law-1 (provisional model answer key) -...
TRANSCRIPT
-
Assistant District Public Prosecution Officer
Law-1
(Provisional Model Answer Key)
Q1
:
By which amendment, the words "Secular" and "Socialist" were inserted in the preamble of the
constitution of India?
'' '' ''''
:! " ?
A 40
th Constitution Amendment
B 24
th Constitution Amendment
C 42
nd Constitution Amendment
D 44
th Constitution Amendment
Answer Key: C
Q2
:
The Appropriate writ issued by the supreme court to qusah the appointment of a person from a public
office is
) " " *, , ! / 0
?
A Certiorari
34
B Mandamus
C Prohibition
4
D Quo-warranto
7-)
Answer Key: D
Q3 The jurisdiction of the supreme court of India may be enlarged by :
-
: ) 70 :
A The President of India
-
J ! !
Answer Key: A
Q6
:
Clause (5) of Article 15 was inserted in constitution of india by:
) 15 O (5) " :
A Constitution 1
st Amendment Act
4 7
B Constitution 7
th Amendment Act
Q3 7
C Constitution 17
th Amendment Act
R 7
D Constitution 93
rd Amendment Act
7
Answer Key: D
Q7
:
In which of the following case, the Supreme court held that the 'preamble' is not a part of the constitution
/C " ) CA " " ''
:
A Re Berubari case
S
B Golak Nath V/s State of punjab
J
C Keshvanand Bharti V/s state of kerala
J
D All are correct
?
Answer Key: A
Q8
:
"Which cannot be done directly, cannot be done indirectly". This statement is related to which of the
doctrine:
'' 43 S " , 43 S " '' - ,*
" 7 :
A The Colourable legistation
-
B
The Pith and Substance
C
The Harmonious Construction
D
The Doctrine of Eclipse
)
Answer Key: A
Q9
:
The Concept of fundamental duties is derived in Indian Constribution from the Constitution of :
? :
A U.S.S.R
. . . .
B U.S.A
. . .
C Ireland
O
D Germany
A
Answer Key: A
Q10
:
Article 15(4A) was inserted in Indian Constitution by which of the following Constitution Amendment
Act:
) 15(4) :! " :
A 26
th
B 27
th
(27)
C 77
th
(77)
D None of these is correct
-
Answer Key: C
Q11
:
Who among the following holds office during the pleasure of the President of India :
/C
-
D Judge of the High Court
)
Answer Key: B
Q14
:
A bill is money bill or not, who decides :
, A ?
A President
-
/ 7
B Rights of Civil Servants
0 W 7
C Money Bill
D Freedom of Inter- State Trade
AJ * !R
Answer Key: D
Q17
:
Inter-State Council is established under which of the following Article
" ) A A 0 :
A Article 254
) 254
B Article 260
) 260
C Article 263
) 263
D Article 267
) 267
Answer Key: C
Q18
:
The case Lata Singh V. State of U.P relates to which of the following :
J 7 :
A Right to go Abroad
7
B Right to Education
7
C Right to Shelter
Y 7
D Right to Marriage
7
Answer Key: D
-
Q19
:
A promise to pay 'time barred debt' under the contract act is:
7 :
A Not enforceable
4A
B Enforceable at the discretion of debtor
) 4A
C Enforceable
4A
D None of these is correct
Answer Key: C
Q20
:
A counter offer is:
4 4! :
A Invitation to an offer
4! R
B Acceptance to offer
4!
C Rejection of the offer
4! !
D Conditional acceptance
A !
Answer Key: C
Q21
:
An agreement with a minor is void, hence:
! , : -
A Minor is never allowed to enforce such agreement
! 4A
B Minor is allowed to enforce such agreement when other party makes no objection
! 4A 3
C Minor is always allowed to enforce such agreement
! 4A
D None of these is correct
-
Answer Key: A
Q22
:
An agreement by fraud is:
" :
A Void
B Voidable
C Illegal
D Immoral
Answer Key: B
Q23
:
When a person making a false statement believing it to true and does not intend to mislead the other
party to the contract, it is known as:
E *, " *,* , *,*
\ , :
A Mistake
B Fraud
C Misrepresentation
]*
D Undue influence
7 4
Answer Key: C
Q24
:
Coercion is provided under which the following section of the Indian contract act:
4 7 /C " 7 " :
A Section 14
14
B Section 15
-
15
C Section 16
16
D Section 17
17
Answer Key: B
Q25
:
Under Indian contract act acceptance of a proposal must be:
7 4! ! E :
A Conditional or unconditional
A A ^
B Conditional but not absolute
A 3
C Unconditional and absolute
^ " A 3
D Unconditional and not absolute
A ^ 3
Answer Key: C
Q26
:
'Voidable Contract' has been defined under which of the following section of Indian contract act:
7 ' ' 0 " :
A Section 2(e)
2 ()
B Section 2(h)
2 ()
C Section 2(i)
2 ()
D Section 2(g)
2 ()
Answer Key: C
Q27
:
There may be contact without consideration if:
^ 4 E :
-
A Agreement is in writing and registered
C
B Parties to the agreement are in near relationship
C Agreement is made due to natural love and affection
4 4 ! "
D All are correct
?
Answer Key: D
Q28
:
Mohri Bibi V.Dharmodas ghose case in related to:
7 :
A Effecct of minor's agreement
! 4
B Effect of agreement by fraud
" 4
C Effect of agreement without consideration
^ 4 4
D None of these is correct
Answer Key: A
Q29
:
Which one of the following pairs does not match:
/C a :
A Novation of the contract - Section 62
- 62
B Agreement in restraint of legal proceedings - Section 29
7 AEW - 29
C Tender of performance - Section 38
- 38
D Unlawful object and consideration - Section 23
7 b c 4 - 23
Answer Key: B
-
Q30
:
The Indian contract Act,1872 extends to -
7,1872 ! -
A The whole of india
/A
B The whole of india except the state of Jammu & Kashmir
/ c J /A
C The whole of india except the state of Jammu & Kashmir, Nagaland And Sikkim
/ c, d , JW /A
D None of these is correct
Answer Key: B
Q31
:
Consent is said to be free when it is not caused by:
/ !R , /C 0 :
A Coercion
4
B Undue influence
/
C Fraud
D All are correct
?
Answer Key: D
Q32
:
Where A contract contains a stipulation by way of penalty on breach of contract, the aggrieved party is
entitled for compensation:
, ! S 4 , e A S
:
A
Stipulated amount,if actual loss is proved
E ! ,
B
Stipulated amount, even actual loss is not proved
E ! ,
-
C Reasonable amount but not more than stipulated amount
,, 7
D
Reasonable amount, even more that of stipulated amount if loss is proved
,, E ! 7
Answer Key: C
Q33
:
Under a contract plea of Undue influence may be raised:
" / / :
A By beneficiary
E7
B By third party
C By stranger
"
D Only by the party whose consent was so caused
0
Answer Key: D
Q34
:
Under Indian law consideration may be:
7 " A 4 E :
A Adequate
A
B Equivalent t promise
?
C Something having same value in eyes of law
7 f
-
1 ,, 1882
B 1st July,1882
1 , 1882
C 15
th July,1882
15 , 1882
D 1st September,1882
1 /, 1882
Answer Key: B
Q36
:
For attestation how many Witnesses are required:
4 " c :
A One or more
1 7
B Two or more
2 7
C Three or more
3 7
D No number has been specified
@ E
Answer Key: B
Q37
:
Under the Act, 1882 which of the following is not included within the term 'immoveable property':
/ 7, 1882 '! /' / :
A Dilapidated house
B Growing Crops
C Railway station
!
D Right to way
! 7
Answer Key: B
-
Q38
:
Improvements to mortgaged property is provided in which following sections of T.P. Act:
/ / 7 " 4 :
A Section 63
63
B Section 63A
63
C Section 64
64
D Section 65
65
Answer Key: B
Q39
:
Which of the following does not come within the ambit of 'living person' under T.P. Act:
/ 7 A /C ' *,' A :
A Company
/
B Body of individuals
*,W
C Idol
A
D Association of individuals
*,W
Answer Key: C
Q40
:
Which of the following property may be transferred under T.P.Act:
/ 7 / 0
A Public office
B A property which has not been prohibited by law for transfer
/ 7 A
C Pension
-
D Chance of succession
/* 37
Answer Key: B
Q41
:
Under section 7 of T.P.Act for transfer of property it is not necessary that :
/ 7 7 , / c " :
A In every circumstance the transferable property must be his own
43 / !
B That person must be major
*, !
C That person must be sane
*, !c 7
D That person must be competent to contract
,
Answer Key: A
Q42
:
'A' transfers his property to 'B' with the condition that 'B' shall never transfer this property to anyone.
