mmup final for civil engineers

Previous Exams MMUP QUESTIONS تجميع امتحانات

ENG. AHMED Al-BARBARY Civil Engineering

بسم هللا الرحمن الرحيم

MMUP Questions (Civil Engineering)

رسول هللا محمد صلى هللا حبيبي وشفيعي وسيدي والصالة والسالم على حمداً كما يحبه ربي ويرضاه رب العالمين هلل الحمدوعلى آله وصحبه أجمعين... عليه وسلم

This file is only a collecting question on civil engineering from consulting offices and from Engineers exams and finally some of my exam questions:

What have been done in this file?

1. Repeated questions are terminated 2. Missing & in-complete questions have been corrected 3. Questions in red color are with correct answers 4. Questions in green color are all right but I don’t know how to prove it 5. Questions in violet color are answered but not sure about it 6. Answers in blue color are information’s , I have searched for them before

exempting he exam



1. Question on pavement design using AASHTO Method SN = a1D1 + a2D2 + a3D3 + --------- SN = structural No. a = coefficient for layer D = Overlay depth You are required to find the overlay depth (D1) for a new wear course Asphalt Given: SN, a1, a2, D2

2. Maximum Value for PHF = 1, Minimum Value for PHF = 0.25

PHF =

3. Last component added for Cement production : Gypsum (calcium Sulphate)

4. Last component added for concrete : Pozzolans(Silica fume, Fly Ash, Slag Cement, Metakoalin)

5. Question on Manning Equation

Q =

Q= Discharge

n= Coefficient for channel material

R=

A: Cross sectional area

P: Wetted Perimeter S= Slope of channel

6. Flow Rate of WEIR:

a) Rectangular:

√

b) Triangular

√

c) Triangular ( = 900

)

√

Where;

Q = Discharge

b = width (m) h = head of weir (m)

g = 9.81

= V-Notch Angle



7. Calculate the maximum moment (Values are given for loads & dimensions)

Maximum moment = (WL)(L/2) + P(L/2)

Maximum moment = (WL) (L/2) + PL

8. Weaving in length on interchanges is necessary for: Changing Lane

9. Water Concentration : 55.6 (mol/l)

10. Water Molar Mass : 18 (g/mol)

11. Deepest utility in infrastructure works: a) Water Pipes b) Telecom c) Electricity d) Drainage

12. Why Cross-sections in Road projects are important?

To calculate cut & fill Quantities

13. Project manager characteristics should include all except : a) Skills b) Repeatability c) Speed d) Innovation

14. Hydraulic Jump is always :

a) Critical b) Sub-Critical c) Super-Critical d) Depends



15. For this Vertical Curve

Find the elevation at EVC??

a =

⁄

b =

C = 132

X = distance u want to get elevation from = 400

Therefore;

⁄

⁄

⁄

Y = -10 + 8 + 132 = 130 ft

16. Calculate Stress on Surface? Volume = X*Y*Z Weight = γconcrete * Volume

Stress =

17. Traffic

Where: q = Volume (Veh / hr) k = density (Veh / mile) u = Speed (mile / hr)

18. What is the meaning of Crashing a project

a) To increase project resources in order to reduce project total duration b) Project will not finish on time c) Project will not achieve its scope d) None of the above



19. Fast track project is a) A project (construction) that starts before design is complete b) A cost – plus – fee project c) A project that starts with huge manpower d) None of the above

20. What is the meaning of resource leveling :

a) A technique used to determine required resources for project tasks b) A technique used to examine unbalanced use of resources over time c) A report given to project manager about resources d) None of the above

21. In precedence Diagramming Method, activities are represented as:

a) Lines b) Nodes c) Point d) None of the above

22. Critical path means:

a) Longest sequence of activities path in a project b) Shortest sequence of activities path in a project c) The path that have the maximum resources assigned d) The path with the longest activities

23. In PERT chart, activity durations are calculated by:

a) Normal Distribution b) Binomial Distribution c) Logarithmic Distribution d) None of the above

24. For pipe network

Q= 10 m3 / sec

d (main) = 1 m QB = 3 m

3 / sec

dB = 0.5 m dA = 0.5 m Therefore; Q = QA + QB

QA = Q – QB = 10 – 3 = 7 m3/sec

QA = VA * AA

VA = QA / AA

AA =

= 0.196 m2

VA = QA/AA =

= 35.7 m/sec

25. The process of keeping concrete moist for a certain period after casting is known as:

a) Finishing of concrete b) Curing of concrete c) Placing of concrete d) None of the above



26. A Cantilever beam with a rectangular cross-section is subjected to a concentrated load at its free end. If the width of the beam is doubled, the deflection of the free end will be changed in the ratio of :

a) 8 b) 1/8 c) 1/2 d) 2

27. The bending moment is maximum on a section where shearing force is:

a) Maximum b) Minimum c) Changing Sign d) None of the above

28. What does QCS stands for??

Qatar Construction Specification

29. What is the common yield strength of reinforcement steel? a) 100 MPa b) 200 MPa c) 275 MPa d) 460 MPa

30. What is the maximum allowable moment redistribution in RCC beams?

a) 10 % b) 20 % c) 30 % d) 40 %

31. What is QSAS?

Qatar Sustainability Assessment System

32. Safe design load for pile drilled in hard rock depends on: a) Strength of rock b) Crushing strength of concrete c) Buckling of pile d) None of the above

33. RQD = 100 represents :

a) Intact rock b) Fractural rock c) Gravel d) None of the above

RQD = Rock Quality Designation

RQD = ∑



34. If the liquid limit of clay is 50 , and the plasticity index is 30, then the plastic limit is:

a) 20 b) 30 c) 50 d) 80

PI = L.L – P.L. = 50 – 30 = 20

35. Generally, weight of reinforcement concrete in Kg/m3 is:

a) 1500 b) 1600 c) 2000 d) 2400

36. Why steel is used as reinforcement in reinforced concrete:

a) Easily available b) Good bond to concrete c) Coefficient of thermal expansion is the same for steel & concrete d) All the above

37. Slump test of concrete is used to test:

a) Workability b) Durability c) Strength d) Water content

38. If the water required for 1 bag of cement is 30 liters, the water-cement ratio is:

a) 0.4 b) 0.5 c) 0.6 d) None of the above

Weight of 1 bag of cement = 50 KG

Therefore; water cement ratio =

= 0.6

39. Stress means: a) The internal forces developed in a material due to external forces =

(force/Area) b) Ability to resist external forces c) Deformation in a material due to external forces d) Forces applied perpendicular to the longitudinal axis of a member

40. The value if concrete cube strength is given at:

a) 1 day b) 8 days c) 28 days d) 35 days



41. For a simply supported beam, the shear and flexural stresses will be equal to zero at:

a) End supports b) Middle of span & above neutral axis c) Middle of span and on the neutral axis d) End supports and below neutral axis

42. Nominal moment of resistance, Mn for a rectangular section is given by:

a) Mn = fc a b (d -

)

b) Mn = As Fy (d -

)

c) Mn = As Fy (d -

) + fc a b (d -

)

d) Mn = ρ b d2 Fy ( 1 - 0.59 ρ

)

43. Strength of concrete primarily depends on :

a) Quality of water b) Quantity of aggregates c) Quantity of cement d) Water-Cement ratio

Common range is 0.38 0.5

44. If a T-shaped beam passes over many supports, the section above the support should be designed as:

a) Rectangular section b) T-Section c) I-section d) None of the above

45. Soundness of cement is tested by:

a) Vicat’s apparatus b) Le – chatelier apparatus c) Compressive strength testing apparatus d) None of the above

