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CIVIL SERVICES APTITUDE TEST – 2015
DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO
TEST BOOKLET SERIES
TEST BOOKLETCivil Services Aptitude Test (CSAT)
General Studies
(Paper-II)
Time Allowed : Two Hours Maximum Marks : 200
INSTRUCTIONS
1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT
THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS,
ETC., IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.
2. ENCODE CLEARLY THE TEST BOOKLET SERIES
CODE A, B, C OR D AS THE CASE MAY BE IN THE
APPROPRIATE PLACE IN THE ANSWER SHEET.
3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test Booklet
in the Box provided alongside this line. DO NOT write
anything else on the Test Booklet.
4. This Test Booklet contains 80 items (questions). Each question is printed both in Hindi and English. Each
item comprises four responses (answers). You will select the respose which you want to mark on the Answer
Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you considerthe best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.
5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in the
Answer sheet.
6. All items carry equal marks.
7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test Booklet, you have
to ll in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your admission certicate.
8. After you have completed lling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and examination has concluded,
you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet . You are permitted to take away with you
the Test Booklet.
9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.
10. Penalty for wrong answers:
THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVETYPE QUESTION PAPERS.
(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong
answer has been given by the candidate, One-Third of the marks assigned to that question will be
deducted as penalty.
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the
given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question.
(iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that
question.
DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO
è;ku nsa % vuq ns'kks a dk fgUnh :ikUrj bl iqfLrdk ds fiNys i` "B ij Nik gSA
Test Code:DC-1500
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Directions for the following 7 (Seven) items: Read the
following two passages and answer the items that follow
each passage. Your answers to these items should be
based on the passages Only.
PASSAGE–1
This strategy of intensied acquisition of equity
oil has also met with considerable scepticism from
international oil market analysts. They argue that
overseas investments are unlikely to shelter countries
from oil market volatility. They argue that equity
investments by China (or India) in distant producing
elds in Africa, Latin America, or West Asia are not
likely to improve the physical security of energy
supply. Whether purchased in the open market, or produced by its national oil companies, they will have
to effectively pay the world market price either directly
or in foregone revenues if China were to ship every
barrel of equity oil back home. In fact, according to
industry press reports, most of the oil currently
produced by Chinese oil companies abroad is not
shipped back to China, but instead it is sold in markets
closer to production.
Crude oil is fungible and the market for this
commodity is globally integrated. Due to the laws ofsupply and demand, any oil that is pumped from the
earth and added to the world market will increase
supply relative to demand and tend to have a downward
effect on price. Any increase in demand relative to
supply would tend to push prices upward. Even if
national oil companies continue their acquisition
strategy, it is very unlikely that they would be
successful in satisfying demand or insulate its economy
through their acquisitions and will continue to be
affected by the world market like other countries.
They also argue that in their rush to stake claims
around the world, Chinese and Indian companies accept
terms that would often not be considered commercially
viable for the oil majors, who base their investment
criteria assuming a long-term average price of oil at
between $20-30 per barrel. If oil continues selling for
$50-60 per barrel, these assets may be an advantage,
but if prices drop considerably, the results could be
quite painful.
1. Why oil market analysts are not very much excited
about acquisition strategy of oil companies?
1. Volatility of oil market.
2. Wrong assumption of Crude Oil Prices.
3. Since, Crude oil is a rare commodity.
4. Acquisition or any investment abroad may not
help in achieving domestic demands.
Select the correct answers from the codes given
below:
(a) 2 and 4 only (b) 1 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) All 1, 2, 3 and 4.
2. According to the passage, how inherent nature of
laws of supply and demand affect the Chinese (or
Indian) oil companies?
1. As demand and supply are not co-relative.
2. Demand relative to supply is directly
proportional to the price.
3. Supply relative to demand is indirectly
proportional to the price.
Select the correct answers from the codes given
below:
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only (d) All 1, 2 and 3.
3. Which of the following can act as a rm advice for
Chinese and Indian oil companies?
(a) Explore oil resources domestically.
(b) Aggressive buying or acquisition should be
given a second thought.
(c) Explore crude oil abroad but sell it domestically.
(d) None of the above.
2641, First Floor, Mukherjee Nagar, Delhi-09Cont.: 011-47532596, (+91) 8130392354-56-57-58-59
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fuEufyf[kr 7 (lkr) iz'uka'kks a ds fy, funsZ 'k% fuEufyf[kr
nks x|ka'kksa dks ifku ns [kus dks feyrk gSA vxj jk"Vª h; da ifu;k¡ viuhvfèkxz g.k j.kuhfr dks tkjh j[krh gS a rc Hkh bl ckr dh cgq r gh
de la Hkkouk gS fd os eka x dks iw jk djus es a liQy gks ik,¡ xh vFkokviuh vfèkxz g.k uhfr ls vFkZ O;oLFkk dks cpk ik,¡xh vkS j vU;
ns 'kks a dh rjg yxkrkj fo'o ck”kkj ls çHkkfor gksrh jgsa xhA
mudk ;g Hkh ekuuk gS fd nqfu;k Hkj es a viuk gd trkus ds pDdj esa phuh vkS j Hkkjrh; dEifu;k¡ ,slh 'krs Z a Lohdkj dj ys rh gSa ftUgsa O;kolkf;d n`f"V ls rs y mRikndks a ds fy, O;ogk;Z ugha ekuk tkrk] tks nh?kkZ ofèkd n`f"V ls rsy dh vkSlr dher
dks $50–60 ls $20–30 çfr cS jy ekudj viuh fuos 'k :ijs[kk rS;kj djrs gSa A vxj rs y dh fcØh fuja rj $50–60 çfr cS jy jgrh gS rks ;s ifjlaifÙk;k¡ ykHkçn gks ldrh gSa ] ysfdu vxj dherks a es a cM+ h fxjkoV vkbZ rks blds ifj.kke d"Vnk;h gks ldrs gS a A
1- rs y da ifu;ks a dh vfèkxzg.k uhfr dks ys dj rs y ck”kkj ds
fo'ys "kd cgqr vfèkd mRlq d D;ks a ugha gSa \
1- rsy ck”kkj dh vfLFkjrk ds dkj.kA
2- dPps rs y dh dherksa dks ys dj xyr èkkj.kk ds
dkj.kA
3- D;ks afd dPpk rs y ,d nq yZHk oLrq gSA
4- vfèkxzg.k vFkok fons 'k es a fd;k x;k dks bZ Hkh fuos 'k
?kjs yw ekax dks iw jk djus esa lgk;d ugha gks ldsxkA
uhps fn, x, dw Vksa es a ls lgh mÙkj dk p;u djs a%
(a) dsoy 2 vkS j 4 (b) ds oy 1 vkSj 4
(c) dsoy 1, 2 vkS j 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 vkS j 4 lHkhA
2- x|ka 'k ds vuq lkj] eka x vkS j vkiwfrZ ds fu;eksa dh va rfuZ fgr
çÑfr phuh (vFkok Hkkjrh;) rs y da ifu;ks a dks fdl çdkj
çHkkfor djrh gS\
1- D;ks afd ekax vkS j vkiw frZ ijLij&laca fèkr ugha gSa A
2- vkiw frZ ds lkis{k ekax dher ds lekuq ikrh gks rh gSA
3- ekax ds lkis{k vkiwfrZ dher ds O;qRØekuqikrh
gks rh gSA
uhps fn, x, dw Vksa es a ls lgh mÙkj dk p;u djs a %
(a) dsoy 1 vkS j 3 (b) ds oy 2 vkSj 3
(c) dsoy 1 vkS j 2 (d) 1, 2 vkSj 3 lHkhA
3- fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkS u&lh phuh vkSj Hkkjrh; daifu;ksa ds
fy, ,d Bksl lykg gks ldrh gS\
(a) ?kjs yw Lrj ij gh rs y la lkèkuks a dh [kks t djsa A
(b) mxz [kjhnnkjh vFkok vfèkxzg.k ij nksckjk fopkj
fd;k tkuk pkfg,A
(c) dPps rsy dks fons'k esa [kks ts a vkS j ?kjs yw Lrj ij
bldh fcØh djsa A
(d) mi;q ZDr esa ls dks bZ ughaA
3641, çFke ry] MkW - eq[kthZ uxj] fnYyh&9 iQksu : 011-47532596, (+91) 8130392354-56-57-58-59
bZ&es y : [email protected], os c : www.drishtiias.com, is Qlcq d : https://www.facebook.com/drishtithevisionfoundation Copyright – Drishti The Vision Foundation
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PASSAGE–2
More recent approaches to structural change view
economic growth as a process of transformation and not
convergence to a steady state growth path. Technological
changes are seen to lie at the heart of economic growthas they provide the incentives for capital accumulation
to drive efciency and yield the benets of increasing
returns to scale. The evolution of the industrial structure
should involve technological sophistication and up
gradation, which generates a premium for aggregate
productivity growth in the manufacturing sector. This
means that economic growth is characterized by the
creation of high tech industries and the replacement of
old industries. The former drives growth processes by
accelerating the pace at which output, employment and
productivity in the economy grow.Increasingly, development practitioners and
policymakers recognize that economic development
requires continuous diversifying and upgrading from
existing sectors/industries to new high productivity
ones. Convergence in labor productivity at the sector
and industry level is seen as an important aspect of
growth. The catching up process in manufacturing
results from technology transfer and is a key driver of
rapid productivity growth. Within manufacturing,
convergence is more rapid in technology- and
knowledge-intensive modern sectors rather than in primary and traditional sectors; it appears to be least
rapid in low technology intensive textiles and clothing
sectors and most rapid in sectors that are technology
intensive. Technology and knowledge intensive sectors/
industries produce tradable goods and can be rapidly
integrated into global production networks, facilitating
technology transfer and absorption. Even when they
produce just for the home market, they operate under
competitive threat from efcient suppliers from abroad,
requiring that they upgrade their operations and remain
efcient. If, instead poor economies get their resources
stuck in traditional agriculture, selected non-tradable
services, and especially informal economic activities,
the forces of convergence may be blunted or failed
entirely. The lack of productivity growth and the lack of
structural change can thus reinforce each other trapping
the economy in a low growth trajectory.