The Transfer of property is:
'' / '' A " '' "
, / :
A Void
B Voidable
C Unlawful
D Lawful, but the condition is void
7 A
Answer Key: D
Q43
:
Under Section 17 of the T.P. Act regarding accumulation of income of any property , the period from
the date of the transfer is:
/ 7 17 " /
7 :
-
A 18 Yrs
18 A
B 12 Yrs
12 A
C 10 Yrs
10 A
D 16 Yrs
16 A
Answer Key: A
Q44
:
'A' lets a farm to 'B' on condition that 'B' shall walk a hundred miles in an hour. The lease is:
'' '' g A " O 100 g -
A Unlawful
B Void
C Voidable
D Lawful, but condition is void
, A
Answer Key: B
Q45
:
Transfer of property to an unborn person is provided under which section of the T.P. Act:
( ) *, 4 / 7 "
:
A Section 12
12
B Section 13
13
C Section 14
14
D Section 12 and 13 both
12 13
-
Answer Key: B
Q46
:
Under Section 30 of the T.P. Act, if the ulterior disposition is not valid, the prior disposition is:
/ 7 30 E * 7 A *
:
A Affected by it
4
B Not affected by it
4
C Partly affected
: 4
D Depends on the discretion of the count
A
Answer Key: B
Q47
:
Every transfer of immovable properly made with intent to defeat or delay the creditors of the transferor
or transfer being a fraudulent transfer, shall be :
/ W "
, A :
A Void
B Voidable
C Lawful
D Immoral
Answer Key: B
Q48
:
"Mesne profits" does not include :
" : " A / :
A Profit which a person in wrongful possession of property has actually received
/ *, !: 4Q
B Profit which a person in wrongful possession of property might with due diligence have received
-
/ *, 3 4Q
C Interest on the profits received by a person in wrongful possession of property
*, 4Q " W
D Improvement made by a person in wrongful possession of property
*, L
Answer Key: D
Q49
:
Which amongst the following is not a Civil nature suit:
/C 4 :
A Suit relating to property
/ /
B Suit relating to marriage
7
C Suit relating to expulsion from caste
-
A Suits
W
B Execution of decree proceeding
e
-
Q54
:
Subsistence allowance to the judgment debtor under C.P.C under which of the following sections:
CA CW A 3 ... /C " E :
A Section 56
56
B Section 57
57
C Section 58
58
D Section 60
60
Answer Key: B
Q55
:
If an indigent person succeeds in the suit from whom the court fees will be realised :
E A *, ? " :
A From the state
J
B From the opposite party
4
C From the subject matter of the suit
!
D None of these is correct
Answer Key: C
Q56
:
When a second appeal under the Code Of Civil Procedure 1908 before the High Court may be preferred
:
4"i E 1908 ) :
A On a substantial question of law
7 " 4c
B On a substantial question of fact
] " 4
C On a question of public policy
-
4c
D All are correct
?
Answer Key: A
Q57
:
Caveat remains in force from the date of its lodging:
43 7
A 30 days
30 E
B 45 days
45 E
C 60 days
60 E
D 90 days
90 E
Answer Key: D
Q58
:
Under the Code Of Civil Procedure 1908 language of subordinate courts is declared by :
4"i E 1908 7! W -
A Central Government
k
B State Government
J
C High Court of the state
)
D Supreme Court
)
Answer Key: B
Q59
:
A suit of a minor is instituted by
! ! " :
A Next friend
R
-
B Guardian
C Legal representative
7 47
D Any one of them
,
Answer Key: A
Q60
:
Constructive Res judicata under the Code Of Civil Procedure 1908 is provide under :
4"i E 1908 4l 4 4 " :
A Section 11 Explanation II
11 !
-
: lQ 4"i 4"i E 1908 " :
A Order 37
- 37
B Order 38
- 38
C Order 39
- 39
D Order 40
- 40
Answer Key: A
Q63
:
Under Order 16 of the Code Of Civil Procedure 1908, which of the following has been provided:
4"i E 1908 16 /C " " :
A Summoning and attendance of witnesses
lW
B Adjournment
!
C Hearing of the suit and examination of witnesses
lW
D Affidavit
R
Answer Key: A
Q64
:
When unnecessary persons are joined as parties to the suit, it is called -
c *,W E :
A Non-joinder
B Mis-joinder
C Co-joinder
D Suit-joinder
-
Answer Key: B
Q65
:
If a person voluntarily participates in a sport and receive grave injury, he has
E *, !)A 47 / -
A a claim in a torts for medical expenses but not for loss of income
3 7"3 A "
B a claim is torts for loss of earning capacity
m 3
C no claim in torts because the injury was not willingly caused
3 ,W" 0
D no claim in torts because of the principal of "Volenti non fit injuria"
" 3W L 3
Answer Key: D
Q66
:
'A' gives lift in his car to 'B' for a specified destination and on the way due to negligence of 'A' an
accident is caused 'A' has:
'' '' c * n ^ ! '' A
'' -
A no responsibility towards 'B'
'' 4
B no legal duty to take care of B's safety
'' 4 7 3
C a legal duty to take care of 'B' and is also liable for damages
'' 4 7 3 A L
D All are correct
?
Answer Key: C
Q67
:
Tort in defined as a civil wrong for which remedy is an action for:
3 4 7 A S 0 "
/C A ?
A Un liquidated damages
c A
-
B Liquidated damages
c A
C Un liquidated damages & Liquidated damages
c A c A
D No damages
A
Answer Key: A
Q68
:
The exercise of ordinary rights for a lawful purpose and in a lawful manner is no wrong even if it causes
damages. this is known as:
7A c 7 7A 4 7 A
/C
A Volenti non fit injuria
" 0
B Injuria sine damno
0
C Damnum sine injuria
0
D Respondent superior
0! 0
Answer Key: C
Q69
:
'Respondent Superior' means:
'Y
-
Q7
0 :
A
Codes:
:
B
Codes:
:
C
Codes:
:
D
Codes:
:
Answer Key: A
-
Q71
:
The principle of privacy of contract was hold to be applicable to an action for tort in which of the
following cases:
" 3 3W ", A /C "
E -
A Winterbottom V/s Wright
B Donoghue V/s Stevension
!
C Grand V/s Australian Knitting Mills Ltd
p != E ?
D Ashby V/s White
*
Answer Key: B
Q72
:
Which of the following is not example of vicarious liability
/C 47 3 ?
A Liability of the principal for the tort of his agent
3 3
B Liability of partners for each others tort
W 3 3
C Liability of the master for the tort of his servant
3 ! 3
D Liability of the husband for the tort of his wife
3 3 3
Answer Key: D
Q73
:
Rule of absolute liability was propounded by:
A 3 " 4E " ?
A Justice Bhagavti
A Y
B Justice Sodhi
A Y
C Justice Ahmadi
-
A Y
D Justice kuldeep Singh
A Y
Answer Key: A
Q74
:
Which one of defense to strict liability is based on the maximum, "volenti non fit injuria"?
3 W , '' " 0'' 0
A Consent the plaintiff
B Act of god
c 3
C Act of third penty
3
D Statutory Authority
47
Answer Key: A
Q75
:
The rule of 'absolute liability' was laid down is which of the following case:
/C " W " 'A3' 4E "
A Ryland V. Fletcher
O
B M.C. Mehta(Sriram food & fertilizer company) vs Union of India
.. (Y O q .)
C M.C. Mrehta (C.N.G. Fuel Case) vs Union of India
.. (...n )
D None of these is correct
Answer Key: B
Q76
:
In which one of the following cases the supreme court of India gave the ruling that sovereign immunity
of the state is subject to the fundamental right :
/C W " ) 4E " " J
43 / , 7 ?
-
A
Kasturilal ralia Ram Jain V/s State of U.P.
! J
B State of rajasthan V/s Vidyawati
! J
C People's union for democratic right V/s state of Bihar
? iE r ^ J
D Shyam sundar V/s State of rajasthan
c ! J
Answer Key: C
Q77
:
Last opportunity rule is associated with :
/ :
A Remoteness of damage
A
B Volenti non fit injuria
,
C Contributory Negligence
D Negligence
Answer Key: C
Q78
:
Liability in tort depends on:
3 3 A
A Quantum of damage suffered
R
B Involvement of intention
C Infringement of legal right
7 i
D Effect of public interest
E 4
-
Answer Key: C
Q79
:
What is the exception to the principal "mens rea"?
'7 ' 7 R , ?
