UPKAR PRAKASHAN, AGRA-2

By

Dr. Sharma & Misra

Conducted by Jharkhand Public Service Commission

© Publishers

Publishers

UPKAR PRAKASHAN(An ISO 9001 : 2000 Company)

2/11A, Swadeshi Bima Nagar, AGRA–282 002Phone : 2530966, 2531101, 3208693/94Fax : (0562) 2531940E-mail : info@upkarprakashan.comWebsite : www.upkarprakashan.com

Branch Office4840/24, Govind Lane, Ansari Road,Daryaganj, New Delhi–110 002Phone : 23251844/66

● The publishers have taken all possible precautions in publishing this book, yet ifany mistake has crept in, the publishers shall not be responsible for the same.

● This book or any part thereof may not be reproduced in any form by Photographic,Mechanical, or any other method, for any use, without written permission from thePublishers.

● Only the courts at Agra shall have the jurisdiction for any legal dispute.

ISBN : 978-81-7482-653-4

Price : Rs. 250/-(Rs. Two Hundred Fifty Only)

Code No. 1617

Printed at : UPKAR PRAKASHAN (Printing Unit) Bye-pass, AGRA

Contents

● Solved Model Paper

Part–I

General Knowledge…………………………………………………..……… 1–48

Part–II

General English……………………………………………………………… 1–48

Part–III

The Code of Civil Procedure, 1908………………………………….……… 1–100

The Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973………………………..………….… 1–92

Indian Evidence Act, 1872……………………………………..………….… 1–76

The Indian Contract Act, 1872…………………………………………….… 1–83

General Information

● Eligibility :

(a) Must be a citizen of India.

(b) Must be a graduate in Law from arecognized University and enrolled as anadvocate under the advocates, Act, 1961 and

(c) Possesses sound health, bears good moralcharacter and is not involved in, or related toany criminal case involving moral turpitude.

● Age :

Age of the candidate must be between 22 and35 years.

There is age-relaxation of 3 years in upper agelimit for women candidates of ScheduleCaste/Schedule Tribe category.

● Selection Procedure :Preliminary and Main examinations will beconducted for selection of the candidates.Successful candidates in the main examinationwill be called for interview. Then, the meritlist will be prepared on the basis of the marksobtained in the main examination and theinterview.

● Conditions and Syllabus for PreliminaryExamination :(a) Preliminary examination will be of two

hours, conducted on a single day and in asingle meeting. The paper will consist ofobjective questions of 100 marks.

(b) Questions from the following subjectswill be asked in this examination—

(i) General English, (ii) General Know-ledge (Including Current Affairs), (iii)C.P.C., (iv) Cr. P.C., (v) Evidence Act,(vi) Law of Contract.

● Main examination will be of three hours,conducted on a single day and in a singlemeeting. The paper will be of descriptive typeof 100 marks. Questions from the followingsubjects will be asked—

(i) Law of Evidence, (ii) Procedural Law(Including Code of Civil Procedure andCriminal Procedure), (iii) Indian Penal Code,

(iv) Law of Contract, (v) Law of Limitation,(vi) Transfer of Property Act, (vii) PartnershipAct, (viii) Sales of Goods Act, (ix)Negotiable Instruments Act, (x) ArbitrationLaw, (xi) Rent Control Law, (xii) Hindu Lawand Mohammedan Law, (xiii) Law ofJurisprudence.

● For written competitive examinations,categorywise minimum qualifying marks havebeen fixed as following—

1. For Unreserved — 45 out of 100

2. For OBC — 40 out of 100

3. For SC/ST — 35 out of 100

● Criterion of fixed minimum qualifying markswill be applicable in preliminary and mainboth the examinations. For the mainexamination, candidates will be chosen fromthe merit list prepared on the basis ofminimum qualifying marks and this will alsodepend on the number of vacancies.