Structural change should therefore remove constraints
from productivity growth. When labor and other resources
move from less productive to more productive activities,
economy grows even if there is no productivity growth
within sectors. 4. According to passage, how knowledge intensive
modern sectors will be benecial for economic
growth?
1. It helps in production of those goods that can
be sell in the global market.
2. It helps in bringing competition from abroad.
3. It brings new technology and eventually
productivity growth.
Select the correct answer from the codes given
below: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) Only 1
5. Structural change in the Economic Growth can be
viewed as–
(a) Clearing obstacles in the path of productivity
growth.
(b) Avoiding agriculture and other least productive
sectors.
(c) Increasing labour productivity.
(d) Technological upgradation in primary andtraditional sectors.
6. According to passage, what is/are the benet/benets
of convergence of technologies in manufacturing
sector?
1. High productive growth.
2. Industries understanding the importance of
being technologically efcient.
3. Bringing new changes in low technological
industries like textile and clothing.
Select the correct answers from the codes given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 2 and 3 only
4641, First Floor, Mukherjee Nagar, Delhi-09Cont.: 011-47532596, (+91) 8130392354-56-57-58-59
E-mail: [email protected], Website: www.drishtiias.com, Facebook : https://www.facebook.com/drishtithevisionfoundation
Copyright – Drishti The Vision Foundation
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x|ka'k&2
lajpukRed ifjorZu ds vfèkdka'k gkfy;k mikxe vkfFkZ d fodkl dks :ikarj.k dh çfØ;k ds :i es a ns[krs gS a u fd fLFkj fodkl iFk dh vksj >qdko ds :i esa A çkS |ks fxdh; ifjorZ uksa dks vkfFkZd fodkl dk ân; ekuk tkrk gS D;ks afd os n{krk dks c
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7. What is the essential message of the passage?
(a) Evolution of Technology in the Manufacturing
Sector.
(b) Transforming production capacity through
different sets of technology. (c) By means of technology, shifting from
Agriculture and non-tradeable services to the
high productive growth industry.
(d) Bringi ng produc tive growth through
technological advancement.
8. There are 5 boxes and each box contains 5 balls of
different colours. i.e. Red, Yellow, White, Orange
and Black. A person wants to pick 5 balls of different
colours, a different coloured ball from each box. If
from the rst box in the rst draw, he has drawn anorange ball and from the second box, he has drawn
a red ball, nd the maximum number of trials that
are needed to be made by the person to accomplish
his task if a ball picked is not replaced?
(a) 12 (b) 11
(c) 20 (d) 60
9. There are two pipes, one having a larger diameter
and the other having a smaller diameter. If one pipe
takes 3 minutes more than the other to ll the cistern,
then nd the time taken by the larger diameter pipe
to ll the cistern, if together they can ll the cistern
in1
313
minutes.
(a) 8 minutes (b) 5 minutes
(c) 10 minutes (d) 7 minutes
10.HIGHWAYA B HIGHWAY C
Three villages A, B and C lie on an highway. There
are 5 more routes connecting A to B, 4 more routesconnecting B to C and 2 more routes connecting
A to C. In how many ways a person can go from
B to C?
(a) 20 (b) 17
(c) 30 (d) 22
11. If selling price is doubled, then prot tripled. Find
the prot percent.
(a)2
663
(b) 100
(c) 11053
(d) 120
12. Police ofcers of a particular batch are preparing
for a drill and are made to stand in different rows.
If 4 ofcers are extra in each row, then there would
be 2 rows less. But there would be 4 more rows if 4
ofcers are less in each row. Find the number of
ofcers in the batch?
(a) 96 (b) 56
(c) 69 (d) 65
13. When political establishments fail, institutions stop
working and various democratic organizations lost
their value then military may supersede the political
parties and take functioning of governance in their
hand. But, mentioned fact is not the only proper
reason for military takeover of government, there
are some hidden motives as well.
In the context of failure of political establishment
and subsequent military intervention in government,
which of the following assumption is correct?(a) Political establishments do not produced the
effective and desired results.
(b) Military rule is the best alternative if political
establishments do not work in a proactive
manner.
(c) Though military can interfere if political
establishment fail, but military intervention is
often question marked as well.
(d) None of these.
14. The number of deaths due to Ebola virus in Western
Africa is 8000 out of 20,000 cases that were reported,
but in other parts of Africa mortality rate due to
Ebola virus is quite low. Which one of the following
inference can be drawn from the statement?
(a) Quality of life is far better in other parts of
Africa rather than Western Africa.
6641, First Floor, Mukherjee Nagar, Delhi-09Cont.: 011-47532596, (+91) 8130392354-56-57-58-59
E-mail: [email protected], Website: www.drishtiias.com, Facebook : https://www.facebook.com/drishtithevisionfoundation
Copyright – Drishti The Vision Foundation
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7- x|ka 'k dk vR;ko';d lUns 'k D;k gS\ (a) fofuekZ .k {ks=k esa çkS|ks fxdh; fodklA (b) çkS |ks fxdh dh fofHkUu Jsf.k;ks a ds ekè;e ls mRiknu
{kerk dk :ika rj.k djukA (c) çkS |ksfxdh ds ekè;e ls Ñf"k ,oa xS j&O;kikj;ksX;
lsokvks a ls mPp mRikndrk o` f¼ okys m|ks xks a esa LFkkukarj.kA
(d) çkS|ksfxdh; fodkl ds ekè;e ls mRikndrk o ̀f¼ ykukA
8- 5 ckWDl gSa vkS j mues a ls gj ckWDl esa vyx&vyx ja x dh 5 xsa ns a gSa ] tS ls yky] ihyh] liQsn] ukja xh vkSj dkyhA ,d O;fDr çR;sd ckW Dl ls ,d fHkUu ja x dh xsa n ys djvyx&vyx jax dh 5 xs ansa fudkyuk pkgrk gSA ;fn igyh
gh ckj es a mlus igys ckW Dl ls ,d ukjaxh jax dh xs an fudkyh gks vkS j nw ljs ckWDl ls yky ja x dh xsa n fudkyh gksA ;fn ,d ckj esa pq uh xbZ xs an cnyh u tk, rks ml O;fDr dks viuk dk;Z iw jk djus ds fy, vfèkdre fdrus ç;klksa dh vko';drk gksxh\
(a) 12 (b) 11
(c) 20 (d) 60
9- nks ikbi gS a] ftues a ls ,d dk O;kl vfèkd gS tcfd nwljs dk deA ;fn ,d ikbi ikuh dh Vadh dks iw jk Hkjus
esa nw ljs ikbi ls 3 feuV vfèkd le; ysrk gS rks vfèkd O;kl okys ikbi }kjk Va dh dks Hkjus es a yxus okyk le;
Kkr dhft,] ;fn nksuks a ikbi feydj Vadh dks 1313 feuV
esa Hkjrs gks aA (a) 8 feuV (b) 5 feuV (c) 10 feuV (d) 7 feuV
10. jktekxZA B jktekxZ C
,d jktekxZ ij rhu xk¡ o A, B vkS j C iM+rs gS aA buesa ls
A ls B dk s vkil es a tks M+us okys 5 vkS j Hkh jkLrs gSa ] ,s ls gh B ls C dks tks M+ us okys 4 rFkk A ls C dks tksM+us okys 2 vkS j jkLrs gS aA dks bZ O;fDr B ls C rd fdrus jkLrks a ls gksdj tk ldrk gS\
(a) 20 (b) 17
(c) 30 (d) 22
11- ;fn foØ; ew Y; nqxuk gks tk,] rks ykHk rhu xquk gks tkrk gSA ykHk çfr'kr Kkr dhft,A
(a)2
663
(b) 100
(c) 11053
(d) 120
12- fdlh cSp ds iqfyl vfèkdkfj;ksa dks O;k;ke gs rq fofHkUu iafDr;ks a esa [kM+ k fd;k x;k gSA ;fn çR;s d iafDr es a 4vfèkdkjh vfèkd gks a rks 2 ia fDr;k¡ de gksa xhA ysfdu ;fn çR;s d ia fDr es a 4 vfèkdkjh de gksa rks 4 iafDr;k¡ vkSj gks axhA crkb, fd cS p esa dqy fdrus iqfyl vfèkdkjh gSa \
(a) 96 (b) 56
(c) 69 (d) 65
13- tc jktuhfrd ra =k vliQy gks tkrk gS] la LFkk,¡ dk;Z djuk ca n dj nsrh gSa vkSj fofHkUu yksdrka f=kd laxBuvius ewY; [kks ns rs gS a rks ,sls es a ls uk jktuhfrd nyks a dk LFkku ys dj 'kklu dh dk;Z ç.kkyh dks vius gkFk es a ys ldrh gSA ys fdu dsoy mfYyf[kr rF; gh lsuk }kjk ljdkj dks vius fu;a=k.k es a ys us dk mi;qDr dkj.k ugha gS] blds ihNs dq N vUrfuZfgr vfHkçsjd Hkh gS aA
jktuhfrd ra=k ds vliQy gksus vkS j iQyLo:i lsuk }kjk ljdkj es a gLr{ksi djus ds lanHkZ esa fuEufyf[kr es a ls dkS u&lh iw oZ èkkj.kk lgh gS\
(a) jktuhfrd ra =k çHkko'kkyh ,oa vis f{kr ifj.kke çnku ugha djrkA
(b) ;fn jktuhfrd ra =k igydkjh
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(b) Ebola Virus is more prevalent in Western Africa
compared to other regions of Africa.
(c) Those two regions cannot be compared to each
other.
(d) Western Africa is not prepared to handle theEpidemic of Ebola Virus.
