant by “the language of diplomacy” ( line 4) A. The language used by ordinary people. B. The language used by the English and the French C. The language used by the aristocracy. D. The language used by governments

Question 39: What is true according to the passage? A. The linguists don’t like Esperanto B. Esperanto is not a natural language C. Esperanto is difficult to learn D. Esperanto is becoming more and more popular

Question 40: The linguists’ opinion on the spread of Ênglish is___________. A. split B. positive C. negative D. undecided

Question 41: The author believes that ___________. A. English is easier to learn than Chinese B. English will probably be replaced as an international language C. Chinese is going to be the next language of international communication D. Chinese is growing in popularity among non-native speakers

Question 42: These days ___________. A. French is the language of diplomacy B. more non-natives speak English than natives C. more people speak French than English D. French is a dying language

Question 43: What would be a good title for this passage?



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A. English in the future B. English as an international language C. English language means English culture D. English - a difficult language to learn

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 44: She spoke so fast that nobody understood her. A. So fast did she speak that nobody understood her. B. Such fast she spoke that nobody understood her. C. So fast she spoke that nobody understood her. D. Such fast did she speak that nobody understood her. Question 45: He didn’t install an alarm, so the thieves broke into his house last night. A. If he installed an alarm, the thieves didn’t break into his house last night. B. Had he installed an alarm, the thieves wouldn’t have broken into his house last night. C. Because he hadn’t installed an alarm, the thieves would break into his house last night. D. If he had installed an alarm, the thieves wouldn’t break into his house last night. Question 46: I won’t sell the painting, no matter how much you offer me. A. Whenever you offer me to buy the painting, I won’t sell it. B. How many money you offer me, I won’t sell the painting. C. Whatever price you offer me, I won’t sell the painting. D. In spite of your offering me how much money, but I won’t sell the painting.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges. Question 47: - Nam : “Your parents must be proud of your results at school”. - Mai : “_______” . A. Sorry to hear that B. Thanks. It’s certainly encouraging C. Of course D. I am glad you like it. Question 48: John was in Hanoi and wanted to send a parcel to his parents. He asked a local passer-by the way to the post-office. Choose the most suitable response to fill in the blank in the following exchange. - John : “ Can you show me the way to the nearest post office, please ? ” - Passer-by: “_______ ” . A. Not way, sorry. B. Just round the corner over there. C. Look it up in a dictionary! D. There’s no traffic near here.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 49: The man wanted to get some fresh air in the room. He opened the window. A. The man opened the window in order to get some fresh air in the room. B. Having opened the window, the room could get some fresh air. C. The man wanted to get some fresh air in the room because he opened the window. D. The man got some fresh air in the room, even though he opened the window. Question 50: I had never seen her before. However, I recognized her from a photograph. A. I recognized her from a photograph before I had never seen her. B. Although I had never seen her before but I recognized her from a photograph. C. After I had seen her, I recognized her from a photograph. D. Although I had never seen her before, I recognized her from a photograph.

___________THE END____________








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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 01: A. aunt B. daunting C. autumn D. taught Question 02: A. chore B. technology C. achieve D. exchange

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 03: A. enthusiasm B. appropriate C. communicate D. entertainment Question 04: A. powerful B. electricity C. standard D. peaceful

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 05: New Zealand has relatively few species of animals because of its long isolation from other landmasses.

A. respectively B. approximately C. considerably D. comparatively Question 06: Sports and festivals form an integral part of every human society. A. essential B. delighted C. exciting D. informative

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 07: Population growth rates vary among regions and even among countries within the same region. A. restrain B. stay unchanged C. remain unstable D. fluctuate Question 08. The story told by the teacher amused children in the class. A. frightened B. jolted C. saddened D. astonished


Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 12: Friendship should be based on _______ understanding. A. deep B. mutual C. unselfish D. together Question 13: Many plants can grow in water, ______ nutrients are added. A. besides B. as long as C. above all D. in case Question 14: My supervisor is angry with me. I didn’t do all the work that I_______ last week. A. should have done B. can have done C. may have done D. must have done Question 15: You won’t know what to do_______ you listen carefully. A. when B. unless C. because D. if Question 16: If we don’t preserve the world’s wild life, many rare species are likely to_______ completely. A. die out B. die down C. die away D. die from Question 17. Waste paper can be used again after being_______. A. produced B. recycled C. wasted D. preserved Question 18: John asked me_______ that film the night before. A. that I saw B. had I seen C. if I had seen D. if had I seen Question 19: It was_______ we could not go out.