46. Air entrained concrete is used in lining walls and roofs to make them:

a) Heat insulated b) Sound insulated c) None of the above d) (a) & (b)

47. In the cantilever truss shown, the horizontal component of the reaction @ A is:

a) 30 tonnes b) 60 tonnes c) 90 tonnes d) 120 tonnes

= (10*15)/5



48. A simply supported beam carrying a uniformly distributed load is propped at the center of the span so that the beam is held to the level of the end supports. The reaction of the prop will be:

a) Half of the distributed load b) 3/8 the distributed load c) 5/8 the distributed load d) None of the above

49. Four columns of a building are to be located within a plot size 10m*10m.The

expected load of each column is 4000 KN. Allowable bearing capacity of soil is 100 KPa. The suitable type of foundation is:

a) Isolated footing b) Raft footing c) Pile foundation d) Combined footing

Total plot area = 10*10 = 100 m2

Total column load = 4*4000 = 16000 KN

Required bearing area =

= 160 m

2 > 100 m

2

So, it is not possible to achieve safe bearing on the soil within the plot area

50. For the beam below, the deflection @ point B is:

a)

b)

c) none of the above

51. for the beam below, the slope at the middle of the beam is:

a) zero

b)

c)

52. For the beam below, find the deflection @ point B:

a)

b)

c)



53. Find the moment @ the middle of the beam a) 100 KN.m b) 50 KN.m c) 64 KN.m d) 0 KN.m

Mmidspan =

=

= 64 KN.m

54. Ultra – Sonic testing of concrete is: a) Non-Destructive test b) Used on smooth concrete surfaces c) A destructive test d) Used for soil testing

I. 1&2 II. 3 only

III. 3 & 4

55. How many slump layers of concrete are required in slump test: a) 4 layers b) 2 layers c) 3 layers d) 7 layers

56. Summary of beam Moment, Slope & deflection:

Beam Type Moment Slope Deflection

PL



57. Foundations are placed below ground level to increase: a) Strength b) Workability c) Stability of structure d) All of the above

58. Compaction of backfill is used to:

a) Reduce water content in backfill material b) Reduce air content in backfill material c) Crushing of stones in backfill material d) None of the above

59. The un-drained shear strength of clay is equal to:

a) Half of the unconfined compressive strength of clay b) Twice the unconfined compressive strength of clay c) One & a half the un-confined compressive strength of clay d) None of the above

60. A 5-m high retaining wall is backfilled with sand (unit weight (γ) = 19 KN/m

3)

with angle ( ) of 300 with angle of friction (δ) of 15

0

Ka = tan (45 -

) = tan (45 -

) = 1/3

Lateral earth pressure =

Ka * γ * h = 1/3 * 19 * 5 = 31.667

Lateral earth Force (RH) = 1/2 * Ka * γ * h2

= 0.5 * 1/3 * 19 * 52

= 79.16667 Vertical pressure (RV) = Σ W

W1 = γ (conc) * width1 * length1 W2 = γ (conc) * width2 * length2 W3 = γ (conc) * width3 * length3

Therefor; (RV) = W1 + W2 + W3 Then

Factor of safety = (FS) =

where; µ = tan δ



61. Two columns 50cm*50cm & 60cm*60cm carry 80 tonnes & 120 tonnes of loads respectively. The center to center distance between columns is 5m.The permissible bearing capacity of the soil is 20 t/m

2. If the footing is not to project

more than 25 cm beyond the outside of the smaller column, pick up the correct design parameters of the footing from the following:

a) Distance of C.G. of the loads from the smaller column = 3m b) The length of the foundation slab = 7m c) Area of the footing = 11 m

2

d) Width of the footing = 1.57 m e) All of the above

Area of footing, A =

= 11 m

2

Length of footing = 5+1+1 = 7 m

Width for footing =

1.57 m

C.G. = 0.25 + 0.5/2 + 5/2 = 3m

62. For dense sand, the number of blows from standard penetration test is: a) 0 10 b) 20 40 c) 50 d) 100

63. What are the magnitudes of the horizontal & vertical reactions, repectively at

support A of the frame shown below: a) 16 KN , 18 KN b) 16 KN , 6 KN c) 6 KN , 16 K d) 8 KN , 6 KN

Summation of moments about B=0 ΣMB = 0 = (16KN*1.5) – (24*2) + (RA*4) = 0 RA = 6KN↑

64. Consider the following statements: Shrinkage of concrete depends on :

a) Relative humidity of the atmosphere b) Passage of time c) Applied stress

I. 1&2 II. 2&3

III. 1,2& IV. 3

65. A pin-jointed truss is loaded as shown in the given figure. The force induced in

member DF is: a) 1.5KN (tension) b) 4.5KN (tension) c) 1.5KN (compression) d) 4.5KN (compression)



66. The ratio of total elongation of a bar of uniform cross-section produced under its own weight to the elongation produced by an external load equal to the weight of the bar is:

a) 2 b) 1 c) 1/2 d) 1/4

67. Two simply supported beams B1 and B2 have spans L and 2l respectively. Beam

B1 has a cross-section of 1*1 and B2 has a cross-section of 2*2. These beams are subjected to concentrated loads (w) at the center of their spans. The ratio of maximum flexural stress in their beams is:

a) 4 b) 2 c) 1/2 d) 1/4

68. What is the meaning of concrete hydration:

a) The reaction between cement & water b) Curing of concrete c) Setting of concrete

69. What is poison’s Ratio?

The ration of transverse (or horizontal) strain to axial (or vertical) strain

70. Plywood is used in formwork because: a) The tensile strength is equal in all directions b) The tensile strength is maximum in the short direction c) The tensile strength is minimum in the long direction

71. What is poison’s ratio for normal concrete: a) 0.2 b) 0.3 c) 0.4 d) 0.5

72. Mastic asphalt is normally used for:

a) Waterproofing b) Paving c) None of the above

73. In SPT, N34 refers to:

a) Soil bearing b) Shear capacity c) Others

74. For better rock sampling, we should use:

a) Double sleeve barrel b) Single sleeve barrel c) Main barrel



75. What are the critical activities of the bar chart shown below: a) Activities A,C,E b) Activities B & E c) Activity F

76. Temperature (Allowable) of asphalt during lining? 135175

77. Time cost curve is representing the relation between?

Earned cost & planning cost

78. Elevation of leveling device is 106:23 what is the ground level if reading of the stand is 6:52?

106.232-6.52 = 99.71

79. The direct cost includes the following: Labors & staff cost, project materials (supplies), plants, transportation and consultant services

80. Indirect cost & expense during:

The project, overhead, profit and administrative equipment rental , audit and legal

81. The nearest 100 feet is

a) 4400 Ft b) 4000 Ft c) 440 Ft d) 40000 Ft

82. PERT is:

Program Evaluation & Review Technique

83. If the load magnitude I a traditional R.C. column increases continuously, the allowable moment in one plane is constant

Zero (0)



84. If the design speed of road is 60 mile and r = 8% , t = 1. Then the minimum radius is equal to?

Therefore;

16.2 R = 3600 R =222.22 (Ft) or 67.19 (m)

85. Good timer used for construction the moisture content 10 12 %

86. The delay time for a series of activities that would not affect if occurred the

project timing called: a) Total Slack b) Total Slag c) Critical Float d) Float Pad e) Critical Slag