15. "More people have lost their lives due to accidents
on highway compared to some law and order crisis".
Which of the following conclusion can we draw from
the above statement?
(a) Law and order crisis is not a bigger problem
any more.
(b) Law and order maintenance authorities are
more skilled than vehicle drivers. (c) There is no law and order mechanism on
highways.
(d) It is improper to generalize these two different
cases.
16.
The Shaded gure can be represented as:
(a) (Q ∪ R) – (Q ∩ R)
(b) (Q ∪ R) – (P∩ Q ∩ R)
(c) (Q ∪ R) – [(P ∩ (Q ∩ R)]
(d) None of these.
17. Six playing cards are lying face down on the table.
Two and only two of them are kings, but you do not
know the positions of kings. You pick two cards atrandom and turn them face up.
Which of the following is most likely to happen–
(1) At least one king among the two cards.
(2) No king among the two cards.
(3) Both kings among the two cards.
Select the correct answer from the given options–
(a) Occurrence of (1) is more than (2) and (3).
(b) Occurrence of (2) is more than (1) and (3).
(c) Occurrence of (3) is more than (1) and (2). (d) Occurrence of both (1) and (3) will be same.
18. If a cricket ball weighs 105 gm plus half its own
weight, how much does it weigh?
(a) 157.5 gm (b) 210 gm
(c) 190 gm (d) 180 gm
19. A Hexagon is a six-sided gure. A diagonal is a line
segment connecting any two non-adjacent vertices
(as shown is the gure). How many diagonals are
possible?
Diagonal
(a) 18 (b) 729
(c) 10 (d) 9
20. “If I am going to run the marathon, then I will buy
new shoes. If I buy new shoes, I will not buy a
television.”
Based on above statement, which of the following
argument would be valid?
(a) If I do not buy a television, then i will run the
marathon.
(b) If I do not buy a television, then I will buy new
shoes.
(c) If I buy a television, then I will not run the
marathon.
(d) If I buy a television, then I will run the
marathon.
8641, First Floor, Mukherjee Nagar, Delhi-09Cont.: 011-47532596, (+91) 8130392354-56-57-58-59
E-mail: [email protected], Website: www.drishtiias.com, Facebook : https://www.facebook.com/drishtithevisionfoundation
Copyright – Drishti The Vision Foundation
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(b) viz Qhdk ds vU; fgLlks a dh vis{kk if'peh viz Qhdk esa bcks yk ok;jl dk çdksi dkiQh vfèkd gSA
(c) bu nks uks a {ks =kksa dh vkil es a dks bZ rqyuk ugha dh tk ldrh gSA
(d) bcks yk ok;jl dh egkekjh ls fuiVus ds fy, if'pehviz Qhdk rS ;kj ugha gSA
15- ¶dkuwu ,oa O;oLFkk dh leL;k dh vis{kk jktekxks± ij gks us okyh nq ?kZ Vukvks a ds dkj.k yks x vfèkd tkus a xa okrs gS a A¸
mi;qZ Dr dFku ls fuEufyf[kr es a ls dkS u&lk fu"d"kZ çkIr fd;k tk ldrk gS\
(a) dkuwu ,oa O;oLFkk dks bZ cgqr cM+h leL;k ugha gSA (b) okgu pkydks a dh vis{kk dkuwu ,oa O;oLFkk çcaèku
çkfèkdkjh vfèkd n{k gSa A
(c) jktekxks± ij dks bZ dkuwu ,oa O;oLFkk ra =k ekStwn gh ugha gSA
(d) bu nks fHkUu&fHkUu ekeyksa dks lkekU;hÑr djukvuqi;qDr gSA
16.
Nk;kafdr vkÑfr dks bl :i es a iz nf'kZ r fd;k tk ldrk gS% (a) (Q ∪ R) – (Q ∩ R)
(b) (Q ∪ R) – (P∩ Q ∩ R)
(c) (Q ∪ R) – [(P ∩ (Q ∩ R)]
(d) bues a ls dksbZ ughaA
17. N% rk'k ds iÙks ,d es t ij iM+s gS a] ftuds eq [ki`"B uhps dh vksj gSa A mues a ls ds oy nks ckn'kkg gSa ] ys fdu vkidks ;s irk ugha gS fd ckn'kkg okys iÙks dkSu&ls gS aA vki
;kn ̀fPNd
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Directions for the following 8 (Eight) items: Read the
following two passages and answer the items that follow
each passage. Your answers to these items should be
based on the passages Only.
PASSAGE–1
The Himalayan ecosystem is fragile and diverse. It
includes over 51 million people who practice hill
agriculture and remains vulnerable. The Himalayan
ecosystem is vital to the ecological security of the
Indian landmass, through providing forest cover,
feeding perennial rivers that are the source of drinking
water, irrigation, and hydropower, conserving
biodiversity, providing a rich base for high value
agriculture, and spectacular landscapes for sustainable
tourism.
The Himalayan ecosystem is vulnerable and
susceptible to the impacts and consequences of (a)
changes on account of natural causes, (b) climate
change resulting from anthropogenic emissions and (c)
developmental paradigms of the modern society.
The Himalayas house one of the largest resources
of snow and ice and its glaciers which form a source
of fresh water for the perennial rivers such as the Indus,
the Ganga, and the Brahmaputra. Glacial melt may
impact their long-term lean season ows, with adverse
impacts on the economy in terms of water availabilityand hydropower generation. Recession of Himalayan
glaciers will pose a major danger to the country.
Currently available data gathered by multiples of
institutions without a coordinated effort do not indicate
systematic trends of recession of Himalayan glaciers.
The National Action Plan on Climate Change
(NAPCC) Launched National Mission for Sustaining
the Himalayan Ecosystem. The Mission needs to
deliver better understanding of the coupling between
the Himalayan ecosystem and the climate factors and
provides inputs for Himalayan Sustainable Developmentwhile addressing also the protection of a fragile
ecosystem. This will require the joint effort of
climatologists, glaciologists and other experts.
Exchange of information with the South Asian
countries and countries sharing the Himalayan ecology
will also be required. There is a need to establish an
observational and monitoring network for the
Himalayan environment to assess freshwater resources
and health of the ecosystem.
21. Primary objective of National Action Plan on
Climate Change can be met successfully if –
1. Climatologists, glaciologists and other experts
become indisputable in their theory of climate
change.
2. Environment becomes more sustainable
especially Himalayan ecosystem.
Select the correct answers from the codes given
below:
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
22. Fragility and Vulnerability of Himalayan Ecosystem
is due to –
1. Natural reasons.
2. Man-made activities.
3. Society, in general.
Select the correct answers from the codes given
below:
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) All 1, 2 and 3
23. According to passage, why and how melting ofglaciers poses some serious challenges to the Indian
landmass?
(a) Glacial melt will adversely impact the natural
water bodies of Indian landmass.
(b) Glacial melt will alter the biodiversity and
eventually affect the tourism.
(c) Glacial melt will change the ow of some
perennial rivers and affect the hydro-power
generation in Indian landmass also.
(d) Though glacial melt will have some adverse
impact on the ecosystem but we are yet to
ascertained it nally.
24. Preserving the natural biodiversity of Himalayan
Ecosystem is possible through the channels of –
1. Inter country scientific co-ordination for
Himalayan Ecology.
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fuEufyf[kr 8 (vkB) iz'uka'kksa ds fy, funsZ'k% fuEufyf[krnks x|ka'kksa dks if
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2. Protective mechanism and better understanding
of Himalayan ecosystem and climate impact
on it.
3. Pursuing developmental activities in
Himalayan Ecosystem but with adequatecaution.
Select the correct answers from the codes given
below:
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 2 only (d) All 1, 2 and 3
PASSAGE–2
Rural development is primarily concerned with
uplifting people out of poverty. The impact of globalization
on rural societies, there economy, environment must
therefore be viewed through this perspective.
Major aspects of globalization that are related to
rural life or its development include the commercialization
of agriculture and expansion of agro-industries,
liberlization of international trade and marketing for
food and other agricultural products, intensication
and internal labour migraton, increase in privatization
of resources, services and the wider use of information
and communicaton technologies. Thus, the wave of
globalization which hit India at the end of the last century
and it affected all spheres of life. Labour migration tocities from rural areas in search of employment was a
common phenomenon earlier. This was for various
reasons especially for luxurious life, handsome salary
and for numerous job opportunities. Similarly, earlier
there was a ‘minimum wage act’ and now equal wage
for all is provided due to the impact of globalisation.
Today the percentage of village people attending
the call of nature in open elds is reduced. The good
road infrastructure makes them successful to sale
agricultural products from villages to goods markets
in cities and towns. As a result they can earn good price
of their product. Life in rural India was miserable due
to non-availability of electricity. Several villages have
been elec tr if ied now. It is a big benefi t of rura l
development. Globalization is creating much difference
to rural life through electricity.
The impact of globalization on Indian urban and
rural life has a tremendous inuence which is both
positive as well as negative. The Indian urban and rural
life is viewed as the two faces of the same coin. They are
mutually interdependent and both shows a greaterimpact of globalization.
The impact of globalization on Indian rural economy
has given a new face to modern India. There is a rapid
and positive progress towards society. Globalization has
changed India as one of the global superpowers.
However, rural India must tread cautiously on the path
of globalization as its negative effects can prove to be
catastrophic.
25. Which of the following can be inferred as the
outcome of gloablization on rural India? 1. More options to sale various agriculture
products.
2. Improvement in quality of life.
3. Change in labour migration.
Select the correct answers from the codes given
below:
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 2 only (d) 2 and 3 only
26. Why author is showing some concern regarding
globalisation towards the end of the passage?
(a) Globalisation sometimes fails to achieve its
objective.
(b) Globalisation with all its welcoming outcomes
has some negative impacts as well.
(c) Globalisation may not pull people out of
poverty.
(d) Globalisation has changed India but not the
rural life and rural India.
27. Which of the following can be concluded as the
change from pre-globalization era to post-
globalization era?