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A. such dark that B. so dark that C. very so dark D. too dark that Question 20: Many high school students in Vietnam have to work hard to ________ at a university. A. win a place B. get a cold C. lose touch with D. keep pace with Question 21: It was obviously a difficult situation, but he remained __________. A. optimistic B pessimistic C. optimistically D. pessimism Question 22: By the end of next month, we _______ our project. A. have finished B. will be finished C. will have finished D. finished Question 23: If you had not been careless, you _______. A. will not be sacked B. are not sacked C. will not have been sacked D. would not have been sacked

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42. Although most universities in the United States are on a semester system, which offers classes in the fall and spring, some schools observe a quarter system comprised of fall, winter, spring, and summer quarters. The academic year, September to June, is divided into three quarters of eleven weeks each beginning in September, January, and March: the summer quarter, June to August, is composed of shorter sessions of vary length. There are several advantages and disadvantages to the quarter system. On the plus side, students who wish to complete their degrees in less than the customary four years may take advantage of the opportunity to study year round by enrolling in all four quarters. In addition, although most students begin their programs in the fall quarter, they may enter at the beginning of any other quarters. Finally, since the physical facilities are kept in operation year round, the resources are used effectively to serve the greatest number of students. But there are several disadvantages as well. Many faculty complain that eleven-week term is simply not enough for them to cover the material required by most college coursed. Students also find it difficult to complete the assignments in such a short period of time. In order to combine the advantages of the quarter system with those of the semester system some colleges and universities have instituted a three-term trimester system. In fourteen weeks, faculty and students have more time to cover material and finish course requirements, but the additional term provides options for admission during the year and accelerates the degree programs for those students who wish to graduate early.

Question 24: Which of the following would be the best title for this passage? A. Universities in the United States C. The Quarter System B. The Academic Year D. The Semester System Question 25: A semester system______________ A. has eleven-week sessions B. gives students the opportunity to study year round C. Isn’t very popular in the United States D. has two major sessions a year Question 26: How many terms are there in a quarter system? A. Four regular terms and one summer term B. Three regular terms and one summer term C. Two regular terms and two summer terms D. One regular term and four summer terms Question 27: When is the academic year? A. September to August B. June to August C. August to June D. September to June Question 28: The word “them” in paragraph 2 refers to_____________ A. faculty B. weeks C. courses D. material Question 29: The word “instituted” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to_______________ A. established B. considered C. recommended D. attempted Question 30: Where would this passage most probably be found? A. In a college catalog for a university in the United States B. In a general guide to colleges and universities in the United States C. In a American newspaper D. In a dictionary published in the United States



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Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35. How many people do you communicate with in a day? Probably a lot more than you did ten years ago. With a few pieces of equipment, we can ‘talk’ to people in more and more ways, not (31)_________ face-to-face and on the phone, but also via the Internet. It is very important, therefore, for everyone to try and improve their communication skills. Despite all the technological advances of (32)________ years, the art of good conversation is still at the heart of successful communication. (33) ____ it’s a good idea to remember the four golden rules of good communication. Firstly, be as clear as you can. Misunderstandings arise if we don’t say exactly what we mean. Secondly, we have to work hard at listening. Pay attention to what the other person is saying. Thirdly, ask other people what they think, don’t only tell them what you think. And finally show respect for people, give them time to say what they want, and (34)__________ interest in what they say. If you (35)_________ these rules, you will be a good communicator.

Question 31. A. yet B. even C. just D. still Question 32. A. close B. last C. late D. recent Question 33. A. So B. There C. Such D. Or Question 34. A. get B. put C. show D. be Question 35. A. act B. move C. go D. follow

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 43. If we took a look at how people in Europe communicated just one hundred years ago, we would be very surprised to find out that English was hardly used outside the United Kingdom. The language most commonly used between people of different nationalities, and particularly the aristocracy, was French. In fact, French was the language of diplomacy, culture and education. However, that is not the case nowadays. English has replaced French as the international language of communication. Today, there are more people who speak English as a second language than people who speak it as a first language.

There are many reasons why English has become the language of international communication. Britain’s colonization of many parts of the world had something to do with it, but it is mainly due to America’s rise to the position of major world power. This helped spread popular American culture throughout the world bringing the language with it.

But is it good that English has spread to all parts of the world so quickly? Language specialists seem to be divided over this issue. There are those who claim that it is important to have a language that the people in our increasingly globalized world have in common. According to others, English is associated with a particular culture and therefore promotes that culture at the expense of others. Linguists have suggested “Êsperanto”, an artificially put-together language, as a solution to international communication problems but without success. So English will continue being the world language until some other language, maybe Chinese, which is the most widely-spoken native language in the world, takes over as the world’s international language instead of English.