A Strict liability
3
B Use of force
4
C Assault
i
D Deceit
Answer Key: A
Q80
:
Information technology Act, 2000 came into enforce on -
47 7 2000,
A 1st September,2000
1 , 2000
B 1st October,2000
1 , 2000
C 17
th October,2000
17 , 2000
D 17
th September,2000
17 / , 2000
Answer Key: C
Q81
:
Under which section of IT Act, 2000 "asymmetric crypto system" has been defined:
47 7 2000, " " 4" 0 "
A Section 2(1)(d)
2 (1)()
B Section 2(1)(e)
2 (1)()
C Section2(1)(f)
-
2 (1)()
D Section2(1)(g)
2 (1)()
Answer Key: C
Q82
:
The adjudicating officer under section 46 of the IT Act, shall exercise jurisdiction to adjudicate the
matter in which claim of loss does not exceed to -
47 7 46 7A 7 7CA
70 4 7
A Two crore Rupees
2 S
B Five crore Rupees
5 S
C Seven crore Rupees
7 S
D Eight crore Rupees
8 S
Answer Key: A
Q83
:
A person shall not be qualified for appointment as a presiding officer of Cyber Appellate Tribunal
unless he is or has been or is qualified to be:
7 7 S , *, A
, A
A judge of the Supreme Court
)
B judge of the High Court
)
C judge of the District Court
D None of these is correct
Answer Key: B
Q84 Which of the following case is related to Information Technology Act:
-
: /C 47 7 /
A Lalita Kumari V/s U.P. state
34 J
B Lata Singh V/s U.P. state
34 J
C Charukhurana V/s union of India
b
D Shreya Singhal V/s union of India
Y
Answer Key: D
Q85
:
Which of the following Section of information Technology Act relates to authentication of electronic
records:
,= 4 /C " /
A Section 3
3
B Section 4
4
C Section 5
5
D None of these is correct
Answer Key: A
Q86
:
Who will investigate offences under the Information Technology Act :
47 7 " -
A
Certifying Authority
47
B
Controller of Certifying Authority
470W R
C Police officer not below the rank of inspector
7 ,
-
D Deputy Superintendant of police
7
Answer Key: C
Q87
:
Which of the following Section of IT Act has been declared unconstitutional-by Supreme court
47 7 " ) "
A Section 66 A
66
B Section 65 A
65
C Section 66
66
D Section 70 A
70
Answer Key: A
Q88
:
Under the provisions of the Information Technology Act 2000,whoever publishes are transmits any
material in the form of electronic which contains sexually explicit act or conduct shall be punished by
which sentence from the following on first conviction
47 7 2000 A c p ,= S 4
4 L / e "
A imprisonment up to 3 years and fine up to Rs. 5 Lacs
3 A 5 S A
B imprisonment up to 2 years and fine up to Rs. 3 Lacs
2 A 3 S A
C imprisonment up to 1 year and fine up to Rs. 1 Lac
1 A 1 S A
D imprisonment up to 5 years and fine up to Rs. 3 Lacs or Both
5 A 3 S A ,
Answer Key: A
Q89
:
Under the provisions of the Information Technology Act2000, Offence of cyber terrorism shall be
punished by which sentence from the following
47 7 2000 A " /
e "
-
A Rigorous imprisonment of 10 years
10 A
B Simple imprisonment of 10 years and fine up to Rs. 5Lacs
10 A 5 S A
C May extend to imprisonment for life
D Rigorous imprisonment of 7 years and fine up to Rs. 3Lacs
7 A 3 S A
Answer Key: C
Q90
:
Under Section 12 of the Protection of Women From Domestic violonce Act,2005, Who may present an
application -
E E 7, 2005 12 A R 4!
:
A Aggrieved person
*7 *,
B Protection Officer
7
C Any other person on behalf of the aggrieved person
*7 *, 3 *,
D All are correct
?
Answer Key: D
Q91
:
The offence under section 32(1) of the Protection of woman from Domestic violence Act, 2005 shall be:
E E 7 2005 32(1) -
A Cognizable and non-bailable
t
B Cognizable and bailable
t
C Non-Cognizable and bailable
t
D Non-Cognizable and non- bailable
-
t
Answer Key: A
Q92
:
What Kinds of order may be passed by a Magistrate in cases relating to domestic violence in favour of
aggrieved women and against the respondent -
!= E *7 E 43u SL /C
0 " :
A Protection order
B Monetary order
7A
C Compensation order
4
D All are correct
?
Answer Key: D
Q93
:
Under what provision of the protection of woman from Domestic Violence Act, an order for the
temporary custody of Children of the aggrieved person may be passed by the magistrate:
E E 7 " 4 7 *, /
! != :
A Section 19
19
B Section 20
20
C Section 21
21
D Section 22
22
Answer Key: C
Q94
:
What is Penalty under the Protection of woman for Domestic Violence Act for breach of protection
order by the respondent -
E E 7 A 43u ??
! 7 :
-
A Imprisonment up to 1 year or with fine up to 20,000/- or both.
A S A
B Imprisonment up to 6 months or with fine up to 10,000/- or both.
: S A
C Imprisonment up to 2 years or with fine up to 20,000/- or both.
A S A
D Imprisonment up to 1 year or with fine up to 10,000/- or both.
A S A
Answer Key: A
Q95
:
In which Section of the Protection of women from Domestic Violence Act, protection has been provided
in case of proceeding taken in good faith -
E E 7 " v A AEW
4 " :
A Section 30
30
B Section 33
33
C Section 35
35
D Section 36
36
Answer Key: C
Q96
:
The Right to information is available to :
7 :
A Citizens only
0
B Citizens and non-citizens
0 - 0W
C All persons
*,W
D All are correct
-
?
Answer Key: A
Q97
:
Obligation of public authority has been provided under which section of the Right to information Act -
47 L 7 7 " :
A Section 4
4
B Section 5
5
C Section 8
8
D Section 9
9
Answer Key: A
Q98
:
State / Central public authority shall provide information within which of the following days after
receipt of application :
J / k 7 4Q / C EW :
A 15 days
15 E
B 30 days
30 E
C 45 days
45 E
D 60 days
60 E
Answer Key: B
Q99
:
The provision as to third party information has been provided under which of the following section of
RTI, Act:
-*, 4 7 7 /C " " :
A Section 6
6
B Section 9
-
9
C Section 10
10
D Section 11
11
Answer Key: D
Q100
:
Commissioner of the state information Commission shall take oath before :
J , -
A The President
-
: 4 7, 2006 " A 4 7 ,
4
A Sec-14
-14
B Sec-15
-15
C Sec-18
-18
D Sec-16
-16
Answer Key: D
Q103
:
Under Sec-13 of the Prohibition of child marriage Act-2006 who may issue injection order:-
4 7 2006 -13 A
A District Court
B High Court
)
C First class judicial magistrate of Metropolitan magistrate
4 A != !=
D None of these is correct
Answer Key: C
Q104
:
The powers and duties of the prohibition officer of the child marriage are defined under which section
of the Prohibition of child marriage Act.2006
4 7 , A* 4 7,2006 "
CA
A Sec-19
-19
B Sec-16
-16
C Sec-20
-
-20
D Sec-17
-17
Answer Key: B
Q105
:
Under the Prohibition of child marriage Act.2006 in which section provided that no woman shall be
punishable with imprisonment -
4 7, 2006 " E 4
A Sec-14
-14
B Sec-11
-11
C Sec-15
-15
D Sec-17
-17
Answer Key: B
Q106
:
Under Young persons (Harmful publication) Act.1956, What shall be the age of young person.
? *, ( 4) 7, 1956 A ? *, ,
A Under the age of 16 years
16 A
B Under the age of 20 years
20 A
C Under the age of 18 years
18 A
D Under the age of 21 years
21 A
Answer Key: B
Q107
:
Under The Young persons (Harmful publication ) Act.1956, in which section definition of the
"harmful publication" is given
? *, ( 4) 7 1956, " " 4"
0
-
A Sec-3(a)
-3 ()
B Sec-4(a)
-4 ()
C Sec-2(a)
-2 ()
D Sec-2(d)
-2 ()
Answer Key: C
Q108
:
Under the Young persons (Harmful publications) Act.1956, in which section power to seize and
destroy harmful publication is described
? *, ( 4) 7 1956, " 4W
pE
-
D Sec-7
-7
Answer Key: C
Q110
:
Under the Young persons(Harmful Publication) Act, 1956 in which section government has power is
to declared harmful publication forfeited -
? *, ( 4) 7 1956, " A
4 x ,
A Sec-3
-3
B Sec-5
-5
C Sec-6
-6
D Sec-4
-4
Answer Key: D
Q111
:
Under the protection of children from sexual offences Act, 2012 the trial before special court shall be
governed by -
7 W W 7-2012 A AE "
7 A
A Civil Procedure Code
4"i E
B Criminal Procedure Code
O 4"i E
C Special Provisions
4
D None of these is correct
Answer Key: B
Q112
:
Under the Protection of children from sexual offences Act, 2012 who will conduct the cases before the
Special Court:-
7 W W 7-2012 A
-
AEW
A District prosecution officer
7
B Government pleader
7,
C Special public prosecutor
D Additional district public prosecutor
0,
Answer Key: C
Q113
:
Under the Protection of children from sexual offences Act, 2012 the special court shall complete the
trial as for as possible within a period from taking cognizance of the offence.