87. What is the maximum value for PH?

a) 1 b) >1 c) <1 d) Zero

88. ASHGAL responsible for?

a) Public work b) Public housing c) High population area d) None of the above

89. Use the correct sequence of the following:

a) Concrete pouring b) Shutter striplings c) Shutter erection d) Curing

c-a-d-b 90. How many layers required for slump test:

a) 4 layers b) 2 layers c) 3 layers d) 1 layers



91. For isolated foundation area of foundation as per calculation required to be 2.25 m

2 and the column dimension is 0.25*0.8. What is the best foundation size?

a) 1.5m * 1.5m b) 1m * 2.25m c) 1.25m * 1.8m d) None of the above

92. Separation of water or water sand cement from freshly concrete is known as:

a) Bleeding b) Creeping c) Segregation d) Flooding

93. Method ………. Beam

a) Bernoulli-Fouler b) Filler c) Other

94. What is QCS?

Qatar Construction Specification (2010) Qatar Construction Standards (2007)

95. Management definition include all except:

a) Speed b) Progress c) Quality d) Repeating

96. As-Built drawing submitted for:

a) Construction b) Additional work c) Record & Maintenance

97. Maximum backfilling height per QCS:

Champers & Pit 300 mm Trenches 150 mm Non coefficient soil 100 mm

98. Interdisciplinary nature of engineering projects:

a) All engineers should be experienced for all activities regardless the discipline

b) All engineers should work & co-operate together and solve all engineering issues

c) None of the above

99. The summation of internal angles 6 side polygon: a) 360 b) 540 c) 720 d) 180 = (n-2)*180 = (6-2)*180 = 4*180 = 720



100. How to calculate a continuous T beam? a) Supported at various points b) Simply supported c) Flanged section d) Rectangular section

101. What is the degree of curve?

100 Ft Chord angle

102. What are cross-sections used for: For cut & fill quantities

103. What is perception & reaction time for calculating the sight distance: 1 sec

104. In a work, If the property decides to make a change in scope, what is the procedure to do?

a) Change order b) Modification c) None of the above

105. For why steel is preferred as reinforcement in concrete?

a) Because it is inexpensive and resistant b) Because it is easily accessible c) Because it adheres well to concrete d) Because it has the same coefficient of expansion of the concrete

All are right but u have to choose the best answer

106. What is concrete density? 2.4 107. What factors influence the compressive strength of concrete?

a) Resistance is inversely proportional to the water-cement ratio b) The resistance is proportional at the cement content c) Cracks appears on the surface due to excessive water content d) All of the above

108. On relation to the use of air-entraining agents in concrete, which of the

following statements are true? a) Improve the workability b) Improving long-term durability c) Makes a less dense mixture d) All of the above

109. The immediate …………. Are necessary to develop the following tasks in a

breaking down of a project a) Critical activities b) Predecessor activities c) Burst activities d) None of the above



110. Which of the following is a false statement for a work package? a) Allocating resources must b) It should designate a work manager c) It should set deadlines definitive d) None of the above

111. On work break down structure relative to project, which of the following

statements are false? a) Breaks up the project in a “top-down” b) It breaks down the draft as “down-top” c) Used to handle large projects

112. What is the logical sequence of activities?

a) 1,2,3,4 b) 3,2,4,1 c) 2,4,3,1 d) 4,3,2,1

113. if in a plane I measure inches and is

scale, what is the distance between

the two points in miles

a) 7.25 b) 7.15 c) 7.05 d) 7.35

7.15

114. Problem of a cross-section of concrete. What is the moment of resistance? M=Ast σst (d-d’)

115. What is the advantage of using concordant cable in pre-stressed concrete? Deflection of beam

116. What is ABET? Accreditation Board of Engineering & Technology

117. Why in two way slab, lifting of corner slab happens from? Shear at edges

118. 10#@10/mm to change to 12#. How much is the new space?

14.4 mm round down = 14mm

119. 6#@10/mm to change to 12#. How many steel bars?

4.2 mm round up = 5 bars

120. What is the last stage of sewage treatment plant? Sludge treatment



121. The expression used in roads engineering followed capacity? Road capacity

122. When design RC section, whether the concrete at tension side will be neglected or considered? Neglected Tension

123. At project-time frame; what type of cost estimation being used? Budget cost

124. Air-Entrained concrete is used to …… Freeze thaw resistance

125. How many compaction tests are required in 1000 m2?

10 times

126. Calculate stopping distance when moving @ speed 60 mi/hr Factor= 1 + (0.5*V/10) = 1+(0.5*6/2) = 1+3 = 4 Therefore; d = (V*F) – V = (4*60) – 60 = 180 Ft

127. What is the weight of concrete? 2400 Kg

128. What is the yield strength of steel? 460 MPa

129. What is the strength of concrete? 2.4

130. Tensile strength in wood? Direct with grains

131. Ethical? Should report anything wrong

132. Consideration of long pile in Rock a) Rock b) Buckling c) Strength of concrete

133. Over flow rate 35 m

3/w/day and tank 2.5*4*16m. so, the flow rate is?

a) 2240 m3/day

b) 800 m3/day

c) 350 m3/day

d) 0.22 m3/day

Over flow = flow rate/Area 35 = flow rate / (2.5*4) Flow rate = 10*35 = 350 m

3/day

134. Two way slab to consider?

a) Shear at edges b) Sleep in middle c) Compression in middle



135. At traffic junction and intersection other than volume of traffic you look? a) Safety b) Cost c) Speed

136. Grades in streets?

a) In angle b) In percentage

137. Meaning of QSAS?

Qatar sustainability assessment syetem

138. Activities in program designed by: a) Lines b) Notes c) Points d) All of the above

139. What is FTH?

a) 0.25 b) 0.35 c) 1

140. Calculate quality?

a) Before b) After c) During d) All of above

141. Bricks

a) Mortar is an effect to strength of brick wall b) Limestone is an effect of strength of bricks c) Mortar is considered the main effect of strength of brick wall d) All of the above

142. What is the first thing you do after you take a project?

a) Arrange for meeting with the owner b) Assign staff c) Prepare WBS d) None of the above

143. What is WBS used for?

a) Only for complex project b) Used for planning c) Top to down list of activities d) Down to top items for projects

144. Concrete cubes usually crushed at:

a) 2 days b) 8 days c) 28 days d) 30 days



145. What governs in intersection design after capacity? a) Speed b) Safety c) Cost d) Volume

146. Level of service of roads?

a) Quality of road b) Quantitative of vehicles’ c) Others

147. Timber used in frames for building has moisture content of :

a) 14 % b) 812% c) 1425% d) Above 25%

Moisture content 1218 %

148. Ethics means: a) Good manner and behavior b) Good practice in engineering which depends in the environment c) Others

149. Activity can be described as:

a) Arrow b) Line c) Node d) All of the above

150. What is the critical path?

a) Shortest path b) Longest path c) Others

151. Bleeding can be controlled by:

a) Adding cement b) More vibrating concrete c) Adding aggregates d) Adding fresh concrete

152. Increasing concrete strength is affected by:

a) Increasing water cement ratio in high workability concrete b) Vibrating concrete in high water cement ratio c) Bad aggregates sieve & gradation

153. What is the shear span?

a) Moment is zero b) Shear is zero c) Moment is maximum



154. What is the maximum value of PHF? a) 1 b) 0.35 c) 0 d) 0.25

155. What is fast track project?

Starts project before design is completed

156. What is resource leveling? Limitation of resources for activities

157. What is the factor not to be taken consideration in mix design? a) Degree of control of concrete b) Strength of concrete c) Time of first set of cement d) Workability

158. Calculate the length of arc, radius 250m , first tangent 25

030’, second tangent

30025’.