Question 36: According to the passage, a century ago ______________. A. educated people throughout Europe spoke English. B. foreign travelers to England spoke only French. C. French was much more popular than English. D. only the French aristocracy could speak English. Question 37: What is chiefly responsible for the growth in popularity of English?

A. Britain’s becoming an international power B. The French losing many colonies C. American’s becoming powerful D. The development of American culture

Question 38: What is meant by “the language of diplomacy” ( line 4) A. The language used by ordinary people.



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B. The language used by the English and the French C. The language used by the aristocracy. D. The language used by governments

Question 39: What is true according to the passage? A. The linguists don’t like Êsperanto B. Esperanto is not a natural language C. Esperanto is difficult to learn D. Esperanto is becoming more and more popular

Question 40: The linguists’ opinion on the spread of Ênglish is___________. A. split B. positive C. negative D. undecided

Question 41: The author believes that ___________. A. English is easier to learn than Chinese B. English will probably be replaced as an international language C. Chinese is going to be the next language of international communication D. Chinese is growing in popularity among non-native speakers

Question 42: These days ___________. A. French is the language of diplomacy B. more non-natives speak English than natives C. more people speak French than English D. French is a dying language

Question 43: What would be a good title for this passage? A. English in the future B. English as an international language

C. English language means English culture D. English - a difficult language to learn

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 44: She spoke so fast that nobody understood her. A. So fast did she speak that nobody understood her. B. Such fast she spoke that nobody understood her. C. So fast she spoke that nobody understood her. D. Such fast did she speak that nobody understood her. Question 45: He didn’t install an alarm, so the thieves broke into his house last night. A. If he installed an alarm, the thieves didn’t break into his house last night. B. Had he installed an alarm, the thieves wouldn’t have broken into his house last night. C. Because he hadn’t installed an alarm, the thieves would break into his house last night. D. If he had installed an alarm, the thieves wouldn’t break into his house last night. Question 46: I won’t sell the painting, no matter how much you offer me. A. Whenever you offer me to buy the painting, I won’t sell it. B. How many money you offer me, I won’t sell the painting. C. Whatever price you offer me, I won’t sell the painting. D. In spite of your offering me how much money, but I won’t sell the painting.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges. Question 47: - Nam : “Your parents must be proud of your results at school”. - Mai : “_______” . A. Sorry to hear that B. Thanks. It’s certainly encouraging C. Of course D. I am glad you like it. Question 48: John was in Hanoi and wanted to send a parcel to his parents. He asked a local passer-by the way to the post-office. Choose the most suitable response to fill in the blank in the following exchange. - John : “ Can you show me the way to the nearest post office, please ? ” - Passer-by: “_______ ” . A. Not way, sorry. B. Just round the corner over there. C. Look it up in a dictionary! D. There’s no traffic near here.



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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 49: The man wanted to get some fresh air in the room. He opened the window. A. The man opened the window in order to get some fresh air in the room. B. Having opened the window, the room could get some fresh air. C. The man wanted to get some fresh air in the room because he opened the window. D. The man got some fresh air in the room, even though he opened the window. Question 50: I had never seen her before. However, I recognized her from a photograph. A. I recognized her from a photograph before I had never seen her. B. Although I had never seen her before but I recognized her from a photograph. C. After I had seen her, I recognized her from a photograph. D. Although I had never seen her before, I recognized her from a photograph.

___________THE END____________






Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 01: A. subscribed B. launched C. inspired D. welcomed Question 02: A. admit B. advance C. advent D. admire

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 03: A. beautiful B. favourite C. popular D. effective Question 04: A. attraction B. government C. borrowing D. visitor

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 05: It will take more or less a month to prepare for the wedding. A. approximately B. generally C. frankly D. simply Question 06: Although the student raised his hand, the teacher did not acknowledge his presence. A. inquire B. recognize C. communicate D. dismiss

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 07: She was disgusted at the way they treated their children. A. allergic to B. delighted at C. displeased with D. angry at Question 08. All of the students are obliged to pass the entrance examination in order to attend the university A. forced B. impelled C. required D. optional

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 09: It is believed that in the near future robots will be used to doing things such as cooking. A B C D Question 10: Each of the members of the group were made to write a report every week. A B C D Question 11: If you had the chance to meet famous writers, what do you ask them?