7 W W 7 2012 A t
" EW A 4
A 6 months
6
B 9 months
9
C 2 years
2 A
D 1 year
1 A
Answer Key: D
Q114
:
Under the Provision of Protection of children fron Sexual offences Act 2012, whoever commits sexual
harassment upon a child shall be punished with imprisonment for
7 W W 7-2012 A " 7 3
" 7
A 1 year and fine
1 A A
B 3 years and fine
3 A A
C 5 years and fine
-
5 A A
D 7 years and fine
7 A A
Answer Key: B
Q115
:
Under the Protection of children from sexual offence Act, 2012 in which section the sexual
Harassment defined:-
7 W W 7-2012 A " 7 3
0 "
A Sec-2
-2
B Sec-5
-5
C Sec-9
-9
D Sec-11
-11
Answer Key: D
Q116
:
Under the Protection of children from sexual offences Act, 2012 in which section abetment of commit
an offences is punishable.
7 W W 7-2012 A "
-
: assistance of legal practitioner
7 W W 7 2012 A " W 7
7 E
A Sec-41
-41
B Sec-39
-39
C Sec-43
-43
D Sec-40
-40
Answer Key: D
Q118
:
Under the Protection of children from sexual offences Act, 2012 in which section procedure provided
for recording of statement of child.
7 W W 7 2012 A C "
A "
A Sec-22
-22
B Sec-24
-24
C Sec-26
-26
D Sec-28
-28
Answer Key: B
Q119
:
Under the Protection of children from sexual offences Act 2012 Punishment for "False Complaint" of
"false Information" is provided under
7 W W 7 2012 " A ''] 0'' '']
'' O A0
A Sec-22
-22
B Sec-21
-
-21
C Sec-24
-24
D Sec-25
-25
Answer Key: A
Q120
:
In which section punishment for attempt to commit an offences is prescribed under the Protection of
children from sexual offences Act, 2012.
7 W W 7 2012 " A " 0
4 O A0
A Sec-18
-18
B Sec-16
-16
C Sec-19
-19
D Sec-15
-15
Answer Key: A
Q121
:
Under the Immoral Traffic(prevention) Act, 1956, in which section the definition of brothel is given -
* () 7 1956, " 0 "
A Sec-3
-3
B Sec-2
-2
C Sec-3(1)
-3 (1)
D Sec-2(a)
-2 ()
Answer Key: D
-
Q122
:
Which section of the Immoral Traffic(prevention) Act, 1956, provides provision for closer of brothel
and eviction of offenders from the premises.
* () 7 1956, " W "
7W " 4
A Sec-17
-17
B Sec-15
-15
C Sec-18
-18
D Sec-20
-20
Answer Key: C
Q123
:
Which section of the Immoral Traffic (prevention) Act, 1956, is related to the punishment for living on
the earnings of prostitution?
* () 7 1956, " A
A O 4
A Sec-5(1)
-5(1)
B Sec-6
-6
C Sec-4(1)
-4 (1)
D Sec-7(1)
-7 (1)
Answer Key: C
Q124
:
Which section of the Immoral Traffic (prevention) Act, 1956. Who has discretion to established
protective homes and corrective institution:-
* () 7 1956, !
!
A State government
J
-
B Central government
k
C Supreme court
)
D District court
,
Answer Key: A
Q125
:
Under the Immoral Traffic (prevention) Act, 1956, the state government established special courts in
any district of metropolitan area after the consultation with.
* () 7 1956, J " A
R !
A State women commission
J E
B High court
)
C Council of ministers
R
D Legislative Council
Answer Key: B
Q126
:
Which section of the Immoral Traffic(prevention) Act, 1956, provides powers to the court to try cases
summarily.
* () 7 1956, " W W lQ
, 43
A Sec-22(B)
-22 ()
B Sec-23
-23
C Sec-25
-25
D Sec-22(A)
-22 ()
-
Answer Key: A
Q127
:
Under which section of the Immoral Traffic(prevention) Act, 1956, who has the power to make rules
for carrying on the purposes of this Act.
* () 7 1956, " " , 4 "
7 4W
A Supreme court
)
B National women's
J 7
C State Human rights commission
-
-4
B Sec-5
-5
C Sec-6
- 6
D Sec-3
-3
Answer Key: B
Q130
:
Under which section of the Immoral Traffic (prevention) Act, 1956, definition of child is given.
* () 7 1956, 0 "
A Sec-2(a)
- 2 ()
B Sec-2(g)
- 2 ()
C Sec-2(aa)
- 2 ()
D Sec-3(2-a)
- 3 (2-)
Answer Key: C
Q131
:
Under the Immoral Traffic(prevention) Act, 1956. Which section provides punishment for keeping a
brothel or allowing premises to be used as brothel?
* () 7 1956,
0 b 4 t O 4 E
A Sec-2
-2
B Sec-4
-4
C Sec-3
-3
D Sec-7
-7
-
Answer Key: C
Q132
:
Under which section of the Immoral Traffic(prevention) Act, 1956, is related to conditions to be
observed before placing persons rescued under Sec-16 to parents or guardians.
* () 7 1956, 16
*,W - A y
A Sec-17(A)
- 17()
B Sec-17
-17
C Sec-15
-15
D Sec-14
-14
Answer Key: A
Q133
:
Under the Immoral Traffic(prevention) Act, 1956, which section is related to the provision for
punishment for "Seduction of a person in custody".
* () 7, 1956 " " *,
" O 4
A Sec-7
-7
B Sec-19
-19
C Sec-9
- 9
D Sec-14
-14
Answer Key: C
Q134
:
Under which section of the Immoral Traffic(prevention) Act, 1956, the provision for appointment of
"special police officer and advisory body" is given.
* () 7 1956, " 7
" , 4
A Sec-15
-
-15
B Sec-13
-13
C Sec-20
-20
D Sec-12
-12
Answer Key: B
Q135
:
Which section of the Indecent Representation of Women(Prohibition) Act, 1986 defines "Indecent
representation of women".
E b (4) 7-1986 " "E b"
0 "
A Sec-1
-1
B Sec-2(c)
-2()
C Sec-2(f)
-2()
D Sec-4(c)
-4()
Answer Key: B
Q136
:
Who has the powers to enter and search under the Indecent Representation of Women(Prohibition)
Act, 1986.
E b (4) 7-1986 4 ,
"
A State government
J
B Central government
k
C Any gazetted officer authorized by state government
J 47 ^R 7
D Any gazetted officer
-
" ^R 7
Answer Key: C
Q137
:
Which Section provides protection of action taken in good faith under the Indecent Representation of
Women(Prohibition) Act, 1986
E b (4) 7-1986 " z " y
4 " :
A Sec-7
-7
B Sec-9
-9
C Sec-6
-6
D Sec-10
-10
Answer Key: B
Q138
:
Under the Indecent Representation of Women(Prohibition) Act, 1986 who has the power to make rules
to carry out the provisions of this Act.
E b (4) 7-1986 W A ,
"
A State government
J
B State women commission
J E
C National women commission
-
A Sec-2(1)
-2(1)
B Sec-2(8)
-2(8)
C Sec-3(I)
-3(I)
D Sec-3(VIII)
-3(VIII)
Answer Key: A
Q140
:
Who has the power to constitute the child welfare committee under the Juvenile justice(care &
protection of children) Act, 2015.
" ( ) 7, 2015 ' ? ' E
, "
A Central government
k
B State government
J
C High court
D None of these is correct
Answer Key: B
Q141
:
Under the Juvenile justice (care and protection of children) Act, 2015 what is the penalty for non
registration of child care institutions.
" ( ) 7, 2015 !
!= (!=) O
A
Shall be punished with imprisonment which may extend to one year or a fine not less than one lakh rupees
or both.
A b A W e "
B Only one year imprisonment.
A A
-
C Only one lakh rupees fine.
A b A
D None of these is correct.
Answer Key: A
Q142
:
Which section of the Juvenile justice (care and protection of children) Act, 2015 provides procedure
for 'inter country' adoption of an orphan or abandoned or surrendered child.
" ( ) 7, 2015 " " ,
03 |A - 3 p 4"i 4
A Sec-58
58
B Sec-57
57
C Sec-56
56
D Sec-59
59
Answer Key: D
Q143
:
Who will create the 'juvenile justice fund' under the Juvenile justice (care and protection of children)
Act, 2015
" ( ) 7, 2015 " 7
" "
A State government
J
B Child welfare committee
?
C Central government
k
D None of these is correct
Answer Key: A
-
Q144
:
Under the Juvenile justice(care and protection of children) Act, 2015 the penalty for offence of non
reporting is -
" ( ) 7, 2015 0A
!
A Shall be punished with imprisonment up to one year
7 A
B Shall be punished with imprisonment up to seven years
7 A
C Shall be liable to imprisonment up to six months or fine of ten thousand rupees or both
7 : b A W
D Shall be liable for fine uo to one lakh rupees
A b
Answer Key: C
Q145
:
Giving and Taking dowry is punishable under which section of the Dowry prohibition Act, 1961
4 7-1961 A " A
A Sec-3
-3
B Sec-4
-4
C Sec-3 and 4
-3 4
D Sec-6
-6
Answer Key: A
Q146
:
Court can take cognizance for the offence under the Dowry prohibition Act, 1961 upon -
4 7-1961 A " t
A On Police report
0A
B On Complaint
0
C Both (Police report & Complaint)
-
0A 0
D None of these is correct
Answer Key: C
Q147
:
If the maternal uncle of bridegroom demands Dowry from the paternal uncle of bride. This act
punishable under which section of the Dowry prohibition Act 1961.