θ = 30025’ – 25

030’ = 4

095’

L =

21.6 = 22 m

159. Car going on a speed of 60 mi/hr on a curve high way. After passing a midpoint the driver saw an accident in front of him. The distance that will be passed from the moment the driver saw the accident until he hit the brakes equal to? D = 0.278 * V * t (m) D = 1.47 * V * t (Ft) Therefore; D = 1.47 * V * t = 1.47 * 60 * 2.5 = 220 ft

160. What is AASHTO? American Association of Standards Highway & Transportation officials

161. What is the factor affecting hardness of water? Magnesium & Calcium

162. Who make testing of product in the factory? a) Testing engineer b) Research engineer c) Product engineer

163. Required compaction for soil?

98 99 %

164. Spliced beam? Resist large shear & bending moment



165. Pick up the correct statements from the following: a) The theory of formation of concrete is based on the phenomena of

formation of voids b) The bulking of sand is taken into account while volumetric

proportioning of the aggregates c) The dry sand and the sand completely flooded with water, have

practically the same volume d) The expansion and contraction joints are provided if concrete structures

exceed 12 m in length e) All of the above

166. Initial setting time of cement for asbestos cement products should be not less

than: a) 30 min. b) 50 min. c) 75 min. d) 90 min.

167. Pick up the correct statements regarding low heat cement from the following:

a) It possesses less compressive strength b) Its initial setting time is about 1 hr c) Its final setting time is about 10 hrs. d) It’s mainly used for mass concrete work e) All of the above

168. Name the type of cement rom the following for canal lining :

a) Sulphate resistance cement b) Rapid hardening cement c) Quick setting cement d) Pozzolans cement

169. The weight of 1 m

3 of brick earth is about:

a) 1200 Kg b) 1500 Kg c) 1800 Kg d) 2000 Kg

170. Mastic asphalt is normally used for:

a) Sound insulation b) Water proofing c) Fire proofing d) None of these

171. Strength of cement concrete primarily depends on: a) Quality of water b) Quantity of aggregate c) Quantity of cement d) Water-cement ratio

172. In case of raymond pile:

a) Lengths vary from 6 m to 12m b) Diameter of top of piles varies from 40cm to 60 cm c) Diameter of pile at bottom varies from 20 cm to 28 cm d) Thickness of outer shell depends upon pile diameter e) All of the above



173. The foundations are placed below ground level to increase: a) Strength b) Workability c) Instability of structure d) All of the above

174. The loose pockets in soil mass can be bridged safely by providing a raft

foundation provided the soft area is smaller than: a) The column spacing b) One – third the column spacing c) Half the column spacing d) Three-fourth the column spacing e) None of the above

175. The concrete slump recommended for beams & slabs:

a) 25 50 mm b) 25 75 mm c) 30 125 mm d) 50 100 mm e) None of the above

176. For providing a raft foundation, the following activities are involved:

a) Ramming the foundation bed b) Excavation of the soil up to required depth c) Laying the reinforcement over the foundation bed d) Curing the cement concrete placed over reinforcement e) Pouring the cement concrete over the reinforcement

I. 1,2,3,4,5 II. 5,4,3,2,1

III. 2,1,3,5,4 IV. 3,2,5,1,4

177. During percussion drilling:

a) Ground water observation are hindered due to the entry of the slurry in below the bottom of the hole

b) Caving or mixing od strata is caused in soft soils or cohesion less soils c) The soil to a considerable depth below the bottom of the hole gets

distributed d) All of the above

178. Raft foundation are generally preferred to when the area required for individual

footing is more than: a) 25 % to total area b) 30 % to total area c) 40 % to total area d) 50 % to total area



179. Pick up the correct statement of the following: a) The retaining wall should be structurally capable to resist the applied

earth pressure b) The section of the retaining wall should be so proportioned that it may

not overturn by the lateral pressure c) The retaining wall should be safe against sliding d) The foundation of the retaining wall should not be stressed beyond safe

bearing capacity due to its weight and the force resulting from the earth pressure

e) To drain off water from the earth retained, weep holes are provided near the top of the retaining wall

180. The process of keeping concrete moist for a certain period after its finishing is known as:

a) Finishing of concrete b) Curing of concrete c) Placing of concrete d) Compaction of concrete e) None of these

181. Raft foundation are used for:

a) Providing increased area of foundation over poor bearing capacity of soil

b) Spanning over small soft or loose pockets c) Counter acting the hydrostatic effect d) All of the above

182. The foundation which consists of a thick reinforcement cement slab covering

whole area to support heavy concentrated structural loads is known as: a) Combined footings b) Strap footing c) Raft footing d) None of these

183. For a wall carrying heavy load on low bearing capacity soil

a) Lean concrete bed is provided b) Thick concrete bed is provided c) Reinforced concrete bed is provided d) (a) & (c) of the above e) (b) & (c) of the above

184. The bearing capacity of water logged soil, may be improved by

a) Grouting b) Chemical action c) Drainage d) Compaction

185. The form work including the props can be removed from beams, only after

a) 3 days b) 7 days c) 14 days d) 21 days



186. The concrete slump for foundation is: a) 25 50 mm b) 30 125 mm c) 50 100 mm d) 75 125 mm e) None of these

187. The construction joints in buildings are provided after:

a) 10 m b) 15 m c) 20 m d) 40 m e) 60 m

Should be 40 45 m

188. Pick up the correct statement from the following: a) Cracks appear on the plastered surface in the form of hair cracks b) In brick work, the efflorescence is removed by applying a solution of

zinc Sulphate and water c) Excessive thermal variations in the backing or plaster cause the plaster

to fall d) All of the above

189. Pick up the correct statement from the following:

a) Plain cement concrete is equally strong in compression as well as in tension

b) Slump test is performed to check concrete strength c) Curing of concrete is done for proper compaction of cemen d) Fineness modulus is the index number expressing the relative sizes of

both coarse & fine aggregates e) Concrete is a mixture of binding material, coarse aggregates and water


a) Isolated footing is provided under column to transfer the load safely to the soil bed

b) Column footings may have steps or projections in the concrete base c) Heavily loaded column base must be provided steel reinforcement in

both directions d) The concrete offset should be at least 15 cm on all sides e) All of the above

191. If h is the difference in level between end points separated by l, then the slope

correction is (

(

) The second term may be neglected if the value of h in a

20 m distance is less than

a) 1/2 m b) 1 m c) 2 m d) 3 m



192. The accuracy of measurement in chain surveying, does not depend upon a) Length of the offset b) Scale of the plotting c) Importance of features d) General layout of the chain lines

193. Offsets are measured with an accuracy of 1 in 40. If the point on the paper from

both sources of error (due to angular and measurement errors) is not to exceed 0.05 cm on a scale of 1 cm = 20m, the maximum length of offsets should be limited to:

a) 14.14 m b) 28.28 m c) 200 m d) None of these

Maximum length of offsets=

√ = 28.28

194. Ranging in chain survey means a) Looking at an isolated point not on the line b) Establishing an intermediate point on the line c) Determining the distance between end points d) Determining the offset distance e) None of these

195. The operation of resection involves the following steps:

a) Rough orientation of the plane table b) The three lines form a triangle of error c) Drawing lines back through the three control points d) Select a point in the triangle of error such that each ray is equally rotated

either clockwise or anti clock wise e) The points obtained by three rays is the correct location