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A B C D Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 12: No one can predict the future exactly. Things may happen ______. A. expected B. unexpected C. expectedly D. unexpectedly Question 13: We decided to in Athens for a few days on our way home. A. stop over B. put up C. set up D. close down Question 14: Education _________ to be the most important element to develop a country. A. often be considered B. can often considered C. can often consider D. can often be considered Question 15: Many problems have _________ since the beginning of the school year. A. brought up B. come up C. brought out D. come out Question 16: Children who are isolated and lonely seem to have poor language and _____. A. communication B. communicate C. communicative D. communicator Question 17. Only when you grow up, it. A. you understand B. you do understand C. you can understand D. can you understand Question 18: Effie disliked the film, . A. so did Frank B. neither did Frank C. so Frank did D. and also disliked it Frank Question 19: Ben would have studied medicine if he_____ to a medical school. A. was admitted B. had been admitted C. had admitted D. would be able to enter Question 20: _________ I had learnt English when I was at high school. A. If only B. Even if C. Unless D. If Question 21: In spite _______ his did not get the highest grade in the final exam. A. of his intelligence B. he was intelligent C. his intelligence D. of he was intelligent Question 22: Many young people have objected to _______ marriage, which is decided by the parents of the bride and groom. A. agreed B. shared C. contractual D. sacrificed Question 23: Nam asked me if I thought ______ . A. it will rain today B. will it rain that day C. would it rain today D. it would rain that day

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 24 to 30. For many people who live in cities, parks are an important part of the landscape. They provide a place for people to relax and play sports, as well as a refuge from the often harsh environment of a city. What people often overlook is that parks also provide considerable environmental benefits. One benefit of parks is that plants absorb carbon dioxide—a key pollutant—and emit oxygen, which humans need to breathe. According to one study, an acre of trees can absorb the same amount of carbon dioxide that a typical car emits in 11,000 miles of driving. Parks also make cities cooler. Scientists have long noted what is called the Urban Heat Island Effect: building materials such as metal, concrete, and asphalt absorb much more of the sun’s heat and release it much more quickly than organic surfaces like trees and grass. Because city landscapes contain so much of these building materials, cities are usually warmer than surrounding rural areas. Parks and other green spaces help to mitigate the Urban Heat Island Effect. Unfortunately, many cities cannot easily create more parks because most land is already being used for buildings, roads, parking lots, and other essential parts of the urban environment. However, cities could benefit from many of the positive effects of parks by encouraging citizens to create another type of green space: rooftop gardens. While most people would not think of starting a garden on their roof, human beings have been planting gardens on rooftops for thousands of years. Some rooftop gardens are very complex and require complicated engineering, but others are simple container gardens that anyone can create with the investment of a few hundred dollars and a few hours of work.



174

Rooftop gardens provide many of the same benefits as other urban park and garden spaces, but without taking up the much-needed land. Like parks, rooftop gardens help to replace carbon dioxide in the air with nourishing oxygen. They also help to lessen the Urban Heat Island Effect, which can save people money. In the summer, rooftop gardens prevent buildings from absorbing heat from the sun, which can significantly reduce cooling bills. In the winter, gardens help hold in the heat that materials like brick and concrete radiate so quickly, leading to savings on heating bills. Rooftop vegetable and herb gardens can also provide fresh food for city dwellers, saving them money and making their diets healthier. Rooftop gardens are not only something everyone can enjoy, they are also a smart environmental investment.

Question 24: Based on its use in paragraph 2, it can be inferred that mitigate belongs to which of the following word groups? A. exacerbate, aggravate, intensify B. obliterate, destroy, annihilate C. allay, alleviate, reduce D. absorb, intake, consume Question 25: Using the information in paragraph 2 as a guide, it can be inferred that _______. A. cities with rooftop gardens are cooler than those without rooftop gardens B. some plants are not suitable for growth in rooftop gardens C. most people prefer parks to rooftop gardens D. most people prefer life in the country over life in the city Question 26: Based on the information in paragraph 3, which of the following best describes the main difference between parks and rooftop gardens? A. Parks are expensive to create while rooftop gardens are not. B. Parks are public while rooftop gardens are private. C. Parks absorb heat while rooftop gardens do not. D. Parks require much space while rooftop gardens do not. Question 27: The author claims all of the following to be the benefits of rooftop gardens except _____. A. increased space for private relaxation B. savings on heating and cooling costs C. better food for city dwellers D. improved air quality Question 28: According to the author, one advantage that rooftop gardens have over parks is that they _______. A. decrease the Urban Heat Island Effect B. replenish the air with nourishing oxygen C. do not require the use of valuable urban land D. are less expensive than traditional park spaces Question 29: The author’s tone in the passage is best described as _______ . A. descriptive B. passionate C. informative D. argumentative Question 30: It can be inferred from the passage that the author would most likely endorse a program that _______. A. permitted the construction of buildings in city park land provided they have rooftop gardens B. extended discounts on plants to customers who use them to create rooftop gardens C. offered free admission to schools willing to take their students on field trips to the city park D. promised vacation getaways to cooler destinations for those trapped in the city at the peak of summer