E 4 7 1961 "
A
A Secction-3
-3
B Section-4
-4
C Section-3 read with Section-4
-3 E -4
D None of these is correct
Answer Key: B
Q148
:
The provision of making list of presents received at he time of marriage is -
4Q W 4
A Mandatory for bride and bridegroom
- t
B Discretionary for bride and bridegroom
- 7
C Mandatory for the father of bridgegroom
t
D None of these is correct
Answer Key: A
Q149
:
If the bride dies with in 7 years of her marriage otherwise than due to natural course then her property
related to her marriage shall be transferred to
E ? 7 A 4 i 3
-
7 0
A Children
B Is no children then parent
C Husband
D Both (Children and Is no children then parent)
W
Answer Key: D
Q150
:
Father of bride gives present of customary nature to bride which are not exceeding his financial status,
come under the definition of dowry. This statement is -
E ? bE 4 3 ?
0
A True
3
B False
3
C Can not say
D None of these is correct
Answer Key: B
-
Assistant District Public Prosecution Officer
Law-2
(Provisional Model Answer Key)
Q1
:
Abetment of an offence can be constituted by :
A Intentional aid
B Instigation
C Conspiracy
$%
D All are correct
( )
Answer Key: D
Q2
:
The law of bigamy does not apply where:-
* )
A There was no mens rea
/ * )
B The other spouse was living in a shared house
/) /3 ) / 5
C Bonafide reasons to believe that shows was dead
/ 6 78 9 /3 : 3
D None of these is correct
) )
Answer Key: C
Q3
:
"Illicit intercourse" implies
''> ''
A Rape
3
-
B Prostitution
@3
C Sex between two person not united by lawful marriage
* A>B
D Sex with a sleeping woman
E ) %
Answer Key: C
Q4
:
Mr.Sohan with intention of causing death of a child of tender years exposes him in a desert place.
Mr.Sohan is liable under which section of Indian penal code.
. : 3 F 8 5
I / : 9 5 3
A Section -304
304
B Section-511
511
C Section-317
317
D Section-307
307
Answer Key: D
Q5
:
Provisions regarding cheating is explained under which section of Indian penal code -
* B I / : 9 5
A Section-415
415
B Section-428
428
C Section-411
411
D Section-403
403
Answer Key: A
-
Q6
:
Which one of the following is not included as a "public servant" under section 21 of the Indian Panal
Code 1860
I / 1860 : 21 8 5 "-" : F 5 ) -
A Pilot of Indian Airlines
I $
B Government school's teacher
) L
C Justice of supreme court
MN $ $
D Chairman of co-operative society
./ )
Answer Key: D
Q7
:
Difference between murder and culpable homicide was laid down in the case of
3 5 9 5 9
A Reg vs. Govinda
$
B Bachan singh vs. state of punjab
P
C Tapti prasad vs. king Emperor
Q R
D K.M Nanawati vs. state of Maharashtra
.. ) S P
Answer Key: A
Q8
:
Bride burning is an offence as defined under section :-
9 5 F
A 302 of IPC
I / : 302
B 304 of IPC
I / : 304
C 300 of IPC
I / : 300
-
D 304 B of IPC
I / : 304
Answer Key: D
Q9
:
Z instigates X to murder Y. X refuses to do so what offence Z has committed
Z X Y : 3 . X Z > 9
A Attempt of computer
3
B Criminal conspiracy
* $%
C Abetment to commit murder
3 F
D No offence
)
Answer Key: C
Q10
:
Section 511 of the Indian penal code provides :-
I / : 511
A For application of I.P.C in Jammu and Kashmir
@ 5 / : >
B A power to executive to frame rules of Indian Panal Code
I / 5 : 8 >
C A power to court to declare any act as an offence
$ 9 3 : >
D A residuary section of criminal attempt
* :
Answer Key: D
Q11
:
'A' cut down tree B's land with intention to take away that tree without B's consent. A has committed the
offence of :-
'A' 'B' : V 'B' : 9 'A' >
9
A No offence until the tree is taken away
) 9 )
-
B Criminal breach of trust
*
C Theft as soon as tree was cut down and severed from ground
), PB ) / /
D Criminal misappropriation of property
3 * 8
Answer Key: C
Q12
:
'A' and ' B ' agreed to commit theft in C's house but no theft was actually committed They have
committed the offence of :-
'A' 'B', C 5 ) 9 5 ) ) $B
9
A Criminal conspiracy
* %
B Abetment by conspiracy
% 3
C Abetment by instigation
3
D No offence
)
Answer Key: A
Q13
:
The maximum limit of solitary confinement under section 73 of I.P.C is :-
I / : 73 8 $ F : * 9
A One year
8
B Three months
C Two year
8
D Six months
:
Answer Key: B
-
Q14
:
A without B's consent and with intent to cause injury fear or annoyance to B incites a dog to spring upon
B, A has committed :
A, B : V B L, L F 3 B
, A F 9
A Mischief
F
B Assault
C Negligent conduct with respect to animal
-$ 5 L8
D Use of criminal force
* -
Answer Key: B
Q15
:
Under the Criminal procedure code the period of limitation for taking cognizance of any offence
punishable with imprisonment of three years is :-
I 9Z / 3 I [ 8
*
A Two years
8
B three years
8
C Six months
:
D No limitation
8 )
Answer Key: B
Q16
:
Under section 357 A (2 ) of cr. p.c . Which of the following authority is authorized to decide quantum of
compensation
357 (2) I 9Z / 8
: % 8
A Sessions Judge
$
B Sub - Divisional Magistrate
-
-I S
C District Magistrate
S
D State or District legal services Authority
P * *
Answer Key: B
Q17
:
At trial, it appears to the Magistrate that the case be ought to be tried by the court of sessions, in which
section of the code he shall commit the case?
S 9 $ 9 /
8 : 8) / : 9 5
A Section-209
209
B Section-323
323
C Section-325
325
D Section-193
193
Answer Key: B
Q18
:
A Magistrate of the first class may award a sentence of imprisonment under code of criminal procedure,
1973 up to the period of
8 S $ I 9Z / 1973 5 9
A A three years according to section 29
29 3 8 :
B Three and half year according to section 30
30 3 8 6 :
C Seven years according to section 31
31 7 8 :
D Ten years according to section 27
27 10 8 :
Answer Key: A
-
Q19
:
Who can take cognizance under section 190 of the Code of criminal procedure 1973
190 I 9Z / 1973 8 [
A session Judge
$
B High court
N $
C Judicial Magistrate
$ S
D District Magistrate
S
Answer Key: C
Q20
:
According to first schedule of Cr. P.C 1973 offence of Robbery on the high way between sunset and
sunrise, shall be punishable for rigorous imprisonment of 14 years and fine, is tribal by
I 9Z / 1973 : ''8 M \ 8 :
14 8 / 8 I '' 9
A Sessions judge
$
B Assistant sessions judge
$
C Additional sessions judges under section 28
$ 28 8
D First class magistrate
8 S
Answer Key: D
Q21
:
In a summons case the magistrate can stop the proceeding at any stage without pronouncing judgment,
this has been provided under which section of code of criminal procedure 1973.
5 S 8 8 9 Z 8)
I 9Z / 1973 5 9 5 9
A Section - 258
258 5
B Section - 257
-
257 5
C Section - 259
259 5
D Section - 209
209 5
Answer Key: A
Q22
:
Which offence is not compoundable under section 320(2) of code of criminal procedure 1973?
320(2) I 9Z 1973 / 8 9 ) 9
A Causing miscarriage under section 312 Indian penal code 1860
8 8 312 I / 1860
B Criminal breach of trust under section 406 Indian penal code 1860
* $ 406 I / 1860
C Causing death by rash or negligent under section 304-A Indian penal code 1860
L8 8 3 F 304 I / 1860
D Voluntarily causing grievous hurt under section 325 Indian penal code 1860
N8 F 325 I / 1860
Answer Key: C
Q23
:
Special summon under section 206 of Cr. P.C can be issued by
I 9Z / : 206 5 9 ) 9
A A magistrate
S
B A court of sessions
$
C By magistrate as well as the court of sessions
S $ B
D By the high court
N $
Answer Key: A
Q24
:
Mark the incorrect matching.
6
-
A Power to compel restoration of abducted females Section - 98
%B : > 98
B Search for persons wrongfully confined Section 97
A>B 97
C Magistrate may direct search in his presence - 104
S 5 ) ] 104
D Power of police officer to seize certain property Section - 102
/ : *) : > 102
Answer Key: C
Q25
:
"Directorate of prosecution" under Section - 25A of the code of criminal Procedure 1973, has been
inserted by which of the following Amendment Act.