● 20 marks have been fixed for interview.Following will be the categorywise qualifyingmarks for the candidates—

1. Unreserved — 10 out of 20

2. Other Backward Classes — 80 out of 20

3. SC/ST — 06 out of 20

Merit-list will be prepared on the basis of sumtotal of marks obtained in main examinationand the interview. Those candidates will notbe eligible for selection who obtained lessmarks than minimum qualifying marks fixedseparately for main examination and theinterview.

● If two or more candidates have obtained equalmarks in the merit-list prepared on the basis ofsum total of marks obtained in mainexamination and the interview, the senioritywill be decided on the basis of marks obtainedin main examination. In the case, if the marksobtained in main examination are also equal,on the basis of date of birth, elder candidatewill be considered senior and the merit-listwill be prepared.

JharkhandCivil Judge Junior Division

(Munsif)Preliminary Exam.

Solved Model Paper

Solved Model Paper1. Amongst the following States in India, the

percentage of tribal population to totalpopulation is highest in—(A) Nagaland(B) Arunachal Pradesh(C) Jharkhand(D) Chhattisgarh

2. Which one of the following Articles aboutFundamental Rights is directly related to theexploitation of Children ?

(A) Article-17 (B) Article-19

(C) Article-23 (D) Article-24

3. Who of the following is credited with theestablishment of the University GrantsCommission ?

(A) Jawahar Lal Nehru

(B) Ram Manohar Lohia

(C) Abul Kalam Azad

(D) Lal Bahadur Shastri

4. When a body is taken from the Earth to theMoon—(A) Its weight increases(B) Its weight decreases(C) Its weight remains unchanged(D) It becomes completely weightless

5. The First Finance Commission was constitu-ted in the year—(A) 1956 (B) 1953(C) 1952 (D) 1951

6. Which one of the following Amendments ofthe Constitution has given Delhi the status ofNational Capital Territory ?(A) 61st (B) 69th(C) 71st (D) 79th

7. The President of India can be removed fromhis office only on the ground of—(A) Proved misbehaviour(B) Incapability

(C) Violating the Constitutions(D) Disobedience of the Parliament

8. The 52nd Amendement of the Constitutionmade in 1985 added ‘Tenth Schedule’. Itpertains to—(A) Panchayati Raj

(B) North-Eastern States

(C) Disqualification on ground of defection

(D) Extension of Reservation provisions

9. ‘Lakshya’ which was recently inducted intothe Indian Defence System is a—(A) Surface to air missile

(B) Missile firing Submarine

(C) Multi-barrel rocket system

(D) Pilotless target aircraft

10. Under the National Rural Employment Gua-rantee Programme the concerned rural house-holds are to be given job cards by—(A) Gram Panchayat(B) Gram Vikas Adhikari(C) Block Development Officer(D) Kshettra Panchayat

11. Which of the following is NOT the right of achild ?(A) The Child’s inherent rights of life(B) The Child’s right to own property(C) The right of a child to education(D) The right of a child to social security

12. In India Service Tax is collected by—

(A) Trade Tax Department

(B) Income Tax Department

(C) Customs and Central Excise Department

(D) Nationalized Banks

13. Which one of the following ports is NOTclassified under ‘major’ ports in India ?(A) Pondicherry (B) Cochin(C) Paradip (D) Vishakhapatnam

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14. Which of the following are taken into consi-deration by the Finance Commission of Indiain the distribution of resources between theCentre and the State ?1. Tax sharing2. Grant-in-aid3. Debt relief4. Relief for natural calamitiesSelect the correct answer from the codesgiven below—

Codes :(A) 1 and 2 (B) 1, 2 and 3(C) 1, 2 and 4 (D) All of the four

15. Which one of the following has NOTbeen the part of land reforms programme inIndia ?

(A) Consolidation of Holdings

(B) Agriculture Holding Tax

(C) Removal of Zamindari system

(D) Maximum limit of land holdings

16. In International trade India’s largest tradingpartner (exports and imports) is—(A) European Union (B) U.S.A.(C) Japan (D) U.A.E.