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35. Education is more important today than ever before. It helps people acquire the skills they need for such everyday (31)_____ as reading a newspaper or managing their money. It also gives them the specialized training they may need to prepare for a job or career. For example, a person must meet certain educational requirements and obtain a (32)_____ or certificate before he can practice law or medicine. Many fields, like computer operation or police work, require satisfactory completion of special training courses.



175

Education is also important (33)_____ it helps people get more out of life. It increases their knowledge and understanding of the world. It helps them acquire the skills that make life more interesting and enjoyable, such as the skills needed to participate in a sport, paint a picture, or play a musical instrument. Such education becomes (34)_____ important as people gain more and more leisure time. Education also helps people adjust to change. This habit has become necessary because social changes today take place with increasing speed and affect the lives of more and more people. Education can help a person understand these changes and provide him (35)_____ the skills for adjusting to them.

Question 31. A. works B. jobs C. actions D. activities Question 32. A. license B. card C. diploma D. paper Question 33. A. therefore B. despite C. because D. although Question 34. A. increased B. increasing C. increase D. increasingly Question 35. A. with B. for C. in D. to

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 43. One of the most interesting authors of the twentieth century, J.R.R Tolkien, achieved fame through his highly inventive trilogy, The Lord of the Rings. Born in 1892, Tolkien received his education from Oxford and then served in World War I. After the war, he became a professor of Anglo-Saxon and English language and literature at Oxford University. Although published in 1965, the three books that comprise the Lord of the Rings were written in intervals from 1936 to 1949. This was mainly due to Tolkien's responsibilities as a professor and the outbreak of World War II. By the late 1960s, this fascinating trilogy had become a sociological phenomenon as young people intently studied the mythology and legends created by Tolkien. The trilogy is remarkable not only for its highly developed account of historical fiction but also its success as a modern heroic epic. The main plot describes the struggle between good and evil kingdom as they try to acquire a magic ring that has the power to rule the world. The novels, which are set in a time called Middle Earth, describe a detailed fantasy world. Established before humans populated the Earth, Middle Earth was inhabited by good and evil creatures such as hobbits, elves, monsters, wizards, and some humans. The characters and the setting of Middle Earth were modeled after mythological stories from Greece and Northern Europe. Although readers have scrutinized the texts for inner meaning and have tried to connect the trilogy with Tolkien's real life experiences in England during World War II, he denied the connection. He claims that the story began in his years as an undergraduate student and grew out of his desire to create mythology and legends about elves and their language. Tolkien was a masterful fantasy novelist who used his extensive knowledge of folklore to create a body of work that is still read and enjoyed throughout the world today.

Question 36: What can we assume is NOT true about Middle Earth ? A. Middle Earth was based on European folktales B. Middle Earth was a fictional world C. The good and evil kingdom fought for the power D. People dominated Middle Earth Question 37: The word "scrutinized" in the fourth paragraph could be replaced by_______. A. examined B. denied C. enjoyed D. criticized Question 38: What does this paragraph mainly discuss? A. J.R.R Tolkien's work as a professor B. All of J.R.R Tolkien's fantasy books C. J.R.R Tolkien and his trilogy D. The popularity of J.R.R Tolkien Question 39: According to the passage, when did "the Lord of the Rings" trilogy become popular with young people ? A. In the late 1960s B. In 1892



176

C. After World War II D. Between 1936 and 1946 Question 40: When did Tolkien begin to create this trilogy ? A. When he was a student B. During World War I C. When he was a professor D. During World War II Question 41: What does the word " trilogy" in the first paragraph mean ? A. A specific type of fantasy novel B. A long novel C. A group of three literary books D. An unrelated group of books Question 42: What is the setting of Tolkien's trilogy ? A. Modern - day Greece B. England in the 1800's C. Oxford University D. Middle Earth Question 43: The word "fascinating" in the second paragraph could be replaced by _______. A. thrilling B. extremely interesting C. boring D. terrifying