1. Rural electrication.
2. Luxurious life.
3. Increase in technological facilities.
4. Low labour migration.
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2- fgeky;h ikfjra=k vkSj bl ij tyok;q ds çHkko dks csgrj us ds fy, lq j{kk ra =kA
3- fgeky;h ikfjra=k esa fodklh; xfrfofèk;ksa dks lapkfyr djuk] ys fdu i;kZ Ir lkoèkkuh ds lkFkA
uhps fn, x, dw Vksa es a ls lgh mÙkj dk p;u djsa % (a) dsoy 1 vkS j 3 (b) dsoy 2 (c) dsoy 1 vkS j 2 (d) 1, 2 vkSj 3 lHkhA
x|ka'k&2
xz keh.k fodkl dk la caèk çkFkfed :i ls yks xksa dks fuèkZ urk ls ckgj fudkyus ls gSA xz keh.k lektksa ] ogk¡ dh vFkZO;oLFkkvkSj i;kZoj.k ij oS 'ohdj.k ds çHkko dks Hkh blh ifjçs{; esa ns [kk tkuk pkfg,A
oS 'ohdj.k ds çeq[k igyw ftUgsa xz keh.k tu&thou ;k fiQj blds fodkl ds lkFk tksM+ k tkrk gS] muds varxZr Ñf"k ds okf.kT;hdj.k rFkk Ñf"k&m|ksxks a ds foLrkj] [kk| ,oa vU; Ñf"k mRiknks a ds fy, va rjkZ"Vª h; O;kikj ,oa foi.ku ds mnkjhdj.k] xgurk vkSj vkrafjd Je çolu] la lkèkuks a vkS j lsokvks a ds c
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Select the correct answers from the codes given
below:
(a) 1, 3 and 4 only (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 4 only (d) All 1, 2, 3 and 4
28. The author of this passage is most likely to agree
with which of the following?
(a) Globalization changes our perception about
rural India.
(b) Globalization is the solution to stop labour
migration from rural India.
(c) Modern India gets its new refined image
because of globalization.
(d) All of the above are correct.
Directions (Qs. 29-31):Answer the following questions
based on the information given below:
(i) A, B, C, D, E and F are six friends sitting in a row
to watch a movie.
(ii) E and A are immediate neighbor of C.
(iii) There are three persons between F and D.
(iv) B is fourth to the right of E.
(v) A is immediate neighbor of C and D.
29. Who is sitting at the extreme left end?
(a) E (b) B (c) C (d) F
30. Who is sitting to the right of D?
(a) B (b) C
(c) A (d) E
31. Between which of the following persons is E sitting?
(a) D and B (b) F and C
(c) F and A (d) C and A
32. Find the missing value.
5 56 9
7 72 11
9 ? 13
(a) 92 (b) 88
(c) 96 (d) 108
33. A college awarded 38 medals in volleyball, 15 in
hockey and 20 in football. These medals were
received by a total of 58 students and 3 students got
medals in all the three sports, how many students
received medals in exactly two of the three sports?
(a) 8 (b) 9
(c) 7 (d) 10
34. Five bells begin to toll together and toll respectively
at intervals of 5, 6, 7, 10 and 12 seconds. How many
times they will toll together in half an hour excluding
the one at the start.
(a) 7 times (b) 4 times
(c) 3 times (d) 5 times
35. There is a bucket which has to be lled with 10
stones and all stones are lying in the same line. The
bucket is placed 5 m. away from the rst stone and
the stones are 3 m away from each other. A person
starts from the bucket and pick the nearest stone,
runs back with it, drops it in the bucket, then again
run towards the nearest stone, picks it then runs back
with it and again drops in the bucket, in this way he
drops all the stones in the bucket, what is the total
distance he has to cover in this process?(a) 360
(b) 380
(c) 370
(d) None of these.
36. The population of bacteria culture doubles every 2
minutes. Approximately, how many minutes will it
take for the population to grow from 1000 to
5,00,000 bacterias?
(a) 10 (b) 12
(c) 14 (d) 18
Directions (Q.37 – 40): The following graph shows
the production cost of two commodities X and Y (in
thousand per year) from the year 1991 to 1996. Consider
the graph and answer the 4 questions that follows.
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uhps fn, x, dw Vksa es a ls lgh mÙkj dk p;u djsa % (a) dsoy 1, 3 vkS j 4 (b) dsoy 1 vkS j 3 (c) dsoy 2 vkS j 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 vkSj 4 lHkhA
28. bl x|ka'k dk ys[kd fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdlds lkFk lokZfèkd lger gks ldrk gS\ (a) oS 'ohdj.k us xz keh.k Hkkjr ds la caèk esa gekjh èkkj.kk
dks cny fn;k gSA (b) xz keh.k Hkkjr ls gksus okys çolu dks jksdus ds fy,
oS 'ohdj.k ,d lekèkku gSA (c) oS 'ohdj.k ds dkj.k gh vkèkqfud Hkkjr dks viuh
uohu ifj"Ñr Nfo çkIr gq bZ gSA (d) mi;q Z Dr lHkh lgh gSa A
funsZ 'k (ç-la - 29&31)% uhps nh xbZ lwpuk ds vkèkkj ij fuEufyf[kr ç'uksa ds mÙkj nhft,A (i) A, B, C, D, E vkSj F N% fe=k ,d ew oh ns[kus ds
fy, ,d iafDr es a cSBs gq, gS aA (ii) C ds lfUudV iM+ ks lh E vkS j A gS a A (iii) F vkSj D ds chp es a rhu yksx gS aA (iv) B, E ds nk,¡ ls pkSFkk gSA (v) C vkSj D dk lfUudV iM+kslh A gSA
29- ck;ha rjiQ lcls va r esa dkS u cSBk gS\ (a) E (b) B
(c) C (d) F
30- D ds nk;ha rjiQ dkSu cS Bk gS\ (a) B (b) C
(c) A (d) E
31- E fdu nks yks xks a ds chp es a cS Bk gq vk gS\ (a) D vkS j B (b) F vkS j C
(c) F vkSj A (d) C vkS j A
32.
foyq Ir la [;k Kkr dhft,A5 56 9
7 72 11
9 ? 13
(a) 92 (b) 88
(c) 96 (d) 108
33- ,d dkW ys t us okWyhckWy es a 38 esMy] gkWdh es a 15 esMyvkS j iQq VckW y es a 20 es My forfjr fd,A dq y 58 fo|kfFkZ ;ks a us ;s esMy çkIr fd,] tcfd bues a ls 3 fo|kfFkZ;ksa dks rhuks a gh [ks yksa esa esMy çkIr gq ,] fdrus fo|kfFkZ ;ks a dks bu rhuks a [ks yks a esa ls nks esa es My çkIr gq ,\
(a) 8 (b) 9
(c) 7 (d) 10
34- ik¡ p ?ka fV;k¡ ,d&lkFk ctuk 'kq: gksrh gS a vkS j Øe'k%5, 6, 7, 10 vkSj 12 ls ds aM ds varjky ij ctrh gS aA 'kq #vkr esa igyh ckj dks NksM+dj vkèks ?kaVs esa os fdruh ckj ,d&lkFk cts axh\
(a) 7 ckj (b) 4 ckj
(c) 3 ckj (d) 5 ckj 35- ,d Vksdjh esa nl iRFkj Hkjs tkus gSa ] tks ,d leku iafDr
esa iM+ s gq, gS aA Vksdjh dks igys iRFkj ls 5 ehVj nwj f[kldk fn;k tkrk gS] vkS j lHkh iRFkj vkil esa 3&3 ehVj dh nw jh ij gS aA ,d O;fDr Vksdjh ls 'kq : djds lcls fudV dk iRFkj mBkrk gS vkSj bls ys dj okil Vksdjh rd vkrk gS vkS j ml iRFkj dks Vks djh esa Mky ns rk gS] iqu% og lcls utnhdh iRFkj dks mBkrk gS vkSj mls Hkh ykdj Vks djh esa Mky ns rk gSA bl rjg og lHkh
iRFkjks a dks mBkdj Vksdjh es a Mkyrk gSA bl iwjh çfØ;k es a mls fdruh nwjh r; djuh iM+ h\ (a) 360
(b) 380
(c) 370
(d) bues a ls dksbZ ughaA
36- thok.kq vksa dh tula [;k gj nks feuV es a nq xq uh gks tkrh gSA thok.kq vksa dh la [;k dks 1000 ls 5,00,000 rd igq ¡pus esa yxHkx fdrus feuV yxsa xs\
(a) 10 (b) 12 (c) 14 (d) 18
funsZ 'k (ç-la - 37–40)% uhps fn, x, vkjs[k es a o"kZ 1991 ls 1996 rd nks enksa X vkS j Y dh mRiknu ykxr (gtkj çfro"kZ esa ) dks fn[kk;k x;k gSA vkjs[k dks è;ku ls ns[krs gq , uhps fn, x, 4 ç'uksa ds mÙkj nhft,A
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37. In which year the difference of the cost production
between X and Y is maximum?(a) 1991 (b) 1993
(c) 1994 (d) None of these.
38. In which year the prot of Y is maximum?
(a) 1996 (b) 1995
(c) 1992 (d) Cannot be determined.
39. Which commodity has shown a steady rise in the
cost?
(a) X (b) Y
(c) Both X and Y (d) None of these.
40. Which of the following pair of years has shown
the maximum increase and decrease respectively
for the commodity X?
(a) 1992 and 1993 (b) 1993 and 1994
(c) 1994 and 1995 (d) 1995 and 1996
41. On a straight road AB, 100 m long, ve balls are
placed two metres apart, rst ball is 2m from end A.
Now a worker, starting at A, has to transport all the
balls to B, by carrying only one ball at a time. The
minimum distance he has to travel (in metres) is:
(a) 472 (b) 422
(c) 744 (d) 844
42. Out of the given gures, except one all of the gures
make a proper sequence, which does not belong in
this sequence?