'' '' I 9Z / 1973 : 25 5 9 *
A By the Act No.25 of 2005
2005 * . 25
B By the Act NO.45 of 2005
2005 * . 45
C By the Act NO.2 of 2005
2005 * . 2
D By the Act NO.15 of 2005
2005 * . 15
Answer Key: A
Q26
:
Disposal of property during the pendency of trial is governed by:
A 9 5
A Section - 454 of Cr. p. c
454 I 9Z /
B Section - 452 of Cr. p. c
452 I 9Z /
C Section - 453 of Cr. p. c
453 I 9Z /
D Section - 451 of Cr. p. c
-
451 I 9Z /
Answer Key: D
Q27
:
Under Section 83 of Cr.P.C. 1973, the court may order the attachment of any property of the person who
is absconding -
I 9Z / 1973 : 83 ^ $ A> : 3 : _
A After publication of the proclamation
@
B Before publication of the proclamation
8
C Simultaneously with the issue of proclamation
-
D Either after publication of the proclamation or Simultaneously with the issue of proclamation
@ -
Answer Key: D
Q28
:
Cognizance of offence under section 498 A of IPC, 1860 can be taken on
I / 1860 : 498 [
A Police report
F8
B On the complaint of the person aggrieved
` A> F
C On the complaint of the father, mother, brother or sister of the person aggrieved
` F
D All are correct
( )
Answer Key: D
Q29
:
Which one of the following statement is correct?
5 3
A Accused is not competent witness
> A> L L )
B The accused shall punishable if he gives false answer under Section 313 Code of criminal procedure
-
I 9Z / : 313 8 3 > I 9
C
Conviction or commitment on evidence partly recorded by one magistrate and partly by another can be
done.
: S : S a \ 8 :
D The compounding of an offence under section 320 (8) of Cr . P. C shall not have the effect of an acquittal.
I 9Z / : 320 (8) > )
Answer Key: C
Q30
:
Which one of the following statement is incorrect about irregularities, which does not vitiate
proceedings?
'' 8) ) '' 5 5 - 3
A To hold an inquest under Section - 176 of Cr. P.C
I 9Z / : 176 3 L
B To tender pardon under Section 306 of Cr. P.C
I 9Z / : 306 L
C Takes cognizance of an offence under clause (C) of sub - section (1) of section 190 Cr.PC.
I 9Z / : 190 : (1) () 9 [
D To issue a search - warrant under Section 94 of Cr.P.C
I 9Z / : 94 )
Answer Key: C
Q31
:
In which of the following, secondary evidence relating to a document cannot be given?
5 9 F 5 a ) / ?
A
When the original document is in possession of the person against whom the document is sought to be
proved
9 8 9 5 9 A> b 5 V 9
B When the original document is in possession of the person who wants to prove it
9 A> b 5 V
C
When the original document is lost without any default or negligence on the part of the person who wants
to prove it
9 A> : L AZ V V ,
D When the original document is of such nature which cannot be easily moved
-
9 $F ) 9
Answer Key: B
Q32
:
Which kind of agreement can be presumed by the Court under Section 85-A of the Indian evidence Act?
a * : 85- $8 $ 9 : :
?
A Written Agreement
B Oral Agreement
C Electronic Agreement
>S
D None of these is correct
) )
Answer Key: C
Q33
:
A witness unable to speak, if gives his statement in writing before the Court, then such Evidence Shall
be deemed to be:
5 8 / $ 5 5 , 5 : a
A Oral evidence
a
B Documentary evidence
a
C Hearsay evidence
c a
D
Secondary evidence
a
Answer Key: A
Q34
:
When the court has to form an opinion as to the electronic signature of any person, the opinion of the
certifying authority which has issued the electronic signature certificate is:
$ 9 A> >S L 8 *) :
>S L ) 9 -
A Inadmissible in evidence
-
a 5 ^d )
B Irrelevant fact
e )
C Relevant fact
e
D None of these is correct
) )
Answer Key: C
Q35
:
In which of the following cases the burden of proof of not committing the particular offences is on an
accused person and not on the prosecution?
5 9 5 9 > 9 ?
A Section 111 and 113 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872
a * 1872 : 111 113 5
B Section 111- A,113-A,113-B and 114-A of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872
a * 1872 : 111 , 113-, 113-, 114- 5
C Section 111A, 112 and 113-B of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872
a * 1872 : 111- , 112 113- 5
D Section 111A,112 and 113 A of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872
a * 1872 : 111 , 112 113 5
Answer Key: B
Q36
:
A witness cannot be converted into an accused person, though may be compelled to answer questions
relating to an offence. Under which section of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, this immunity is granted
to a witness?
L > f F 8 ) 9 8 5 @
g * a * 1872 : - 5 Q
A Under Section 148
148 5
B Under Section 163
163 5
C Under Section 131
131 5
D Under Section 132
-
132 5
Answer Key: D
Q37
:
To reach at a proper conclusion and for proof of relevant fact, court may ask any question, in any form,
at any time to any person or witnesses. This power is conferred to the court under which section of the
Indian Evidence Act, 1872
$ * 8 eB * Q 9 L
9 f 5 9 @ a * 1872 : 9 5
$ > : -
A Section 135 and 136
135 5 136 5
B Section 165
165 5
C Section 148
148 5
D Section 137
137 5
Answer Key: B
Q38
:
'A' is tried for a riot and is proved to have marched as the head of a mob. The cries of the mob are
relevant as:
'' F 9 - V :
A
They are related to thing said or done by the conspirators in reference to the common design
g >B9 $ F( 5 %FB ) : B *
B Explanation of the nature of the transaction
A :
C Explanation of motive or preparation
) )
D Explanation of occasion, cause or effect of facts
eB , FB )
Answer Key: B
Q39 'A' prosecutes 'B' for adultery with 'C' who is 'A's' wife. 'B' denies that 'C' is 'A's' wife, but the court convicts 'B' for adultery. Thereafter, 'C' is prosecuted for bigamy for marrying 'B' during 'A's' lifetime.
-
: 'C' says that she was never 'A's' wife. The judgment against 'B' is:
'' , 3 '' 8 ,'' '' 3
9 '' : 3 '' $ 8 '' \ 3@ ''
5 '' '' : '' '' :
3 ) '' f / 8 -
A
Irrelevant against 'C'
''
B
Relevant against 'B'
''
C
Not Relevant against 'B' and 'C'
'' '' )
D
Relevant against 'C'
''
Answer Key: A
Q40
:
Husband and wife both are competent witness for each other:
3 f\ L L B -
A In Civil case
5
B In Investigation
$ 5
C In Criminal case
* B
D In Civil and Criminal
* B 5
Answer Key: D
Q41
:
According to schedule cast and schedule tribe (Atrocities) Act, 1989 "Schedule Cast and Schedule
Tribe" Shall have same meaning assigned to them respectively under-
* * (3 ) * , 1989 $8 ''*
* '' ) 8 5 8
A Section 2(24) and Section 2(25) of code of criminal procedure 1973
I 9Z / 1973 5 2 (24) 2 (25) 8
-
B Article 2(22) and Article 2(23) of constitution of India
N 2 (22) 2 (23) 8
C Article 366(24) and Article 366(25) of constitution of India
N 366 (24) N 366(25) 8
D Section 2(24) and Section 2(25) of Indian penal code
I / : 2 (24) 2 (25) 8
Answer Key: C
Q42
:
The provision regarding the person who compels or entices any member of Schedule Cast and Schedule
Tribe to do "begar" is provided in the following section of Schedule Cast and Schedule Tribe(prevention
of Atrocities)Act, 1989
* * (3 ) *,1989 $8 9 5
A> * * A> ''
A Section 3(III)
3 (III)
B Section 3(IV)
3 (IV)
C Section 3(V)
3 (V)
D Section 3(VI)
3 (VI)
Answer Key: D
Q43
:
According to schedule cast and schedule tribe (prevention of Atrocities) Act,1989 what shall be the
maximum punishment under section 3 for a person who not being member of schedule cast and schedule
tribe does any offence against any member of schedule cast and schedule tribe?
* * (3 ) * , 1989 : 3
A> 5 * > ) * *
) * * A> F ?
A Death punishment
3I
B Life imprisonment
C Rigorous imprisonment up to 14 years
-
14 8
D Rigorous imprisonment up to 20 years
20 8
Answer Key: A
Q44
:
According to schedule cast and schedule tribe (prevention of Atrocities)Act,1989 what shall be
enhanced punishment for the subsequent conviction mentioned in the act ?
* * (3 ) *, 1989
@j *8 I > ?