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 44: It is such a important problem that everybody is concerned of it. A. Such is the important problem that everybody is concerned of it. B. So is the important problem that everybody is concerned of it. C. So is an important problem that everybody is concerned of it. D. Such is an important problem that everybody is concerned of it. Question 45: People believed he won a lot of money on the lottery. A. He is believed that he won a lot of money on the lottery. B. He won a lot of money on the lottery, it is believed. C. He is believed to have won a lot of money on the lottery. D. He was believed to win a lot of money on the lottery. Question 46: You should have persuaded him to change his mind. A. It was essential to persuade him to change his mind but you didn’t. B. You didn't persuade him to change because of his mind. C. You should persuade him to change his mind. D. You persuaded him to change his mind but he didn't listen. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges. Question 47: - David : " Would you like coffee or fruit-juice ? " - John : “__________ ”. A. I couldn't agree more B. No, I've no choice C. I'd prefer coffee, please D. Yes, I'd like to Question 48: - Tim : “ May I leave a message for Ms Davis ? ” - Janet : “ ________ “ . A. I’m afraid she is not here at the moment. B. No, she’s not here now. C. She’s leaving a message for you now D. Yes, I’ll make sure she gets it.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 49: He is late again. I don't know the reason why. A. I don't know the reason why he is late again. B. The reason why he is late again I don't know. C. Why he is late again is I don't know the reason. D. Why I don't know the reason he is late. Question 50: Most of the classmates couldn't come. He invited them to the birthday party. A. Most of the classmates he invited to the birthday party couldn't come. B. Most of the classmates he was invited to the birthday party couldn't come. C. Most of the classmates that he invited them to the birthday party couldn't come.



177

D. Most of the classmates which he invited to the birthday party couldn't come. ___________THE END____________






Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 01: A. subscribed B. launched C. inspired D. welcomed Question 02: A. admit B. advance C. advent D. admire

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 03: A. beautiful B. favourite C. popular D. effective Question 04: A. attraction B. government C. borrowing D. visitor

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 05: It will take more or less a month to prepare for the wedding. A. approximately B. generally C. frankly D. simply Question 06: Although the student raised his hand, the teacher did not acknowledge his presence. A. inquire B. recognize C. communicate D. dismiss

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 07: She was disgusted at the way they treated their children. A. allergic to B. delighted at C. displeased with D. angry at Question 08. All of the students are obliged to pass the entrance examination in order to attend the university A. forced B. impelled C. required D. optional

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 09: It is believed that in the near future robots will be used to doing things such as cooking. A B C D Question 10: Each of the members of the group were made to write a report every week. A B C D Question 11: If you had the chance to meet famous writers, what do you ask them? A B C D Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 12: No one can predict the future exactly. Things may happen ______. A. expected B. unexpected C. expectedly D. unexpectedly Question 13: We decided to in Athens for a few days on our way home. A. stop over B. put up C. set up D. close down Question 14: Education _________ to be the most important element to develop a country. A. often be considered B. can often considered C. can often consider D. can often be considered Question 15: Many problems have _________ since the beginning of the school year. A. brought up B. come up C. brought out D. come out Question 16: Children who are isolated and lonely seem to have poor language and _____.



178

A. communication B. communicate C. communicative D. communicator Question 17. Only when you grow up, it. A. you understand B. you do understand C. you can understand D. can you understand Question 18: Effie disliked the film, . A. so did Frank B. neither did Frank C. so Frank did D. and also disliked it Frank Question 19: Ben would have studied medicine if he_____ to a medical school. A. was admitted B. had been admitted C. had admitted D. would be able to enter Question 20: _________ I had learnt English when I was at high school. A. If only B. Even if C. Unless D. If Question 21: In spite _______ his did not get the highest grade in the final exam. A. of his intelligence B. he was intelligent C. his intelligence D. of he was intelligent Question 22: Many young people have objected to _______ marriage, which is decided by the parents of the bride and groom. A. agreed B. shared C. contractual D. sacrificed Question 23: Nam asked me if I thought ______ . A. it will rain today B. will it rain that day C. would it rain today D. it would rain that day