17. Which one of the following crops is of Kharifseason ?(A) Soyabean (B) Linseed(C) Lentil (D) Mustard

18. Fruit most suitable for making Jelly is—(A) Papaya (B) Karunda(C) Mango (D) Banana

19. Name the elements used in household deter-gents and identified as the chief factor forpollution of rivers and lakes—

(A) Phosphorus (B) Nitrogen

(C) Potassium (D) Sulphur

20. Cassini space probe has spotted two newmoons around which of the planet of the SolarSystem ?

(A) Mars (B) Jupiter

(C) Pluto (D) Saturn

21. UN General Assembly has launched year2008 as—(A) International Year of Rice

(B) International Year of Potato(C) International Year of Water(D) None of these

22. Nobel Prize in Physics for 2007 has been wonby—(A) Gerhard Estl(B) Albert Arnold (Al) Gore Jr.(C) Doris Lessing(D) Albert Fert and Peter Grunberg

23. The 5th Military World Games 2011 will beheld at—(A) Brazil (B) Italy(C) India (D) Croatia

24. The Man Booker Prize 2 0 0 7 has beenawarded to—(A) Nicola Barker (B) Mohsin Hamid(C) Anne Enright (D) Lloyd Jones

25. The Chairman of the 13th FinanceCommission is—(A) Indira Rajaraman(B) Vijay L. Kelkar(C) Atul Sharma(D) Abusaleh Shariff

Directions—(Q. 26 to 30) Read the follow-ing passage carefully and answer the questionsgiven below it—

Ants seems to be able to do everything butthink when an individual ant is subjected to anykind of intelligence test it generally comes out ofit rather badly. An ant has very little individualand is not beset by any anti-social urges. There areno counterparts of police in an ant’s nest becausethere would be nothing for them to do. Any foodan ant finds is shared, and it will unhesitatinglysacrifice its life if the nest is threatened. All thework it does is done for the community. Theamazing industry and selflessness of ant hasexcited the admiration of man since the time ofSolomon.

26. The individual ant generally comes out of theintelligence test badly because—

(A) It is not used to tests

(B) It is bad at taking tests

(C) It is not equipped to think

(D) It has examination fear

Judge (JD) | 5

27. There is no police in an ant’s nest because—(A) They are friendly creatures by nature(B) They never harm other ants or create

problems(C) They do nothing at all, all day long(D) They are harmful creatures

28. Ants are different from human beings becauseunlike the human beings they—(A) Are peace loving and generous(B) Have minds of their own(C) Are anti-social(D) Have their own industries

29. The passage tells about—(A) Ants (B) Cats(C) Horses (D) None of these

30. Ants seems to be able to do ............... butthink.(A) Everything (B) Nothing(C) All things (D) How many things

Directions—(Q. 31–35) Choose the MOSTOPPOSITE word out of four responses givenbelow each of the questions—

31. NOVICE(A) Persecute (B) Soothe(C) Expert (D) Dullard

32. DIFFUSE(A) Dispersed (B) Loose(C) Rambling (D) Concentrated

33. INFLEXIBLE(A) Firm (B) Fixed(C) Stiff (D) Yielding

34. FASCINATE(A) Willing (B) Proclivity(C) Speculation (D) Dislike

35. CHICANERY(A) Truthfulness (B) Regard(C) Criticise (D) Refuse

Directions—(Q. 36–40) Pick out the wordwhich is MOST NEARLY the same in meaningas the word or group of words given in bold typesand capital letters—