A Imprisonment for a term which shall not be less than six month, but which may extend to one year
6 ) 9$ 8
B
Imprisonment for a term which shall not be less than one year, but which may extend to punishment
provided for that offence
1 8 ) 9$ $ I
C
Imprisonment for a term which shall not be less than one year, and also include fine provided for that
offence
1 8 ) 9$ 8 I
D Imprisonment for a term which shall not be less than one month, but which may extend to one year
1 ) 9$ 8
Answer Key: B
Q45
:
Under the schedule cast and schedule tribe (prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989 which presumptions
shall be drawn as regarding the offences -
* * (3 ) *, 1989 B 5 B
5 :
A Common intention
$
B Common object
$ \
C Abetment
D All are correct
( )
Answer Key: C
-
Q46
:
Under which of the following provision of any mentioned act, the state government has power to impose
and realize fine for all other matters connected under schedule cast and schedule tribe (prevention of
Atrocities) Act,1989
* * (3 ) * 1989 $8 8 9
5 P / 8 * $ $
B : > Q ?
A Section - 10 of protection of civil right Act 1955
* L * , 1955 : 10 $8
B Section - 10 A of protection of civil right Act 1955
* L * , 1955 : 10 $8
C Section - 10 of untouchability (offences) Act 1955
() * , 1955 : 10 $8
D Section - 10 A of untouchability (offences) Act 1955
() *, 1955 : 10 $8
Answer Key: B
Q47
:
Definition of "hunting" According to the Wild life (protection) Act-1972 includes :-
'''' : F $ (L) * 1972 $8 -
A Injuring any part of the body of any wild animal
9 $ 9 L^
B Damaging eggs of wild birds or reptiles
$ L )B B
C
Both (Injuring any part of the body of any wild animal & Damaging eggs of wild birds or reptiles)
( 9 $ 9 L^ $ L )B B
)
D None of these is correct
) )
Answer Key: C
Q48
:
Which section of the Wild life (protection) Act 1972 deals with the provisions regarding "Restriction on
entry in Sanctuary"
$ (L) * 1972 $8 - 'lI 5 8$'
$ -
A Section - 25
-
- 25
B Section - 26
- 26
C Section - 27
- 27
D Section - 28
- 28
Answer Key: C
Q49
:
Which one of the following is not a "Vermin" according to schedule 5th of Wild life (protection) Act
1972:-
$ L * 1972 : 5 5 '' $'' ) -
A Common crow
$
B Mice
/
C Rats
D Turtle
Answer Key: D
Q50
:
Which chapter of the Wild life (protection) Act 1972 is related to prevention and detention of offence :-
$ (L) * 1972 - \ B $
-
A Chapter 6
\ 6
B Chapter 5A
\ 5
C Chapter 5
\ 5
D Chapter 3
\ 3
-
Answer Key: A
Q51
:
Which of the following is not food as defined under section 3(1) (j) of The Food safety and Standard Act
2006.
L * 2006 : 3 (1) (j) 5 F '' '' b 5 5 >
) -
A Infant food
B
B Packaged drinking water
9
C Animal feed
D Alcoholic drink
(
Answer Key: C
Q52
:
Which section of the Food safety and standard Act 2006 provides that "No advertisement shall be made
of any food which is misleading the provisions of this Act, the rules and regulations made there under:
L * 2006 : 9 5 9 ''
[ ) * B m ''
A Section - 24
-24
B Section - 23
-23
C Section - 22
-22
D Section - 21
-21
Answer Key: A
Q53
:
Food safety and standard Act 2006 provides that "No food operator shall himself or by any person on his
behalf manufacture, store, sell or distribute any article of food:-
L * 2006 9 :
$ ^ 8, I, Z ) ^ -
A Which is unsafe
-
oL
B Which is misbranded
e
C For which a license is required
[Q @
D All are correct
( )
Answer Key: D
Q54
:
A person found guilty of misbranded food under section 52 of Food safety and standard Act 2006, shall
be liable to a penalty which may extend to:
L * 2006 : 52 8 e
A> 8 I 9 -
A Up to Three lac rupees
p
B Up to Fifty thousand rupees
N p
C Up to two lac rupees
p
D Up to one lac rupees
p
Answer Key: A
Q55
:
Under the Prevention of corruption Act, 1988 No person shall be appointed as special Judge unless he is
or has been __
8 A> m * 1988 , 8 $ f 5 >
/8 ) - 9 -
A Sessions Judge.
% $
B Additional sessions Judge.
F> $
C Assistant Sessions Judge.
% $
D All are correct
-
( )
Answer Key: D
Q56
:
Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding powers of special Judge appointed under
prevention of corruption Act, 1988 ?
5 m *, 1988 8 $ * >B
8 5 3 -
A He may take cognizance of offence without accused being committed to him
B [ > : 8
B
He shall follow the procedure prescribed by the Code of criminal procedure 1973 for trial of warrant cases
by magistrate
I 9Z / 1973 5 S I B /
9Z
C
It shall be lawful for him to pass sentences of 3 year while conviction in summary trial
oLQ 5 \ *- 9 8
D He may tender a pardon to person who took part in commission of offence
a Q : q A> L 5
Answer Key: C
Q57
:
The word "Legal remuneration" has been defined in which section of the Prevention of corruption Act,
1988
m * , 1988 8 9 5 '' Fc'' b -
A Section - 2
-2
B Section - 7
-7
C Section - 4
-4
D Section - 8
-8
Answer Key: B
Q58 According to prevention of corruption Act,1988 any public servant obtaining valuable thing without consideration under Sec-11 shall be punishable with :
-
: m * 1988 : 11 8 V
(
Q , ` -
A
Imprisonment for a term not less than one month but which may extend to one year and shall also be liable
to fine
: * 8 : , 9$ ) 8
` 9
B
Imprisonment for a term not less than six month but which may extend to five year and shall also be liable
to fine
: * 8 : , 9$ : ) 8
` 9
C
Imprisonment for a term not less than six month but which may extend to seven year and shall also be
liable to fine
: * 8 : , 9$ : ) 8
` 9
D
Imprisonment for a term not less than six month but which may extend to ten year and shall also be liable
to fine
: * 8 : , 9$ : ) 8
` 9
Answer Key: B
Q59
:
Which of the following is not criminal misconduct by public servant according to prevention of
corruption Act, 1988?
> m * 1988, 8 * )
-
A Habitually accepts gratification other than legal remuneration
/ 9 A> l: Fc $ s8 F Q
B if he cannot satisfactorily account for cash with him during the period of his office
/ b $ 5 : * -
C if he accept gratification reward as legal remuneration
/ F Fc f 5 Q 5
D if he accept valuable thing for spouse without consideration
/ ( V
Q 5
Answer Key: C
Q60 In which section punishment has been provided for person who habitually commits offences relating to gratification without consideration under the Prevention of corruption Act 1988:
-
: m * 1988 : 9 5 V
F Q
l: : 8F :
A Section - 13
-13
B Section - 14
-14
C Section - 15
-15
D Section - 16
-16
Answer Key: B
Q61
:
Which of the following word has not been defined under prevention of corruption Act, 1988
5 b m * , 1988 8 F ) 9 -
A Corruption
m
B Gratification
F
C Public duty
D Election
8
Answer Key: A
Q62
:
Out of the following whose prior sanction is required to prosecute under prevention of corruption Act
1988
5 9: 8 m *,1988 8 @
A Head of the department
\L
B Authority who has appointed such public servant
*) > 9
C Authority who has competent power to remove him from office
-
*) L
D All are correct
( )
Answer Key: C
Q63
:
Which of the following section contains provision regarding presumption under prevention of corruption
Act, 1988
m * , 1988 8 9 5 *
A Section - 17
-17
B Section - 18
-18
C Section - 19
-19
D Section - 20
-20
Answer Key: D
Q64
:
Which section of the Prevention of corruption Act, 1988 contains provisions that military laws are not
affected by it
5 5 9 m * ,1988 : *B
) -
A Section - 23
-23
B Section - 24
-24
C Section - 25
-25
D Section - 26
-26
Answer Key: C
Q65
:
Under the Arms Act, 1959 which one of the following is not "Ammunition":
*, 1959 5 > '' f'' )
-
A Rockets
B Fues
)
C Grenades
^
D Firearms
6
Answer Key: D
Q66
:
Under the which section of Arms Act,1959 Central Government can prohibit import or export of arms:
* 1959 $8 9 5 $E B - 8
\
A Section - 9
-9
B Section - 10
-10
C Section - 11
-11
D Section - 12
-12
Answer Key: C
Q67
:
According to the Arms Act,1959 if officer does not send his report on application of license with in
prescribed time to licensing authority, the licensing authority:
-* , 1959 *) / 5 [Q
: F8 [ *) ) t [ *) -
A Will wait further for thirty days
/ L
B May refuse or grant license without further waiting
V L 9 [Q 3
C Ask the superintendent of police to submit the report within 15 days
L 15 / 5 F8 t
-
D Will report himself without further wait
V L 9 F8
Answer Key: B
Q68
:
Who can arrest the person conveying the arms under suspicious circumstances under the Arms Act,
1959
5 *) * , 1959 /6 FB 5
A>B : *u) ?