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 24 to 30. For many people who live in cities, parks are an important part of the landscape. They provide a place for people to relax and play sports, as well as a refuge from the often harsh environment of a city. What people often overlook is that parks also provide considerable environmental benefits. One benefit of parks is that plants absorb carbon dioxide—a key pollutant—and emit oxygen, which humans need to breathe. According to one study, an acre of trees can absorb the same amount of carbon dioxide that a typical car emits in 11,000 miles of driving. Parks also make cities cooler. Scientists have long noted what is called the Urban Heat Island Effect: building materials such as metal, concrete, and asphalt absorb much more of the sun’s heat and release it much more quickly than organic surfaces like trees and grass. Because city landscapes contain so much of these building materials, cities are usually warmer than surrounding rural areas. Parks and other green spaces help to mitigate the Urban Heat Island Effect. Unfortunately, many cities cannot easily create more parks because most land is already being used for buildings, roads, parking lots, and other essential parts of the urban environment. However, cities could benefit from many of the positive effects of parks by encouraging citizens to create another type of green space: rooftop gardens. While most people would not think of starting a garden on their roof, human beings have been planting gardens on rooftops for thousands of years. Some rooftop gardens are very complex and require complicated engineering, but others are simple container gardens that anyone can create with the investment of a few hundred dollars and a few hours of work. Rooftop gardens provide many of the same benefits as other urban park and garden spaces, but without taking up the much-needed land. Like parks, rooftop gardens help to replace carbon dioxide in the air with nourishing oxygen. They also help to lessen the Urban Heat Island Effect, which can save people money. In the summer, rooftop gardens prevent buildings from absorbing heat from the sun, which can significantly reduce cooling bills. In the winter, gardens help hold in the heat that materials like brick and concrete radiate so quickly, leading to savings on heating bills. Rooftop vegetable and herb gardens can also provide fresh food for city dwellers, saving them money and making their diets healthier. Rooftop gardens are not only something everyone can enjoy, they are also a smart environmental investment.

Question 24: Based on its use in paragraph 2, it can be inferred that mitigate belongs to which of the following word groups? A. exacerbate, aggravate, intensify B. obliterate, destroy, annihilate



179

C. allay, alleviate, reduce D. absorb, intake, consume Question 25: Using the information in paragraph 2 as a guide, it can be inferred that _______. A. cities with rooftop gardens are cooler than those without rooftop gardens B. some plants are not suitable for growth in rooftop gardens C. most people prefer parks to rooftop gardens D. most people prefer life in the country over life in the city Question 26: Based on the information in paragraph 3, which of the following best describes the main difference between parks and rooftop gardens? A. Parks are expensive to create while rooftop gardens are not. B. Parks are public while rooftop gardens are private. C. Parks absorb heat while rooftop gardens do not. D. Parks require much space while rooftop gardens do not. Question 27: The author claims all of the following to be the benefits of rooftop gardens except _____. A. increased space for private relaxation B. savings on heating and cooling costs C. better food for city dwellers D. improved air quality Question 28: According to the author, one advantage that rooftop gardens have over parks is that they _______. A. decrease the Urban Heat Island Effect B. replenish the air with nourishing oxygen C. do not require the use of valuable urban land D. are less expensive than traditional park spaces Question 29: The author’s tone in the passage is best described as _______ . A. descriptive B. passionate C. informative D. argumentative Question 30: It can be inferred from the passage that the author would most likely endorse a program that _______. A. permitted the construction of buildings in city park land provided they have rooftop gardens B. extended discounts on plants to customers who use them to create rooftop gardens C. offered free admission to schools willing to take their students on field trips to the city park D. promised vacation getaways to cooler destinations for those trapped in the city at the peak of summer

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35. Education is more important today than ever before. It helps people acquire the skills they need for such everyday (31)_____ as reading a newspaper or managing their money. It also gives them the specialized training they may need to prepare for a job or career. For example, a person must meet certain educational requirements and obtain a (32)_____ or certificate before he can practice law or medicine. Many fields, like computer operation or police work, require satisfactory completion of special training courses. Education is also important (33)_____ it helps people get more out of life. It increases their knowledge and understanding of the world. It helps them acquire the skills that make life more interesting and enjoyable, such as the skills needed to participate in a sport, paint a picture, or play a musical instrument. Such education becomes (34)_____ important as people gain more and more leisure time. Education also helps people adjust to change. This habit has become necessary because social changes today take place with increasing speed and affect the lives of more and more people. Education can help a person understand these changes and provide him (35)_____ the skills for adjusting to them.