A
D
B
E
C
F
(a) D (b) B
(c) F (d) E
Directions: Given below is a statement followed by
two Assumptions. An assumption is something not written
directly but can be considered as the implicit understanding
before writing any text, document or writing. Choose the
implicit assumption in the following question:
43. Statement: It is a paradox that one country which
is full of potential, resources, opportunities and hope
is still suffering from abject poverty, class difference
and social inequality.
Assumptions: I. Nothing substantial has been
done to remove this paradox.
II. Possi bilit y of posit ive and
negative for one thing at the
same time implies a situation of
paradox.
Select the correct answer from the codes given
below:
(a) Only (I) is implicit.
(b) Only (II) is implicit.
(c) Both (I) and (II) are implicit.
(d) Neither (I) nor (II) is implicit.
44. “As price of crude oil increases, harmony among
nations decreases sharply.”. If this statement is
represented on a Mathematical curve, then which of
the following curve is correctly representing it?
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37- fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdl o"kZ X vkS j Y ds chp mRiknu
ykxr dk va rj vfèkdre jgk\ (a) 1991 (b) 1993
(c) 1994 (d) bues a ls dksbZ ughaA
38- fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdl o"kZ Y ij ykHk vfèkdre jgk\(a) 1996 (b) 1995
(c) 1992 (d) fuèkkZ fjr ugha fd;k tk ldrkA
39- fuEufyf[kr es a ls dkS u&lh en ykxr es a fLFkj ò f¼ dks n'kkZ rh gS\
(a) X (b) Y
(c) X vkS j Y nksuks a (d) bues a ls dksbZ ughaA
40- fuEufyf[kr es a ls o"kks ± dk dkS u&lk ;q Xe X en ds lUnHkZ es a Øe'k% vfèkdre ò f¼ vkS j vfèkdre deh dks çnf'kZ r djrk gS\
(a) 1992 o 1993 (b) 1993 o 1994 (c) 1994 o 1995 (d) 1995 o 1996
41- 100 ehVj ya ch ,d lM+d AB ij 2&2 ehVj dh nwjh ij ik¡ p xs anksa dks j[kk x;k gS] ftles a igyh xa sn Nksj A ls 2 ehVj dh nw jh ij gSA vc ,d Jfed dks bu lHkh xs anks a dks Nksj A ls B rd ys tkuk gS] ys fdu ,d ckj esa ds oy ,d dh xsa n dks ys tkuk gSA mls U;w ure fdruh nw jh (ehVj es a ) r; djuh gS\
(a) 472 (b) 422 (c) 744 (d) 844
42. uhps nh xbZ vkÑfr;ks a esa ls ,d dks NksM+dj 'ks "k lHkh ,d fuèkkZ fjr Øe cukrh gS a] fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkS u&lhvkÑfr bl Øe ls fHkUu gS\
A
D
B
E
C
F
(a) D (b) B
(c) F (d) E
funsZ'k% uhps ,d dFku vkS j mlds ckn nks iw oZ èkkj.kk,¡ nh xbZ gS a A fdlh iwoZèkkj.kk dks çR;{kr% rks ugha fy[kk tkrk gS ys fdu fdlh Hkh fo"k;oLrq ] nLrkos t vFkok ys[k dks fy[kus ls iw oZ bls ml fo"k; dh vUrfuZ fgr le> ekuk tk ldrk gSA fuEufyf[kr ç'u esa vUrfuZ fgr iwoZ èkkj.kk dk p;u djs aA
43. dFku : ;g ,d foMacuk gh gS fd ,d ns'k tks laHkkoukvksa ] lalkèkuksa ] voljksa vkS j mEehnks a ls Hkjiw j gS] og vHkh HkhHk;a dj xjhch] oxZ foHksnhdj.k vkS j lkekftd vlekurk ls ihfM+ r gSA
iwoZèkkj.kk,¡ : I. bl foMa cuk dks lekIr djus ds fy,
dks bZ Bksl mik; ugha fd;k x;kA II. ,d gh le; fdlh ckr ds
ldkjkRed vkSj udkjkRed gks us dh laHkkouk foMa cuk ds ,d i{k dks n'kkZrh gSA
uhps fn, x, dw Vks a es a ls lgh mÙkj dk p;u djs a% (a) dsoy (I) va rfuZ fgr gSA (b) dsoy (II) va rfuZ fgr gSA (c) (I) vkS j (II) nksuks a va rfuZfgr gSa A (d) u rks (I) u gh (II) va rfuZfgr gSA
44. ¶T;ks a&T;ksa dPps rsy dh dherksa esa o ̀f¼ gksrh gS] jk"Vª ks a ds eè; lkSgkæZ esa rsth ls deh vkrh gS¸A ;fn bl dFku dks ,d xf.krh; oØ ds ekè;e ls fn[kk;k tk, rks fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkS u&lk oØ bls lgh rjhds ls n'kkZ ,xk\
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(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Directions(Qs. 45-46): Five students P, Q, R, S and
T are sitting around a circular table facing the centre. Few
conditions are also given:
z 3 students are sitting between T and R.
z Q is not adjacent to T.
z R and P are neighbours.
45. Which of the following is correct?
I. R is immediate right to T.
II. There can be two or three persons between S
and P. Select the correct answer from the codes given
below:
(a) Only I
(b) Only II
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
46. Who all are neighbours?
(a) P and S (b) R and S
(c) R and T (d) All (a), (b) and (c).
Directions for the following 7 (Seven) items: Read the following two passages and answer the items that follow
each passage. Your answers to these items should be
based on the passages Only.
PASSAGE–1
Few people in America today sew all their own
clothes, grow all their own food, build their own
houses, or buy only products made in their own states.
It would cost too much and take too much time,especially since Americans can acquire such items
in the open market with relative ease. The same
pr inci ple of prac ti cal it y an d cos t app li es on an
international scale. It makes economic sense to buy
a product from another who specializes in such
production or who can make it more easily or for less
cost. Indeed, access to a greater variety of goods and
services is the purpose of trade.
Imports, then, are not a sacrice, a necessary evilfor the good of exporting. One exports so that one may
acquire goods and services in return. This logic is
evident on a personal level as well. A person works so
that he has the means to buy necessities and possibly
even luxuries. One does not make purchases in order
to justify working.
Free trade is the only type of truly fair trade
because it offers consumers the most choices and the
best opportunities to improve their standard of living.It fosters competition, spurring companies to innovate
and develop better products and to bring more of
their goods and services to market, keeping prices
low and quality high in order to retain or increase their
market share.
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(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
funsZ'k (iz-la- 45&46)% ik¡p Nk=k P, Q, R, S vkS j T ,d o`Ùkkdkj est ij ds a æ dh vks j eq ¡g djds cSBs gS a A bl la caèk esa dqN 'krs ± Hkh nh xbZ gS a%
z T vkS j R ds chp 3 Nk=k cSBs gq, gS a Az Q, T ds lfUudV ugha gSA z R vkS j P ,d&nw ljs ds iM+ ks lh gSa A
45. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkS u&lk lgh gS\ I. R, T ds ,dne nk,¡ cSBk gSA
II. S vkSj P ds chp nks ;k rhu yks x gks ldrs gS aA uhps fn, x, dw Vksa es a ls lgh mÙkj dk p;u djsa %
(a) dsoy I(b) dsoy II
(c) I vkSj II nks uks a (d) u rks I u gh II
46. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkS u&dkS u ls ,d&nw ljs ds iM+ ks lh gSa \ (a) P vkS j S (b) R vkS j S (c) R vkS j T (d) (a), (b) vkS j (c) lHkhAfuEufyf[kr 7 (lkr) iz'uka 'kksa ds fy, funsZ'k% fuEufyf[krnks x|ka'kksa dks if
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47. Buying specialized products or services helps us in:
1. Saving time and money.
2. Improved quality of product.
3. More options to select.
Select the correct answers from the codes given
below:
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) All 1, 2 and 3
48. ‘‘Free Trade is the only type of truly fair trade’’.
What can we conclude about this statement?
(a) Benet of free trade is not limited to companies
but to nal consumers as well.
(b) Economics of countries under free trade haschanged drastically.
(c) Compared to other trade principle, it is more
practical.
(d) Both (a) and (c) are correct.
49. Example of American Consumers highlights the fact
that :
(a) Americans are more rationalistic while
purchasing a new product.
(b) Availability of improved goods and servicesis the idea of free trade.
(c) Americans do not spend time on low productive
areas.
(d) Americans know the importance of free trade
better than anyone else.
PASSAGE–2
Enhancing food security at the household level is an
issue of great importance for a developing country like
India where millions of poor suffer from lack of purchasing power and malnutrition. Food and nutritional
security implies the availability of food at all times, that
all persons can have access to it, that it is nutritionally
adequate in terms of quantity, quality and variety, and that
is acceptable within the given culture.
It is being increasingly recognized that rights
approach would be useful to achieve food and nutritional
security in the country. It may be difcult to make the
right completely justiciable. However, rights approach
puts pressures on public action and would lead to effective
implementation of the policies and programmes.
Right to food is part of an overall goal of achieving
right to development. The adoption by the United Nations
in 1986 of the Declaration on the Right to Development
was the culmination of a long process of international
deliberation on human rights which was perceived from
the very beginning as an integrated whole of all civil,
political, economic, social, and cultural rights.
50. Which of the following would be True about FoodSecurity?
1. Adequate availability of food products for all.
2. It has same parameter everywhere or all over
the world.
Select the correct answers from the codes given
below:
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
51. Rights based approach towards food and nutritional
security would lead to:
(a) More Public scrutiny.
(b) Challenging it before the court of law if not
implemented properly.
(c) Public development.
(d) All of the above.
52. Why having food security is of utmost importance
for a country like India?