A Any magistrate
S
B Police officer
*)
C Railway officer
*)
D All are correct
( )
Answer Key: D
Q69
:
Which Section of the Arms act,1959 provides search and seizure of house of premises by magistrate?
* , 1959 8 9 5 S F : -
A Section - 22
-22
B Section - 23
-23
C Section - 24
-24
D Section - 25
-25
Answer Key: A
Q70
:
What is the maximum Punishment provided for contravention of section 7 of Arms Act, 1959,
mentioned in Section 25 of the same Act along with fine.
* , 1959 25 5 ( 7 ( : * 8 /
-
A Not less than three years but exceeds to five years.
8 ) $ 8
B Not less than five years but exceeds to Seven years.
8 ) $ 8
C Not less than Seven years but exceeds to ten years.
8 ) $ 8
D Not less than seven years but exceeds to imprisonment of life.
8 ) $
Answer Key: D
Q71
:
Under Arms Act 1959, what punishment along with fine is provided for the person who knowingly
purchases arms from unlicensed person.
* ,1959 8 A> 9 [Q
/ A> 3/ Z -
A Imprisonment up to 10 years
: * 8
B Imprisonment up to 3 years
: * 8
C Imprisonment up to 5 years
: * 8
D Imprisonment up to 7 years
: * 8
Answer Key: B
Q72
:
Under Arms Act, 1959, the license can be varied, suspended and revoked under section:-
* , 1959 [Q 5 ,
-
A Section - 14
- 14
B Section - 15
- 15
C Section - 17
- 17
D Section - 18
-
- 18
Answer Key: C
Q73
:
Under Arms Act, 1959 for the Prosecution of persons for contravention of section 3 relating to license
for acquisition and possession of firearms and ammunition, previous sanction of which authority is
needed?
* , 1959 8 5 9: 8 3 5 / (
9 6$B f 8 b : [Q * 5
@
A District & Session judge
% $
B District Magistrate
S
C Sub-divisional Magistrate
S
D Public prosecutor
Answer Key: B
Q74
:
Which authority has power to exempt or withdraw from any part of India operation of all or any of
provision of Arms Act,1959
5 * 1959 B B 9 L% 5
5 3v
A Central government
$E
B State government
P
C Central government & State government both
$E P
D The President of India
S
Answer Key: A
Q75 Under which section of NDPS Act, 1985 the provision of enhanced punishment for offences after previous conviction has been made?
-
: * : 8 * , 1985 : 9 5 8 Q@ B
*8 -
A Section - 30
-30
B Section - 31
- 31
C Section - 31A
- 31
D Section - 32
-32
Answer Key: B
Q76
:
The chairman of appellate tribunal constituted under narcotic drug and substance Act,1985 shall be the
person who is or has been or is qualified to be:
* : 8 * 1985 8 / * \L
A> 8 Q -
A Judge of supreme court or of High Court
N $ N $ $
B Judge of Supreme court only
N $ $
C Judge of High court only
N $ $
D Judge of District Court only
Answer Key: A
Q77
:
According to NDPS Act,1985 the competent authority or appellate tribunal may amend any order within
a period of
* : 8 * 1985 8 L *) * 9
9 * *
A Two years
8
B Three years
8
-
C One year
8
D Six months
:
Answer Key: C
Q78
:
Under the provisions of NDPS Act,1985 the officer has the power of seizure in Public place and arrest
* : 8 * 1985 : 9 5 *) 5
^ *u : > / ?
A Section - 43
-43
B Section - 44
-44
C Section - 45
-45
D Section - 46
-46
Answer Key: A
Q79
:
Which offences shall be triable only by special courts constituted under section 36-A of NDPS Act,
1985
5 9 * : 8 *, 1985 : 36-A
8 / $ B
A Offences punishable with imprisonment for term more than one year.
8 * : *
B Offences punishable with imprisonment for term more than two year.
8 * : *
C Offences punishable with imprisonment for term more than three year.
8 * : *
D Offences punishable with imprisonment for term more than six months.
: * : *
Answer Key: C
Q80 Chapter IV of the Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic substances Act,1985 is related to provisions :-
-
: * : 8 * 1985 \ 4 B $ -
A Offences and penalties
B
B Authorities and officers
* *)
C Procedure
9Z
D Prohibition, control and regulation
, %
Answer Key: A
Q81
:
Definition of "Opium" includes :-
'':'' : F 5 -
A Any preparation containing more than 0.2 percent of morphine.
8 5 0.2
* _
B Coagulated juice of the opium poppy
: /
C Any mixture, with or without any neutral material, of the coagulated juice of the opium poppy
: / c 8 / V
D All are correct
( )
Answer Key: D
Q82
:
Section 15 NDPS Act,1985 is provide punishment for :-
15 NDPS Act,1985 I -
A Contravention in relation to Coca plant and Coca leaves.
: 3B $ ( I
B Contravention in relation to opium poppy and opium
: : $ 5 ( I
C Contravention in relation to prepared opium
8 : 5 ( I
D Contravention in relation to poppy straw
-
% 5 ( I
Answer Key: D
Q83
:
Section _______ of NDPS Act, 1985 is related to constitution of special courts :
NDPS * 1985 : _______ $ $ -
A Section - 36
-36
B Section - 37
-37
C Section - 38
- 38
D Section - 39
- 39
Answer Key: A
Q84
:
The word "Electricity" is defined in the following section of the Electricity Act, 2003
*, 2003 8 '' '' : F 9 5 )
A 2(21)
2 (21)
B 2(22)
2 (22)
C 2(23)
2 (23)
D 2(24)
2 (24)
Answer Key: C
Q85
:
What a person can do when he gets license under section 12 of the Electricity Act, 2003
A> *, 2003 : 12 5 [Q Q @ 5 >
A
Transmission of electricity
B Distribution electricity
-
C
Undertaking Trading in Electricity
5 A
D All are correct
( )
Answer Key: D
Q86
:
Which of the following organization / commission is not mentioned under Electricity Act, 2003
5 / * 2003 5 8 )
A National load dispatch centre
S) $E
B State load dispatch centre
P $E
C Inter State Load dispatch centre
$8P $E
D Regional Load dispatch centre
$E
Answer Key: C
Q87
:
Theft of electricity has been defined in which section of Electricity Act, 2003
* 2003 : 9 8 V) : ) -
A Section - 134
-134 5
B Section - 135
-135 5
C Section - 136
- 136 5
D Section - 138
- 138 5
Answer Key: B
Q88 Under the electricity Act, 2003 what factors are taken into consideration by adjudicating officer for
-
: calculating quantum of penalty:
* , 2003 $ 8 *) : % 8 9
B \ -
A Amount of disproportionate gain
AZ Ff Q
B Gain of unfair advantage
* B : %
C The repetitive nature of default
AZ - 9
D All are correct
( )
Answer Key: D
Q89
:
Under the Electricity Act, 2003 in the case of theft of electricity, what shall be the punishment fine on
the first conviction if the load exceeds 10 kilowatt?
* , 2003 ) B 5 5 > I
: % 10 9 * ) -
A Not less than two times the financial gain on account of such theft of electricity
) 3 )
B Not less than three times the financial gain on account of such theft of electricity
) 3
C Not less than five times the financial gain on account of such theft of electricity
) 3
D Not less than six times the financial gain on account of such theft of electricity
) 3 )
Answer Key: B
Q90
:
Abetment of an offence is punishable under which section of the Electricity Act, 2003?
B *, 2003 :
A Section - 150
-150 5
B Section - 151
-
- 151 5
C Section - 152
-152 5
D Section - 153
-153 5
Answer Key: A
Q91
:
Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding offence in the Electricity Act, 2003?
5 * , 2003 5 8 5 B 8 5 3 -
A Certain offences are non bailable
B compounding of offence is provided
B
C Civil Court also have Jurisdiction to try cases
$ : *F Q
D Special Courts are constituted under the Act, for trial of offences
B $B
Answer Key: C
Q92
:
Under which section of electricity Act, 2003 provision of arbitration has been provided?
* , 2003 8 9 5 \ -
A Section - 157
-157
B Section - 158
-158
C Section - 159
-159
D Section - 160
- 160
Answer Key: B
Q93 Which of the following statement is not correct regarding the powers of special court constituted underthe Electricity Act, 2003?
-
: * , 2003 8 / $ : >B 8 5 5
3 -
A This court has power to review its judgments
$ F 8 8
B This court is deemed as court of session for purpose of Act
$ $ $B $
C
This court can't determine civil liability against person or consumer for theft
$ > A> ) 3 8 )
D This court has power to try any case summarily
$ oLQ
Answer Key: C
Q94
:
Who are prohibited from employment under section 22 of the M.P. excise Act 1915, from the following
5 9 \ ) * , 1915 : 22 $8 8
A Male under 21 years and any woman
21 8 f /
B Child under