I. A,c,b,d,e II. A,b,c,d,e

III. A,d,c,b,e IV. C,b,d,e,a

196. If the length of a transition curve to be introduced between a straight and a circular curve of radius 500 m is 90 m, the maximum perpendicular offset for the transition curve is:

a) 0.7 m b) 1.7 m c) 2.7 m d) 3.7 m e) 4.7 m

Offset = (R/2l) = (500/2*90) = 2.7 m

197. For quality control of Portland cement, the test essentially done is: a) Setting time b) Soundness c) Tensile strength d) Consistency e) All of the above



198. If 1500 g of water is required to have cement paste 1875 g of normal consistency, the percentage of water is:

a) 20% b) 25% c) 30% d) 35% e) 40%

Cement = 1875 – 1500 = 375 g Therefore; 375/1500 = 0.25 =25%

199. Hydration of cement is due to chemical action of water with: a) Tricalcium silicate and dicalcium silicate b) Dicalcium silicate and tricalcium aluminate c) Tricalcium aluminate and tricalcium alumino ferrite d) All of the above

200. Curing

a) Reduces the shrinkage of concrete b) Preserves the properties of concrete c) Prevents the loss of water by evaporation d) All of the above

201. Curing a concrete for long period ensures better

a) Volume stability b) Strength c) Water resistance d) Water tightness and durability e) All of the above


a) Insufficient quantity of water makes the concrete mix harsh b) Insufficient quantity of water makes the concrete mix unworkable c) Excess quantity of water makes the concrete segregated d) Excess quantity of water causes bleeding in concrete e) All of the above

203. Workability of concrete is measured by:

a) Vicat’s apparatus test b) Slump test c) Minimum void method d) Talbot Richard test

204. Shrinkage in concrete can be reduced by using:

a) Low water cement ratio b) Less cement in the concrete c) Proper concrete mix d) Pre-saturated aggregates e) All of the above

205. A construction joint is provided where;

a) Bending moment is small b) Shear force is small c) The member is supported by other member d) All of the above



206. Pick up the correct statement from the following: a) According to the petrological characteristics, concrete aggregates

classified as heavy weight, normal weight & light weight b) According to the shape of the particles, concrete aggregates are

classified as rounded irregular, angular & flaky c) According to the surface texture of the particles, the concrete aggregates

are classified as glassy, smooth, granular, rough, crystalline, honey combed & porous

d) All the above

207. Pick up the incorrect statement of the following: a) The degree of grinding of cement is called fineness b) The process of changing cement paste into hard mass, is known as

setting of cement c) The phenomenon by virtue of which cement does not allow transmission

of sound is known as soundness of cement d) The heat generated during chemical reaction of cement with water is

known as heat of hydration e) None of these

208. Permissible compressive strength of M150 concrete grade is:

a) 100 Kg/cm2

b) 150 Kg/cm2

c) 200 Kg/cm2

d) 250 Kg/cm2

e) 300 Kg/cm2

209. Slump test of concrete is a measure of its :

a) Consistency b) Compressive strength c) Tensile strength d) Impact value

210. Water cement ratio is :

a) Volume of water to that of cement b) Weight of water to that of cement c) Weight of concrete to that of water d) Volume of concrete to that of water e) Both (a) & (b) are right

211. Separation of water or water sand cement from a freshly concrete, is known as:

a) Bleeding b) Creeping c) Segregation d) Flooding e) None of these

212. According to water cement ratio law, the strength of workable plastic concrete:

a) Depends upon the amount of water used in the mix b) Does not depends upon the quality of cement mixed with aggregates c) Does not depends upon the quantity of cement mixed with aggregates d) All the above



213. High temperature: a) Increases the strength of concrete b) Decreases the strength of concrete c) Has no effect on the strength of concrete d) None of these

214. Allowable shear strength of concrete depends on:

a) Shear strength b) Tensile strength c) Compressive strength d) None of these

215. Workability of concrete mix with low water cement ratio is determined by:

a) Tensile strength test b) Slump test c) Compaction factor test d) Flexural strength test e) None of these

216. While designing an air entrained concrete:

a) Water cement ratio is reduced b) Proportion of aggregates is reduced c) An allowance for the entrained air is made d) Strength of the concrete is reduced e) All of the above

217. Concrete gains strength due to :

a) Chemical reaction of cement with sand & coarse aggregates b) Evaporation of water from concrete c) Hydration of cement d) All of the above

218. Expansion joints are provided if the length of concrete structures exceeds:

a) 10 m b) 15 m c) 35 m d) 45 m

219. If the slump of a concrete mix is 60 mm, its workability is:

a) Very low b) Low c) Medium d) High e) None of these


a) Construction joints in columns are provided a few cm below the junction of beam

b) Construction joints in columns are provided at the bottom hunching c) Construction joints in beams and slabs are provided within middle third d) Construction joints are generally provided in positions subjected to least

shear force e) All of the above



221. The shortest distance between two places measured along the surface of the earth is:

a) Length of the equator between their longitudes b) Length of the parallel between their longitudes c) Length of arc of the great circle passing through them d) None of these

222. The range within which a load can be applied on a rectangular column, to avoid

any tensile stress is: a) One half of the base b) One fifth of the base c) On fourth of the base d) One sixth of the base

223. The shear stress at any section of a shaft is maximum

a) At the center of the section b) At distance r/2 from the center at the top of the surface c) At a distance 3/4 r from the center d) None of these

224. The region of the cross section of a column in which compressive load may be

applied without producing any tensile stress is known as the core of the cross section. In circular column the radius of the core is:

a) One half of the radius b) One third of the radius c) One quarter of the radius d) One fifth of the radius e) One sixth of the radius

225. The maximum bending moment due to a moving load on a simply supported

beams occurs: a) At the mid span b) At the supports c) Under the load d) Anywhere on the beam e) None of these

226. When equal and opposite forces applied to a body, tend to elongate it, the stress

produced is called: a) Shear stress b) Compressive stress c) Tensile stress d) Transverse stress

227. Stress in a beam due to simple bending is:

a) Directly proportional b) Inversely proportional c) Curvilinear related d) None of these



228. A district road with a bituminous pavement has a horizontal curve of 1000 m for a design speed of 75 Kmph. The super elevation is:

a) 1 in 40 b) 1 in 50 c) 1 in 60 d) 1 in 70

229. The total length of a valley formed by two gradients -3% and +2% curve

between the two tangent points to provide a rate of change of centrifugal acceleration 0.6m/sec

2, for a design speed of 100 Km ph, is

a) 16.0 m b) 42.3 m c) 84.6 m d) None of these

Length = √

= √

= 84.53 m

230. The advantage of providing super elevation on roads is: a) Higher speed of vehicles b) Increased volume of traffic c) Reduced maintenance cost of the roads d) Draining off rain water quickly e) All of the above

231. For a vehicle moving with a speed 80 Km per hour, the brake reaction time in

ordinary cases is: a) 1.0 sec b) 1.5 sec c) 2.0 sec d) 2.5 sec e) 3.0 sec

232. The strength of material is defined as:

a) Ability of material to resist external forces b) Ability of material to resist deformation c) Ability of material to withstand external loads d) None of the above

233. Critical path means:

a) Longest sequence of activities path in a project b) Shortest sequence of activities path in a project c) The path that have the maximum resources assigned d) The path with the longest tasks in project

234. Add-Mixture is used in concrete for:

a) Increasing strength of concrete b) Reduce heat of concrete c) To increase workability of concrete d) Increase air content