Question 31. A. works B. jobs C. actions D. activities Question 32. A. license B. card C. diploma D. paper Question 33. A. therefore B. despite C. because D. although Question 34. A. increased B. increasing C. increase D. increasingly



180

Question 35. A. with B. for C. in D. to

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 43. One of the most interesting authors of the twentieth century, J.R.R Tolkien, achieved fame through his highly inventive trilogy, The Lord of the Rings. Born in 1892, Tolkien received his education from Oxford and then served in World War I. After the war, he became a professor of Anglo-Saxon and English language and literature at Oxford University. Although published in 1965, the three books that comprise the Lord of the Rings were written in intervals from 1936 to 1949. This was mainly due to Tolkien's responsibilities as a professor and the outbreak of World War II. By the late 1960s, this fascinating trilogy had become a sociological phenomenon as young people intently studied the mythology and legends created by Tolkien. The trilogy is remarkable not only for its highly developed account of historical fiction but also its success as a modern heroic epic. The main plot describes the struggle between good and evil kingdom as they try to acquire a magic ring that has the power to rule the world. The novels, which are set in a time called Middle Earth, describe a detailed fantasy world. Established before humans populated the Earth, Middle Earth was inhabited by good and evil creatures such as hobbits, elves, monsters, wizards, and some humans. The characters and the setting of Middle Earth were modeled after mythological stories from Greece and Northern Europe. Although readers have scrutinized the texts for inner meaning and have tried to connect the trilogy with Tolkien's real life experiences in England during World War II, he denied the connection. He claims that the story began in his years as an undergraduate student and grew out of his desire to create mythology and legends about elves and their language. Tolkien was a masterful fantasy novelist who used his extensive knowledge of folklore to create a body of work that is still read and enjoyed throughout the world today.

Question 36: What can we assume is NOT true about Middle Earth ? A. Middle Earth was based on European folktales B. Middle Earth was a fictional world C. The good and evil kingdom fought for the power D. People dominated Middle Earth Question 37: The word "scrutinized" in the fourth paragraph could be replaced by_______. A. examined B. denied C. enjoyed D. criticized Question 38: What does this paragraph mainly discuss? A. J.R.R Tolkien's work as a professor B. All of J.R.R Tolkien's fantasy books C. J.R.R Tolkien and his trilogy D. The popularity of J.R.R Tolkien Question 39: According to the passage, when did "the Lord of the Rings" trilogy become popular with young people ? A. In the late 1960s B. In 1892 C. After World War II D. Between 1936 and 1946 Question 40: When did Tolkien begin to create this trilogy ? A. When he was a student B. During World War I C. When he was a professor D. During World War II Question 41: What does the word " trilogy" in the first paragraph mean ? A. A specific type of fantasy novel B. A long novel C. A group of three literary books D. An unrelated group of books Question 42: What is the setting of Tolkien's trilogy ? A. Modern - day Greece B. England in the 1800's C. Oxford University D. Middle Earth Question 43: The word "fascinating" in the second paragraph could be replaced by _______. A. thrilling B. extremely interesting C. boring D. terrifying



181

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 44: It is such a important problem that everybody is concerned of it. A. Such is the important problem that everybody is concerned of it. B. So is the important problem that everybody is concerned of it. C. So is an important problem that everybody is concerned of it. D. Such is an important problem that everybody is concerned of it. Question 45: People believed he won a lot of money on the lottery. A. He is believed that he won a lot of money on the lottery. B. He won a lot of money on the lottery, it is believed. C. He is believed to have won a lot of money on the lottery. D. He was believed to win a lot of money on the lottery. Question 46: You should have persuaded him to change his mind. A. It was essential to persuade him to change his mind but you didn’t. B. You didn't persuade him to change because of his mind. C. You should persuade him to change his mind. D. You persuaded him to change his mind but he didn't listen. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges. Question 47: - David : " Would you like coffee or fruit-juice ? " - John : “__________ ”. A. I couldn't agree more B. No, I've no choice C. I'd prefer coffee, please D. Yes, I'd like to Question 48: - Tim : “ May I leave a message for Ms Davis ? ” - Janet : “ ________ “ . A. I’m afraid she is not here at the moment. B. No, she’s not here now. C. She’s leaving a message for you now D. Yes, I’ll make sure she gets it.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 49: He is late again. I don't know the reason why. A. I don't know the reason why he is late again. B. The reason why he is late again I don't know. C. Why he is late again is I don't know the reason. D. Why I don't know the reason he is late. Question 50: Most of the classmates couldn't come. He invited them to the birthday party. A. Most of the classmates he invited to the birthday party couldn't come. B. Most of the classmates he was invited to the birthday party couldn't come. C. Most of the classmates that he invited them to the birthday party couldn't come. D. Most of the classmates which he invited to the birthday party couldn't come.

___________THE END____________


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