1. It will make her people nutritionally empowered.
2. Quality food would be ensured to those whocannot afford it.
Select the correct answers from the codes given
below:
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
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47- fo'ks "khÑr mRiknksa vFkok lsokvks a dks [kjhnuk gekjs fy, lgk;d gksrk gS%
1- le; vkS j èku dh cpr djus es aA 2- mRiknksa dh xq .koÙkk dks csgrj cukus esa A 3- p;u ds fy, vfèkdkfèkd fodYi miyCèk djkus es aA
uhps fn, x, dw Vksa es a ls lgh mÙkj dk p;u djsa % (a) dsoy 1 vkS j 2 (b) dsoy 2 vkS j 3 (c) dsoy 1 vkS j 3 (d) 1, 2 vkSj 3 lHkhA
48- ¶ds oy eqDr O;kikj gh lgh vFkks ± es a vPNk O;kikj gS¸A bl dFku ls ge D;k fu"d"kZ fudky ldrs gS a \
(a) eqDr O;kikj dk ykHk dsoy da ifu;ks a rd gh lhfer ugha gS a] cfYd bldk ykHk vafre miHkks Drkvks a dks
Hkh çkIr gksrk gSA (b) eqDr O;kikj ds varxZr vkus okys ns'kks a dhvFkZ O;oLFkkvksa es a vkewypw y ifjorZ u gq vk gSA
(c) vU; O;kikj fl¼ka rksa dh rq yuk es a ;g vfèkd O;kogkfjd gSA
(d) (a) vkSj (c) nks uks a gh lgh gS aA
49- ves fjdh miHkksDrkvksa dk mnkgj.k bl rF; ij çdk'k Mkyrk gS fd%
(a) dks bZ Hkh u;k mRikn [kjhnrs le; ves fjdh yks x
vfèkd rdZ cqf¼ dk ç;ksx djrs gSa A (b) cs grj oLrq vks a ,oa ls okvks a dh miyCèkrk eq Dr O;kikj
dk gh fopkj gSA (c) ves fjdh yks x de mRikndrk okys {ks=kks a ij T;knk
le; u"V ugha djrsA (d) fdlh Hkh vU; dh vis{kk ves fjdh yks x eqDr O;kikj
dk egÙo cs grj rjhds ls tkurs gSa A
x|ka'k&2
ifjokj ds Lrj ij [kk| lqj{kk dks c jgs gSa A [kk| ,oa iks "k.k lq j{kk dk rkRi;Z gS gj le; Hkks tu dh miyCèkrk] lHkh yks xksa dh bl rd igq ¡p gks lds] lkFk gh ek=kk] xq.koÙkk vkSj fofoèkrk dh n ̀f"V ls Hkh ;g iks "kd ,oa i;kZ Ir gks]vkSj çpfyr thou&'kS yh ds vuq:i gksA
bl ckr dh yxkrkj ekU;rk c
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53. Which of the following can be concluded about
Right to Food?
(a) India needs it more than any other country.
(b) It is co-related with basic human rights andwas in discussion even before 1986.
(c) It is an offshoot of various other human rights
and contemplated by United Nations in 1986.
(d) It is not as justiciable as other human rights do.
54. Two candles of the same height are lighted at the
same time. The rst is consumed in 4 hours and the
second in 3 hours. Assuming that each candle burns
at a constant rate, in how many hours after lighted,
the rst candle will be twice the height of the second?
(a)3
4 hrs. (b) 1
1
2 hrs.
(c) 2 hrs. (d) 22
5 hrs.
55. A bus starts from city A. The number of men in the
bus is twice the number of women. In city Z, 5
women enter and 20 men leave the bus. Now, the
number of women and men are equal. In the
beginning, how many passengers entered the bus?
(a) 25 (b) 50
(c) 100 (d) 75
56. An annual report consists of 20 sheets each of 55
lines and each line consists of 65 characters. This
report is reduced into sheets each of 65 lines such
that each line consists of 70 characters. The
percentage reduction in the number of sheets will be:
(a) 30% (b) 20%
(c) 5% (d) 35%
57. If 1st April, 2003 was Monday, then which day of
the week will be 25th November of the same year?
(a) Thursday (b) Sunday
(c) Monday (d) Friday
58. What is the angle between the minute hand and the
hour hand at 25 minutes past 5?
(a) 0° (b) 5°
(c) 12.5° (d) None of these. 59. A watch reads 4:30. If the minute hand points East,
in which direction will the hour hand point?
(a) North (b) North-West
(c) South-East (d) North-East
60. In a row of 40 girls, when Komal was shifted to her
left by 4 places her number from the left end of the
row become 10. What was the number of Swati from
the right end of the row if Swati was three places to
the right of Komal's original position?
(a) 22 (b) 23
(c) 25 (d) 24
61. A boy climbing up a greased pole ascends 12 m and
slips down 5 m in alternate minutes. If the pole is
63 m high, then how long will it take the boy to reach
the top?
(a) 177
12 min (b) 18 min
(c) 16
7
12 min (d) None of these.
62. "If proven guilty law makers and its protectors
should be given the same treatment as it would have
been with any ordinary citizen. Then it would be a
ultimate case of ‘Equality before the law".
Which of the following can be adjudged as the best
justication of the above statement?
(a) Law makers and its protectors should hold
more moral responsibility.
(b) Ethos of equality can be maintained ifeverybody is treated with the same yard-stick.
(c) There should be no equality for law makers
and its protectors in a democratic system.
(d) Equality before the law is more relevant for
ordinary citizens compared to law makers.
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53- Hkks tu ds vfèkdkj ds la caèk es a fuEufyf[kr es a ls D;k fu"d"kZ fudkyk tk ldrk gS\
(a) fdlh Hkh vU; ns 'k dh rq yuk es a Hkkjr dks bldhvfèkd vko';drk gSA
(b) ;g ew yHkw r ekuokfèkdkj ls tqM+k gq vk gS] vkSj 1986 ds igys ls gh ppkZ es a gSA
(c) ;g vU; ekuokfèkdkjks a ls gh mitk gS ftl ij la;q Dr jk"Vª us 1986 es a è;ku fn;kA
(d) ;g vU; ekuokfèkdkjks a ftruk U;k;ksfpr ugha gSA
54- leku yEckbZ dh nks eksecfÙk;ksa dks ,d&lkFk tyk;k tkrk gSA igyh eksecÙkh 4 ?kaVs esa tyrh gS tcfd nwljh eksecÙkh 3 ?kaVs esaA vxj ;g eku fy;k tk, fd çR;sd eksecÙkh ,d fu;r nj ls tyrh gS] rks crkb,
fd tykus ds fdruh ns j ckn igyh eks ecÙkh nwljh eksecÙkh ls yEckbZ esa nq xquh gks xh\
(a)3
4 ?kaVs (b) 1
1
2 ?kaVs
(c) 2 ?kaVs (d) 2 25
?kaVs
55- ,d cl 'kgj A ls pyuk 'kq: djrh gSA cl esa iq #"kksa dh la[;k efgykvksa dh la[;k dh nq xq uh gSA 'kgj Z esa 5 efgyk,¡ cl es a p
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63. "Price of crude oil is not the same thing as its value",
Though value of crude oil in the international market
is rapidly declining but its value factor does not.
After all, security of energy product is high in
demand for every country irrespective of the price
tag associated with it".
Which of the following is the best conclusion of the
above statement?
(a) Crude oil is not the same as other commodity.
(b) Value of a product does not decline with its
price.
(c) Price and value of a product may have arelation but for crude oil it is always a high
priority among nations.
(d) If price of a commodity comes down its value
also declines rapidly.
64. "Theory of Climate Change is not as confusing as
it has been portrayed by various Earth Scientists and
other Environmentalists. Anyone can easily
understand what Climate Change is but problem
occurs when it's impact been discussed in the
international summits." Nobody is buying their
opponent's arguments.
What can be the inference of the above passage?
(a) Theory of Climate Change is not clear, it will
take sometime before it gets easily acceptable.
(b) Earth scientists and environmentalists do not
hold any ground on the theory of Climate
Change.
(c) Climate change talks are complete failure.
(d) Climate change theory do not create confusion
but when its proponent gather to discuss it,
they seems to be old rivals.
Direction (Qs. 65 –66): Study the following tables and
answer the questions based on these.
Table-1 Table-2 (Flight No. SQ401)
City
Position of
clocks at a
specifc time
City Departure Arrival
Delhi 12:50 Delhi 13:17
(IST)
–
Singapore 15:20 Singapore — 20:47
(SST)
I.S.T. – Indian Standard Time
S.S.T.– Singapore Standard Time
The distance between Delhi to Singapore is 2500 km.