I. 1 & 2 II. 2 & 3

III. 3 & 4 IV. 1 & 4



235. Ministry of urban planning need to construct an exhibition center , the location of this center should be next to:

a) Airport b) Bus station c) In a high population area d) In a remote area

236. ASHGAL responsible for:

a) Public housing b) Electrical and water services c) Urban planning d) None of these

237. Compaction in backfilling is used for:

a) Reducing water content in backfilled material b) Reducing air content in backfilled material c) Crushing of stones in backfilled material d) None of these

238. One of the following is not a gypsum board characteristic’s:

a) Low cost in construction b) Can be easily formed in different shapes c) Can be recycled d) Fire resistance

239. Super elevation is used at:

a) Straight highways b) Car parking’s c) Bus stations d) Horizontal curves

240. Minor limit design method for rectangular section will provide:

a) Minimum steel area, minimum section dimension b) Minimum steel area, maximum section dimension c) Maximum steel area, maximum section dimension d) Maximum steel area, minimum section dimension

241. A sample of 200 ml waste water is given in a container (weight of container =

22.00 g) and was inserted in oven, after water evaporated the weight of sample was given as = 24.502 g then the sample was inserted in a burning oven and the weight changed to = 22.606 g the volatile solids content for this sample is equal to:

a) 0.0095 g/ml b) 0.0584 g/ml c) 0.0081 g/ml d) None of the above

=

= 0.0095



242. For subcritical flow in an open channel, the control section for gradually varied flow profiles is:

a) At the downstream b) At the upstream c) At both downstream & upstream d) At any intermediate section

243. What is system?

Group of known inputs & outputs

244. To change from metric to inch Divide by 2.54

245. In Timber where we can find moisture? In cell & wall

246. If a specification clause of project is conflict with drawing?

a) Specification will precedence over drawing b) Drawing notes will precedence over specification

247. What is plastic movement?

Shrinkage & settlement

248. Plywood is preferred on concrete shutter because its: a) Tensile stress on both direction b) Tensile stress on long direction c) Tensile stress on short direction

249. Which of the following executed on infrastructure work on deepest level?

a) Electricity b) Drainage c) Telephone d) Storm water

250. Which of the next terminology you feel likely when making a repoints?

a) planning b) initial

251. Which of the following statements is correct when corrosion happens?

a) Water/cement ratio and air content is high b) Concrete cover above steel is less than required c) (a) only d) (a) & (b)

252. Asphalt bleeding happens during?

a) Cold weather b) Hot weather c) Normal weather d) None of the above



253. Modulus of elasticity of a mass of rock compared to rock substance: a) Higher b) Lower c) Equivalent d) Non correlated

254. The amount of time that a schedule activity can be delayed without delaying the

early start date of any immediately following schedule activity Free float

255. An activity that determines the start date of first date of next activity based on logical relationship

Predecessor activity

256. What is the quantity of embankment if 100000 m3 of backfilling is used with

shrinkage & swell factors of backfilling are known (shrink factor = 10%) (Swell Factor = 25 %)

a) 100000 m3

b) 110000 m3

c) 125000 m3

d) 135000 m3

Only we add swelling factor = 100000*1.25= 125000

257. Uplifting of slab on grade will happen because? a) Differences of shear at the slab ends b) Un balanced moments c) Soil resistance

258. WBS is :

a) Graphical presentation of all the project b) All other answer not logical

259. What is the most important factor for project end state:

a) Choosing a project manager b) Budget achievement c) Meeting safety requirement d) Accomplishing project within time frame

260. What is TQM?

a) Total quality management b) Tool quality management c) Test quality manager d) Total quality manager



261. V(aquifer) = 1 m/day Hydraulic gradient = 0.0004 and sample of aquifer is tested and formed to have porosity of 15 %, estimate the hydraulic conductivity of this aquifer?

a) 400 m/day b) 0.0027 m/day c) 375 m/day d) 0.00006 m/day

Volume = K (

Where; K = hydraulic conductivity

K (

= hydraulic gradient

Therefore; 1 = K * 0.0004 K= 2500 * Porosity = 2500 * 15% = 375

262. Strength of Material is defined as: Ability of Material to Resist External Forces (Ability of Material to Resist the Deformations due to external forces)

263. Stress Means: Is the internal forces developed in material due to external loads

264. The SPT-N (Soil Penetration Test ): Indication of the relative density of granular deposits (for dense sand =20 40)

265. Critical Path: Longest sequence of activities path in a project

266. Add-Mixture are Used in Concrete for : Both (to increase workability of concrete + increase air content)

267. In PERT Chart the time estimate of activity is calculated by : Probability (not normal or binomial or logarithmic)

268. The value of concrete cube strength is given at : 28 days

269. For simply supported beam the shear and flexural stresses will equal to zero at : Middle of span & on neutral axis

270. The summation of internal angles at any polygon equal to : 180 * (n-2), where “n” is the number of faces

271. ASGHAL is responsible for : Public Work

272. Compaction in backfilling is used for: Reducing air content in backfilled material

273. Last component that is added to cement production process is : Calcium sulfate (Gypsum)

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Calcium_sulfate



274. Ultra Sonic pulse test is : Both (Nondestructive test, used in smooth concrete surfaces) {It is used to inspect the depth and width of concrete, and detection of steel bars location in concrete}

275. Slump test is used for : Testing of workability of concrete

276. No. of layers of concrete required in slump test: 3 layers

277. The following is not a gypsum board characteristic: Fire resistance

278. Super elevation is used at: Horizontal curves **to avoid centrifugal force at high speeds

279. Moisture content range for timber that is used in construction is equal to: 14-18%

280. Plywood is preferred as construction material because : The strength of the panel consistent across all directions

281. Fast Track project means: Design/Built (Activities are parallel)

282. The meaning of crashing in project: To increase project resource in order to reduce project total duration

283. The meaning of resource leveling : Technique used to examine unbalanced use of resources over time

284. Minor limit design method for rectangular section will provide: Minimum steel area, Maximum section dimension

285. Nominal moment for rectangular concrete cross section is given by : Mn=Fs As (d-a/2)

286. The un-drained shear strength for clay is equal to : One and a half the unconfined compressive strength of clay

287. Moment distribution method is devolved by : Hardy Cross

288. The error in measuring tape due to shortage of tape is called: Systematic error

289. Poisson’s Ratio is : The transverse strain / the longitudinal strain

290. Initial setting time of cement for asbestos cement products should be not less than :

30 minutes



291. Type of cement using for canal lining is: Sulphate resisting cement

292. If water required for 1 bag of cement is 30 liters , the water cement ratio is : 0.6

293. The weight of 1 m3 of brick earth, is about:

1800 kg

294. Mastic asphalt is normally used for : Water proofing

295. Strength of cement concrete primarily depends upon: Water-Cement ratio

296. Soundness of cement is tested by: Le-chatelier apparatus

297. Slump test for concrete is carried out, to determine: Workability

298. The foundations are placed below ground level, to increase: Stability of structure

299. The loose pockets in soil mass can be bridged safely by providing a raft foundation provided the soft area is smaller than:

One-third the column spacing

300. The concrete slump recommended for beams and slabs is: 30 to 125 mm

301. The entrained concrete is used in lining walls and roofs for making: Both (Heat insulated – sound insulated)

302. What is the maximum value of PHF (Peak Hour Factor): 1

303. What is the minimum value of PHF (Peak Hour Factor): 0.25

304. What is the factor not to be taken in consideration in mix design: Time of initial setting

305. What to take in consideration to safe design for long pile in a drilled rock soil: Strength of concrete

306. What is the factor effecting the hardness of water? Calcium &Magnesium

307. The road cross section is used for : Cut and fills quantity

308. What is RQD 100% refer to : *RQD = Rock Quality Designation High quality rock



309. Activity is followed by two activities is called: Diversion activity

310. At project time frame , type of cost estimation is: Budget cost

311. Maximum backfilling height for chambers and pit as per QCS is: 300mm

312. Amount of time that an activity may be delayed from early start without delaying the project is:

Total float

313. Amount of time a task can be delayed without delaying the early start of its successor is:

Free float

314. What is hydration in concrete? It is the reaction between cement and water

315. What is Project scope definition? It is the sum total of all its product and their requirements or features

316. What is the yield strength of steel? The ability of a metal to tolerate gradual progressive force without permanent deformation

317. Perfect sampling for Rock Soil: Double Sleeve

318. What is the perception and reaction time for calculating the sight distance? 2.5 seconds

319. For why steel is preferred as reinforcement in concrete? Because it has the same coefficient of expansion of the concrete.