36. FRAGILE(A) Durable (B) Robust(C) Tough (D) Breakable

37. EMINENT(A) Ordinary (B) Inferior(C) Famous (D) Unknown

38. CURSE(A) Bad (B) Wrong(C) Misfortune (D) Look

39. ANXIOUS(A) Pain (B) Hopeless(C) Will (D) Worried

40. PENANCE(A) Labour (B) Sacrifice(C) Work (D) Strain

Directions—(Q. 41–45) Fill in the blank withsuitable words given in the choices—

41. Rima has been waiting here for her teacher …three weeks.(A) for (B) from(C) since (D) on

42. Veena is married … Mr. Thakur.(A) with (B) at(C) between (D) to

43. At a party he is always ….(A) in high spirits (B) in low spirits(C) in a jiffy (D) in the mire

44. The … government at the centre will not lastlong.(A) collusion (B) collision(C) coalition (D) coloration

45. Wine is made in a ….(A) Brewery (B) Bakery(C) Factory (D) Wardrobe

46. Feminine of ‘colt’ is—(A) Coltess (B) Roe(C) Bee (D) Filly

47. Plural of ‘Louse’ is—(A) Louses (B) Lice(C) Lousee (D) Leese

48. Spot the mis-spelt word—(A) Vivacious (B) Obliterate(C) Meaness (D) Hilarious

49. ‘To bite the dust’ means—(A) Return to home(B) Connected to the base

6 | Judge (JD)

(C) To be defeated(D) Receive applause

50. Give one word for the following :Open rebellion against authority

(A) Bellicose (B) Mutiny(C) Zenith (D) Theism

51. A person shall be eligible to be appointed asan Additional Public Prosecutor only if he hasbeen in practice as an advocate for not lessthan—(A) Five (B) Six(C) Seven (D) Threeyears.

52. The Central Government or the State Govern-ment may appoint for the purposes of anycase or class of cases, a person who has beenin practice as advocate for not less than—(A) Five (B) Seven(C) Eight (D) Tenyears as a Special Public Prosecutor.

53. The Court of a Magistrate of first class maypass a sentence of imprisonment for a termnot exceeding—(A) Three years (B) Five years(C) Seven years (D) Four years

54. The Court of a Magistrate of the second classmay pass a sentence of fine not exceeding—

(A) One thousand (B) Three thousand

(C) Five thousand (D) Ten thousand

rupees.

55. If a person in lawful custody escapes, theperson from whose custody he escaped may,immediately pursue and arrest him—

(A) Within local limits of the police stationconcerned

(B) Within local limits of the district(C) Within local limits of the state(D) In any place in India

56. In proceeding under Section 107 of Code ofCriminal Procedure an Executive Magistratemay require to execute a bond for keepingpeace for such period, not exceeding—(A) One year (B) Two years(C) Three years (D) Six months

as the Magistrate thinks fit.

57. In reference of information relating to thecommission of a cognizable offence, which ofthe following statements is not correct ?

(A) It may be given orally to an officerincharge of a police station

(B) It is reduced to writing by or under thedirection of the officer incharge of thepolice station

(C) Information reduced to writing is to besigned by the person giving it

(D) Copy of information cannot be given,free of cost, to the informant

58. Any person, who has accepted a tender ofpardon made under Section 306 or Section307, has, either by willfully concealinganything essential or by giving false evidence,not complied with the condition on which thetender was made. Who will certify this fact ?

(A) District Magistrate

(B) Sessions Judge

(C) Public Prosecutor

(D) Chief Judicial Magistrate

59. When the person who would otherwise becompetent to compound an offence underSection 320 of Code of Criminal Procedure isdead, then—

(A) Offence cannot be compounded

(B) Offence can be compounded by any ofthe eye-witnesses

(C) Legal representative of such person cancompound the offence without the con-sent of the Court

(D) Legal representative of such person cancompound the offence with the consentof the Court

60. At any time before the Judgement is pronoun-ced, prosecution of any person may be with-drawn with the consent of the Court by—

(A) On whose instance first informationreport was recorded

(B) Investigating officer of the case

(C) Public Prosecutor or Assistant PublicProsecutor incharge of the case

(D) Person aggrieved by the offence

61. Magistrate by whom the case is heard mayaward such compensation, not exceeding—

Jharkhand Civil Judge Junior Division(Munsif) Preliminary Exam.

Publisher : Upkar Prakashan ISBN : 9788174826534 Author : Dr. Sharma &Misra

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