65. What was the speed of ight number SQ401?
(a) 500 km/h
(b) 450 km/h
(c) 400 km/h
(d) 520 km/h
66. Due to fog the ight is delayed for an hour but pilot
wants to reach Singapore at scheduled time, he has
to keep the speed of plane as –
(a) 580 km/h (b) 625 km/h
(c) 450 km/h
(d) 600 km/h
67. Which number will be opposite to the number ‘4’?
2 4
3 66 5
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 6
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63- ¶dPps rsy dh dher vkS j bldk ewY; ,d leku ckrsa
ugha gS aA¸ ;|fi va rjkZ "Vªh; ck”kkj esa rs y dk ewY; rks rsth
ls fxj jgk gS] ysfdu bldk egÙo de ugha gks jgk gSA
vkf[kjdkj] rs y dh dher ij è;ku fn, fcuk] çR;s d ns'k esa ÅtkZ mRiknks a dh lq j{kk dh eka x dkiQh vfèkd gSA
fuEufyf[kr es a ls dkSu&lk mi;qZ Dr dFku dk loZJs "B
fu"d"kZ gS\
(a) dPpk rsy vU; enksa dh rjg ugha gSA
(b) fdlh mRikn dk ew Y; mldh dher ds lkFk de
ugha gks rkA
(c) gks ldrk gS fd fdlh mRikn dh dher ,oa mlds
ewY; es a ijLij laca èk gks ysfdu dPps rsy dks fy;k tk, rks ;g ges 'kk fofHkUu ns 'kks a ds chp mPp
çkFkfedrk ij jgrk gSA
(d) ;fn fdlh oLrq dh dher esa deh vk, rks blds
ewY; esa Hkh rhoz fxjkoV vkrh gSA
64- ¶tyok;q ifjorZu dk fl¼kar mruk Hkz ked ugha gS ftruk
fd bls fofHkUu Hkw &oSKkfudks a rFkk vU; i;kZ oj.kfonksa }kjk
çLrqr fd;k x;k gSA dksbZ Hkh cgq r gh lgtrk ls le>
ldrk gS fd tyok;q ifjorZu D;k gS ysfdu leL;k rc mRiUu gks rh gS tc blds çHkkoksa dks ys dj varjkZ "Vª h;
f'k[kj lEesyuksa esa ppkZ gks rh gSA¸ dks bZ Hkh blds fojksèkh
rdks ± dks Lohdkjus ds fy, rS ;kj ugha gSA
mi;qZ Dr x|ka'k dk fu"d"kZ D;k gks ldrk gS\
(a) tyok;q ifjorZ u dk fl¼kar Li"V ugha gS] lgtrk
ls Lohdkjus ls iw oZ bles a FkksM+ k oDr yxsxkA
(b) Hkw&oSKkfudksa ,oa i;kZ oj.kfonksa ds ikl tyok;q
ifjorZ u ds fl¼kar dks ysdj dksbZ vkèkkj ugha gSA
(c) tyok;q ifjorZ u la ca èkh okrkZ ,¡ iw .kZ r% vliQy jgh gS a A
(d) tyok;q ifjorZ u fl¼ka r dks bZ Hkz e mRiUu ugha djrk
ysfdu tc blds leFkZ d okrkZ gsrq tq Vrs gS a rks os
iqjkus çfr}a nh çrhr gks rs gS aA
funsZ 'k (ç-la- 65&66)% uhps nh x;h lkjf.k;ks a dk vè;;u djs a rFkk muds vkèkkj ij iw Ns x;s ç'uksa ds mÙkj ns aA
lkj.kh&1 lkj.kh&2 ( mM+ku la [;k SQ 401)
'kgj fdlh fo'ks"k l e ; i j ?k fM +; ks a dh fLFkfr
'kgj çLFkku vkxeu
fnYyh 12:50 fnYyh 13:17
(Hkk-ek-l-) —
fla xkiq j 15:20 flaxkiqj — 20:47
( fl-ek-l-)
Hkk-ek-l-& Hkkjrh; ekud le; fl-ek-l-& fla xkiq j ekud le;
fnYyh rFkk flaxkiqj ds chp dh nw jh 2500 fdeh- gSA
65. mM+ku la[;k SQ 401 dh xfr D;k Fkh\ (a) 500 fdeh@?ka Vk (b) 450 fdeh@?ka Vk (c) 400 fdeh@?ka Vk (d) 520 fdeh@?ka Vk
66. dks gjs ds dkj.k mM+ ku esa 1 ?kaVs dk foyEc gks tkrk gS] ijarq ikbyV r; le; ij mM+ ku dks fla xkiqj igq¡ pkuk pkgrk
gS] mls gokbZ &tgkt dh pky j[kuh gksxh –(a) 580 fdeh@?ka Vk (b) 625 fdeh@?ka Vk
(c) 450 fdeh@?ka Vk (d) 600 fdeh@?ka Vk
67. la[;k ^4* ds foijhr iQyd ij dkSu&lh la [;k gksxh\
2 4
3 66 5
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 6
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Directions for the following 4 (Four) items: Read the
following passage and answer the items that follows.
Your answers to these items should be based on the
passage only.
PASSAGE
The main greenhouse gas is water vapour (H2O),
which is responsible for about two-thirds of the natural
greenhouse effect. In the atmosphere, water molecules
capture the heat that the earth radiates and then re-
radiate into all directions, warming earth’s surface,
before it is eventually radiated back to space. Water
vapour in the atmosphere is part of the hydrological
cycle, a closed system circulating water of which there
is a nite amount on earth from the oceans and land tothe atmosphere and back again through evaporation
and transpiration, condensation and precipitation.
Human activities do not add water vapour to the
atmosphere. However, warmer air can hold much more
moisture, so increasing temperatures further intensify
climate change. The main contributor to the enhanced
(manmade) greenhouse effect is carbon dioxide (CO2).
Globally, it accounts for over 60% of the enhanced
greenhouse gas effect. In industrialised countries, CO2
makes up more than 80% of greenhouse gas emissions.There is a nite amount of carbon on earth, which, like
water, is part of a cycle – the carbon cycle. This is a
very complex system in which carbon moves through
the atmosphere, the terrestrial biosphere and oceans.
Plants absorb CO2 from the atmosphere during
photosynthesis. They use the carbon to build their
tissue, and they release it back to the atmosphere when
they die and decompose. The bodies of animals (and
humans) also contain carbon since they are built from
carbon taken in from eaten plants - or animals that eat
plants . This carbon is released as CO2 when they
breathe (respiration) and when they die and decompose.
Fossil fuels are the fossilised remains of dead plants
and animals formed over millions of years under certain
conditions, and that's why they contain a lot of carbon.
Broadly speaking, coal is the remnant of buried forests
while oil is converted oceanic plant life. (Oceans
absorb CO2 which, in dissolved form, is used by marine
life in photosynthesis.).
68. More intensication of Climate Change is mainly
due to:
1. Fossil fuels.
2. Green house effect.
3. Both natural and man-made activities.
Select the correct answers from the codes given
below:
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) All 1, 2 and 3
69. If we say that Carbon Cycle is equally responsible
for Climate Change, then what would be the correct
justication for it?
(a) Carbon cycle increases the chances of green
house gas effect.
(b) Because of the inherent natural process of
plants and animals life cycle, net carbon ow
does not change in the atmosphere.
(c) Carbon cycle increases the availability of CO2
in the atmosphere.
(d) None of these.
70. Which of the following can be properly consider as
the assumption of the author, with reference to Green
house gases?
1. Elements of greenhouse gases are always
present on Earth.
2. Industrialised countries should hold more
responsibility to cut greenhouse gases emission.
3. It would be incorrect to hold human activities
responsible for greenhouse gases emission.
Select the correct answers from the codes given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) All 1, 2 and 3
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fuEufyf[kr 4 (pkj) iz'uka'kksa ds fy, funsZ'k% fuEufyf[krx|ka 'k dks if
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71. This passage is most likely to be an excerpt of:
(a) Environmental Science
(b) Impact of Greenhouse Gases Emissions
(c) Principle of Carbon Cycle
(d) Few causes of Greenhouse EffectDirections (Qs.72–74): Read th e fol lo wing
information carefully and answer the questions:
At a party that consists of ve persons A, B, C, D and
E and all are sitting in a circle. The group comprises a
professor, an industrialist and a businessman. The
businessman is sitting in between the industrialist and his
wife D. A, the professor is married to E, who is the sister
of B. The industrialist is seated to the right of C. Both the
ladies are unemployed.
72. What is A to B? (a) Brother
(b) Uncle
(c) Brother-in-law
(d) Cannot be determined.
73. A is sitting to the right of –
(a) the industrialist
(b) his wife
(c) D
(d) Cannot be determined.
74. Who is the industrialist?
(a) D
(b) A
(c) B
(d) Cannot be determined.
75. Seven women Asha, Babita, Chinni, Dipti, Ellie,
Fatima and Gauhar are standing in a queue in that
order. Each one is wearing a cap of different colours
Violet, Indigo, Blue, Green, Yellow, Orange and
Red. Dipti is able to see in front of her Green and
Blue, but not Violet. Fatima can see Violet and
Yellow, but not Red. Gauhar can see caps of all the
colours other than orange. If Ellie is wearing an
Indigo coloured cap, then the colour of the cap worn
by Babita is:
(a) Blue
(b) Violet
(c) Green
(d) Cannot be determined.
76. The table below shows the average monthly
household expenditure on different items for the
year 2001 to 2004.
ItemsAverage Monthly Expenditure (in Rs.)
2001 2002 2003 2004
Food 4,500 4,800 5,400 5,700
Rent 1,800 1,800 2,200 2,300
Children's
Education
650 800 1000 3,200
Others 2,400 2,600 3,000 1,400 Find in which year the maximum difference in the
average percentage change in the expenditure?
(a) 2001
(b) 2002
(c) 2003
(d) 2004
Directions (Q.77–79): Figures in the Question
Figures are following certain pattern, based on this pattern
fnd the fgure that will replace the question mark.
77. Question Figures:
Answer Figures:
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
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71. x|ka 'k dks fdldk m¼j.k ekus tkus dh lokZ fèkd la Hkkouk gS\
(a) i;kZ oj.kh; foKku(b) gfjr x ̀g xSlksa ds mRltZ u dk çHkko(c) dkcZ u pØ dk fl¼kar(d) gfjr x` g çHkko ds dqN dkj.k
funs Z'k (ç-la - 72&74)% uhps nh x;h lwpuk dks è;kuls if
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78. Question Figures:
Answer Figures:
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
79. Question Figures:
Answer Figures:
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
80. In a queue, Mala is tenth from the front and Neha is
fourth from the back. There is one girl between Mala
and Neha. How many girls are there in the queue
(considering only girls are there in the queue)? (a) 15
(b) 11
(c) 16
(d) Cannot be determined.