320. In infrastructure works , the utility with the lowest level is : Drainage

321. Who makes the tests to ensure the reliability and suitability of the product? Testing Engineer

322. QCS: (2010): Qatar Construction Specification

323. QCS: (2007): Qatar Construction Standards

324. PERT: Program Evaluation and Review Technique

325. CPM: Critical Path Method

326. PWA: Public Works Affairs

327. AASHTO: American Association of State Highway & Transportation Officials



328. ASTM: American Society for Testing and Materials

329. QSAS: Qatar Sustainability Assessment System

330. BS: British Standards

331. ABET: Accreditation Board for Engineering and Technology

332. Problems 1. A sample of 200 ml wastewater is given in a container (Weight of container =

22.00 g) and was inserted in oven, after water evaporated the weight of sample was given as = 24.502 g then the sample was inserted in a burning oven and the weight changed to = 22.606 g, the Volatile solids content for this sample is equal to:

=24.502-22.606=1.896 g Volatile solids content= 1.896 g/200 ml =0.0095 g/ml

2. A car going on a speed of 60 mile/Hr on a curve highway. After passing midpoint the driver saw an accident in front of him. The distance that will be passed from the moment the driver saw the accident until he hit the brakes equal to:

The perception and reaction time for calculating the sight distance=2.5 seconds -60 mile/hr *5280 ft/3600 seconds=88 ft/sec The distance that will be passed from the moment the driver saw the accident until he hit the brakes = 88 ft/sec *2.5 sec = 220 ft



333. Beam types:



334. If your boss allocate a new assignment of which part of it you are not sure about a) Tell your boss to retrieve it from you b) Take the assignment and do your best to complete c) As for professional help on the part which you do

not know about d) Do the part that you know and learn about the part you do not

know and do it

335. Which statement is true? a) Project management is used only for

primary projects. b) Project management is replacing the middle management in

controlling projects c) Project management is… (a true statement!!!!) d) (b) & (c)

336. What will a change over changes?

a) The duration of a project b) The Scope c) The cost of project d) The design of a project e) A & B

337. Which is the authority/organization/person responsible to ensure that the

standards, codes,Procedures are being applied a) Committee of professional engineers b) National Fire Prevention Association c) Qatar Civil Defense d) -------

338. What is the unit of Strain

a) Dimensionless b) N c) m d) mm

339. What does the ratio of stress over strain

a) Bulk Modulus b) Poisson's ratio c) Viscosity ratio

340. Interdisciplinary nature of Engineering project is defined

The integrates between different disciplines within the project like civil, mechanical. Architect, electrical department in information, data, techniques, tools, concept, .etc. to solve problems whose solutions are beyond the scope of a single discipline. Also, we can call the Interdisciplinary engineer as coordinator engineer. The course of interdisciplinary encourages you to combine (integrate) your knowledge and experience with that of others. Also, it is the interconnections among different departments within the project organization, work with others from different backgrounds and sections to pose and evaluate resolutions to complex problems. It is how to work within a team. The collaboration between all departments within the construction of the project.



341. Which one of the following represents an activity a) excavation for foundation b) curing of concrete c) setting of question paper d) preparation of breakfast e) all the above

342. Pick up the incorrect statement from the following:

a) An activity of a project is denoted by an arrow on the net work b) The tail of the arrow indicates the start of the activity c) The head of the arrow indicates the end of the activity d) The arrows are drawn to scale from left to right e) Each activity consumes a given time

343. In the given figure, the network of a project represents

a) activity of an excavation of a footing

b) activity of an excavation which starts at event No. 1 and ends at even

No. 2

c) activity of excavation which takes 8 units of time d) None of these

344. The cost of a project is more than

a) one lac

b) two lacs

c) three lacs

d) four lacs

e) five lacs

345. Pick up the PERT event from the following:

a) Digging of foundation started

b) Digging of foundation completed

c) Laying of concrete started

d) Laying of concrete completed e) All the above

346. If D is the duration, ES and EF are the earliest start and finish, LS and LF are

latest start and latest finish time, then the following relation holds good a) EF = ES + D

b) LS = LF - D

c) LF = LS + D

d) D = EF - ES e) all the above

347. Final technical authority of a project lies with

a) Assistant Engineer b) Executive Engineer c) Superintending Engineer d) Chief Engineer



348. The performance of a specific task in CPM, is known

a) Dummy b) Event c) Contract d) Activity

349. Pick up the correct statement from the following

a) The float may be positive, zero or negative b) If the float is positive and the activity is delayed by a period equal to its total

float, the completion of project is not delayed c) If the float of an activity is negative, delay in its performance is bound to

delay the completion of project d) If the float of an activity is zero, the activity is critical and any delay in its

performance will delay the whole project e) All the above

350. A Milestone chart

a) shows the interdependencies of various jobs b) depicts the delay of jobs, if any c) points outgoing ahead of schedule of jobs, if any d) None of these

351. Completion of an activity on CPM network diagram, is generally known

a) Event b) Node c) Connector d) All the above

352. A dummy activity

a) is artificially introduced b) is represented by a dotted line c) does not consume time d) All the above

353. Military organization is known as

a) line organization b) line and staff organization c) functional organization d) None of these

354. Pick up the incorrect statement from the following

a) The activity is the time consuming part of a project b) The beginning and end of a job, are called events c) The activity which consumes maximum time, is called a node d) Logically and sequentially connected activities and events form a network e) None of these

355. Various activities of a project, are shown on bar charts by

a) vertical lines b) horizontal lines c) dots d) Crosses



356. Time and progress chart of a construction, is also known as a) Bar chart b) Gantt chart c) Modified Mile stone chart d) Critical path method chart e) All the above

357. Critical Path Net Work helps an engineer

a) to concentrate his attention on critical activities b) to divert the resources from non-critical advanced activities to critical

activities c) to be cautious for avoiding any delay in the critical activities to avoid delay of

the whole project d) All the above

358. The time by which activity completion time can be delayed without affecting the start

of succeeding activities, is known as a) duration b) total flat c) free float d) Interfering float

359. The artificial activity which indicates that an activity following it, cannot be started

unless the preceding activity is complete, is known as a) event b) free float c) dummy d) constant

360. Henry Gantt developed Bar charts for planning and scheduling of projects in

a) 1800 b) 1900 c) 1920 d) 1940 e) 1950

361. The most popular type of organization used for Civil Engineering Constructions, is

a) line organization b) line and staff organization c) Functional organization d) Effective organization