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78- ç'u vkÑfr;k¡ %
mÙkj vkÑfr;k¡ %
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
79- ç'u vkÑfr;k¡ %
mÙkj vkÑfr;k¡ %
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
80- ,d iafDr es a ekyk vkxs ls nlos a LFkku ij] vkS j usgk ihNs ls pkSFks LFkku ij gSA ekyk vkS j usgk ds chp es a ds oy ,d gh yM+dh gSA ml iafÙkQ es a dq y fdruh yM+ fd;k¡ gSa ( ;g ekurs gq, fd iafÙkQ esa dsoy yM+fd;k¡ gh gS a )\
(a) 15
(b) 11
(c) 16
(d) fuèkkZ fjr ugha fd;k tk ldrkA
31641, çFke ry] MkW - eq[kthZ uxj] fnYyh&9 iQksu : 011-47532596, (+91) 8130392354-56-57-58-59
bZ&es y : [email protected], os c : www.drishtiias.com, is Qlcq d : https://www.facebook.com/drishtithevisionfoundation Copyright – Drishti The Vision Foundation
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CIVIL SERVICES APTITUDE TEST – 2015
DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO
TEST BOOKLET SERIES
TEST BOOKLETCivil Services Aptitude Test
General Studies
(Paper - II)
Test CodeDC-1500
Answers & Explanations
ANSWERS
Q.No. Answers Q.No. Answers Q.No. Answers Q.No. Answers
1. (c) 21. (b) 41. (d) 61. (c)
2. (b) 22. (a) 42. (b) 62. (b)
3. (b) 23. (d) 43. (b) 63. (c)
4. (c) 24. (d) 44. (d) 64. (d)
5. (a) 25. (c) 45. (d) 65. (a)
6. (c) 26. (b) 46. (c) 66. (b)
7. (d) 27. (b) 47. (d) 67. (c)8. (a) 28. (c) 48. (a) 68. (c)
9. (b) 29. (d) 49. (b) 69. (b)
10. (b) 30. (a) 50. (a) 70. (c)
11. (b) 31. (b) 51. (a) 71. (d)
12. (a) 32. (b) 52. (c) 72. (c)
13. (c) 33. (b) 53. (b) 73. (d)
14. (b) 34. (b) 54. (d) 74. (c)
15. (d) 35. (c) 55. (d) 75. (d)
16. (d) 36. (d) 56. (b) 76. (c)
17. (a) 37. (c) 57. (c) 77. (d)
18. (b) 38. (d) 58. (c) 78. (d)
19. (d) 39. (d) 59. (d) 79. (d)
20. (c) 40. (a) 60. (d) 80. (d)
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2641, First Floor, Mukherjee Nagar, Delhi-09Cont.: 011-47532596, (+91) 8130392354-56-57-58-59
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Copyright – Drishti The Vision Foundation
Overall Summary of the Paper [DC-1500 (D)]
A. Area wise division of the questions
S.No. Area No. of Questions
1. Bilingual Comprehension 26
2. Basic Numeracy + General Mental Ability 18
3. Inferential Reasoning + Analytical Reasoning 7
4. Logical Reasoning (Verbal and Non-Verbal Reasoning) 23
5. Graph Representation + Data Interpretation 6
6. Total 80
Important Note:
z As in IAS-2014 question paper, not a single question featured in CSAT from Decision Making, Problem Solving,
and Inter-Personal Communication Skills. Similarly, this paper also do not carry any questions on Decision
Making, Problem Solving or Inter-personal Skills.
z This paper was truly on the lines of CSAT-2014. It carries the same difculty level as it was in CSAT-2014.
z An average score of at least 120 would be very handy for any serious aspirant.
z Almost, all the questions in this paper resembled to last few years CSAT papers.
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3641, çFke ry] MkW - eq[kthZ uxj] fnYyh&9 iQksu : 011-47532596, (+91) 8130392354-56-57-58-59
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1. (c) As discussed in the passage that oil market
analysts think that overseas investments are
unlikely to shelter countries from oil market
volatility. Thus, (1) is correct. Towards the end
of the passage it was mentioned that if oil
continues at $ 50-60 per barrel, then it would
be a protable situation and if prices drop it
could be painful. Thus, (2) is correct. Oil market
analysts are not critical of regarding oil as a rare
commodity. Thus, (3) is incorrect. Example of
China in the rst paragraph shows that every
production abroad may not shipped back to
China. Thus, (4) is correct as well. Hence, (c)
is the correct option.
2. (b) Demand and supply are denitely co-relative
as discussed in second paragraph. Thus, (1) is
incorrect. According to passage, if there is
sufficient or increase in supply relative to
demand it will have a downward impact on
price. Or they are indirectly related. In the same
way, increase in demand relative to supply will
push prices upward or directly co-related. Thus,
both (2) and (3) are correct. Hence, (b) is the
correct option.
3. (b) Author is questioning the acquisition strategy
of equity oil, specially Chinese and Indian
companies. Hence, (b) would be more
appropriate.
4. (c) In the second paragraph it is already mentioned
that knowledge intensive sectors produce
tradable goods and can be integrated with global
production network. Thus, both (1) and (3) arecorrect.
Knowledge intensive modern sectors are having
threat from abroad and it does help in bringing
competition. Thus, (2) is incorrect. Hence, (c)
is the correct option.
Explanations
1. (c) tSlk fd x|ka'k esa crk;k x;k gS fd rsy ck”kkj fo'ys "kdks a
dk ekuuk gS fd fons 'kh fuos 'k }kjk ns'kks a dks rs y ck”kkj
dh vfLFkjrk ls cpk ikuk la Hko ugha gSA vr% (1) rks
lgh gSA x|ka'k ds va r es a bl ckr dk mYys [k fd;k x;k
gS fd ;fn rs y dh fcØh fuja rj 50&60 MkWyj çfr cS jy
jgrh gS rks fLFkfr ykHkçn jgs xh] ys fdu ;fn dherksa es a
fxjkoV vkbZ rks blds ifj.kke d"Vnk;h gks ldrs gS aA bl
çdkj (2) Hkh lgh gSA rsy dks ,d nq yZ Hk oLrq ekuus ds
laca / es a rs y ck”kkj fo'ys"kd vfM+ ;y #[k ugha fn[kk
jgs gSa A blfy, (3) lgh ugha gSA çFke ifjPNsn es a fn;k
x;k phu dk mnkgj.k ;g n'kkZ rk gS fd fons 'k es a fd;k
x;k gj mRiknu okil phu ugha Hks tk tk lds xkA bl rjg ls (4) Hkh lgh gSA vr% (c) gh lgh fodYi gSA
2. (b) tSlk fd f}rh; ifjPNsn es a crk;k x;k gS fd eka x vkS j
vkiwfrZ fuf'pr :i ls ijLij&la ca f/r gS aA vr% (1) lgh
ugha gSA x|ka'k ds vuq lkj] ;fn ekax ds lkis{k vkiw frZ
i;kZIr gS vFkok mles a o`f¼ gqbZ gS rks dher ij bldk
v/ksxkeh çHkko iM+ sxk] ;k fiQj ;g dgs a fd os ijks{kr%
ijLij&lacaf/r gSa A blh çdkj] vkiwfrZ ds lkis{k eka x es a
gqbZ o`f¼] dherksa esa vkSj Hkh o ̀f¼ djs xh] ;k fiQj ;g
dgsa fd ;s çR;{kr% ijLij&laca f/r gS aA bl çdkj] (2)vkSj (3) nks uksa lgh gS aA blfy, (b) gh lgh fodYi gSA
3. (b) ys[kd] fo'ks "k :i ls phuh vkS j Hkkjrh; da ifu;ks a
dh] bfDoVh vkW by dh vf/xz g.k j.kuhfr ij ç'u
fpUg yxk jgk gSA bl çdkj] fodYi (b) vf/d
mi;q Dr gksxkA
4. (c) f}rh; ifjPNs n es a] bl ckr dk igys ls gh mYys [k
fd;k x;k gS fd Kku xgu {ks=k O;kikj ;ksX; oLrqvks a
dk mRiknu djrs gSa ] vkSj bUgsa oS f'od mRiknu usVodZ
ds lkFk ,dhÑr Hkh fd;k tk ldrk gSA bl çdkj](1) vkS j (3) nksuks a gh lgh gSa A
Kku xgu vk/qfud {ks=kksa dks fons 'k ls [krjk gS vkSj
lkFk gh ;s çfrLièkkZ ykus es a Hkh lgk;d gS a A bl çdkj]
(2) rks lgh ugha gSA vr% (c) gh lgh fodYi gSA
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5. (a) As discussed in the last paragraph, structural
changes remove constraints from productivity
growth. Thus, (a) is correct. Avoiding agriculture,
increase in labour productivity or technological
upgradation would be too specic. Hence, (a)
is the correct option.
6. (c) As per the passage convergence is more rapid
in technology or knowledge intensive sectors
and it clears the way for high productive growth.
Thus, (1) and (2) are correct. Textile and
clothing are less technological intensive sectors
and it is difcult to bring new changes through
convergence of technologies. Thus, (3) is
incorrect. Hence, (c) is the correct option.
7. (d) Passage is all about bringing rapid and high
productive growth with the adoption of cutting
edge technology to re-shape industries. Hence,
(d) is the correct option.
8. (a) Since the person has already picked 2 different
coloured balls. Therefore, for the third coloured
ball other than the previous two coloured balls
maximum attempts would be 3, similarly for
the fourth coloured ball maximum attempts or
trials would be 4 and for the fth coloured ball
maximum attempts would be 5.
Thus, (3) + (4) + (5) = 12
Hence, (a) is the correct option.
9. (b) This question can be easily solved through
options.
Time taken by,
Larger diameter pipe = 5 min.
Smaller diameter pipe = 8 min.
Let the total unit to ll the cistern would be
= LCM of (5, 8) = 40 units
Efciency of Larger diameter pipe in 1 min.
= 8 units
5. (a) tSlk fd vafre ifjPNsn esa crk;k x;k gS fd lajpukRed ifjorZ u mRikndrk o`f¼ ls vojks/ks a dks nw j djrs gS aA bl çdkj] (a) rks lgh gSA Ñf"k dh mis{kk djuk] Je dh mRikndrk es a o`f¼ vFkok çkS |ksfxdh; mÂ;u Hkh dkiQh fof'k"V gks xkA vr% (a) gh lgh fo