362. The difference between the time avail-to do a job and the time required to do the job,

is known as a) Event b) Float c) Duration d) Constraint



363. The object of technical planning, is a) preparation of specifications b) preparation of estimates c) initiating the procurement action of resources d) taking remedial action for likely bottleneck in the execution e) All the above

364. The salient feature of functional organization is

a) strict adherence to specifications b) separation of planning and design part c) each individual maintains functional efficiency d) work is properly planned and distributed e) All the above

365. Critical path method

a) is an improvement upon bar chart method b) provides a realistic approach to daily problems c) avoids delays which are very common in bar charts d) was invented by Morgan R. Walker of Dupot and James E. Kalley or

Remington U.S.A. in 1957 e) All the above

366. CPM is

a) synthesizing in concepts b) is built of activities oriented program c) is based on time estimate d) is used for repetitive works e) All the above

367. Critical path lies along the activities having total float

a) Positive b) Negative c) Zero d) Same

368. Construction team means

a) an engineer b) an architect c) an owner d) a contractor e) all the above



369. Pick up the correct network for the activities of pouring concrete, erection of form work, removal of form work and curing of concrete from the following:

a) 1. Pouring of Concrete 2. Erection of form work 3. Curing of concrete 4. Removal of form work

b) 1. Erection of form work 2. Pouring of concrete 3. Curing of concrete 4. Removal of form work

c) 1. Removal of form work 2. Erection of form work 3. Pouring of concrete 4. Curing of concrete

d) 1. Pouring of concrete 2. Curing of concrete 3. Erection of form work 4. Removal of form work

370. A construction schedule is prepared after collecting a) number of operations b) output of labor c) output of machinery d) quantity of various items e) All the above

371. Site order book is used for recording

a) instructions by the executive engineers b) construction measurements c) issue of store equipment’s d) Names of the casual labor

372. An Executive Engineer may have powers up to

a) Rs. 25,000 b) Rs. 50,000 c) Rs. 100,000 d) Rs. 200,000 e) Rs. 500,000

373. The main principle of an organization, is

a) unity of command b) coherency c) effective control at all levels d) delegation of authority e) All the above

374. The estimated time required to perform an activity, is known as

a) Event b) Dummy c) Duration d) Float



375. A CPM family includes a) CPA (Critical Path Analysis) b) CPP (Critical Path Plotted) c) MCE (Minimum Cost Expenditure) d) CPS (Critical Path Scheduling) e) All the above

376. The time which results in the least, possible construction cost of an activity, is known

a) normal time b) slow time c) crash time d) Standard time

377. If the total float and duration of an activity are 5 and 10 days respectively, the

particular activity can be a) started 5 days later b) completed 5 days later c) performed at slower rate in 15 days d) All the above

378. Works costing less than Rs. 20,000 are treated as

a) projects b) major projects c) minor projects d) All the above

379. A critical ratio scheduling

a) establishes the relative priorities among various activities on a common basis b) determines the status of each activity c) adjusts automatically changes in activity progress d) is a dynamic system e) None of these

380. Bar charts are suitable for

a) minor works b) major works c) large projects d) All the Above

381. The first method invented for planning projects, was

a) Bar chart method b) Milestone chart c) Critical path method (CPM) d) Program Evaluation and Review Technique (PERT)

382. If TL is the latest allowable event occurrence time, total activity slack(s), is equal to

a) LST-EST b) LFT-EFT c) TL-EFT d) All the above



383. The Overall in-charge of an organization at the site responsible for the execution of the works, is

a) Executive Engineer b) Engineer c) Junior Engineer d) Sub overseer e) Assistant Engineer

384. Modular co-ordination of construction means proper

a) planning b) designing c) execution d) All the above


a) CPM analysis is activity oriented b) PERT analysis is event oriented c) CPM does not make any allowance for the uncertainties in the duration of

time d) In CPM, the time is related to cost e) All the above

386. If t is the duration of an activity, t1 is the latest finish possible moment of its preceding

activity and t2 is the earliest start possible moment, the independent float of the activity is

a) (t1 - t2) - t b) t - (t1 - t2) c) (t1 + t2) - t d) t + (t1 - t2)


a) Earliest expected time is denoted by TE b) Latest occurrence time is denoted by TL c) Contractual obligation time is denoted by Ts d) Latest occurrence time is taken as contractual obligation time e) All the above

388. For the supply of materials for concrete, form work reinforcing and placing of

concrete, removal of form work and curing of concrete, number of bar(s) required on bar chart, is

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

389. For the execution of a project, a contractor is

a) a person b) a firm c) an agency d) All the above



390. Railway projects are treated as a) light construction b) heavy construction c) industrial construction d) None of these


a) Optimistic time estimate refers to activities b) Pessimistic time estimate refers to activities c) Most likely time estimate refers to activities d) Expected time estimate refers to activities e) All the above

392. The critical activity has

a) maximum float b) minimum float c) zero float d) None of these

393. The main disadvantage of line organization, is

a) rigid structure b) extraordinary delay in communications c) top level executions over work d) All the above


a) The difference of latest occurrence time and earliest expected time, is called slack

b) The activities connecting the events having zero slack, lie on the critical path c) The critical path consumes the maximum time d) All the above

395. Pre-tender stage requires

a) acquisition of land b) selection of site c) fmalisation of alignment of work d) fmalisation of designs and preparation of estimate e) All the above

396. The final selection of a construction site, is done by

a) departmental representative or user b) local civil authority representative c) representative of engineer authority d) representative of administration e) All the above



397. Pick up the correct statement from the following: a) The duration between the earliest start time of the preceding event and latest

finish time of the succeeding event, is called 'float' b) The duration of time by which an activity can be delayed without affecting the

succeeding activity, is called free float c) The float which affects neither the processor nor the successor activities, is

called independent float d) The difference between total float and free float, is called interfering float e) All the above

398. The first stage of a construction, is

a) preparation of estimate b) survey of the site c) initiation of proposal d) preparation of tender e) Allotment of funds

399. PERT is

a) an analytic in concept b) limited of event oriented diagrams c) used for research and development projects d) based on three time estimates for activities linking up two events e) All the above

400. Residential buildings are treated as

a) light construction b) heavy construction c) industrial construction d) Private construction

401. The main advantage of line organization, is

a) effective command and control b) defined responsibilities at all levels c) rigid discipline in the organization d) ability of quick decision at all levels e) All the above

402. PERT analysis is based on

a) optimistic time b) pessimistic time c) most likely time d) All the above

403. For completion of a project, the critical path of the network represents

a) minimum time b) maximum time c) maximum cost d) Minimum cost



404. In CPM analysis a) emphasis is given to activities b) uncertainties are not allowed c) activities are represented by arrows d) beginning and end of an activity, are denoted by nodes e) All the above

405. A golden rule for the procurement of construction stones, suggests

a) 100% at the site b) 67% at the site and 33% under procurement c) 50% at the site and 50% under procurement d) 33% at the site and 67% under procurement e) None of these

406. Power stations are generally treated as

a) light construction b) heavy construction c) industrial construction d) Electrical construction

407. An event is indicated on the network by a number enclosed in

a) a circle b) a square c) a triangle d) an ellipse e) All the above

408. Pick up the incorrect statement from the following

a) The difference between the earliest start time and latest finish time of any activity, is the maximum time available for the activity

b) The difference between the maximum time available for the job and actual time it consumes, is called total float

c) The difference between the latest start time and earliest start time of an activity, is called total float

d) The difference between the earliest finish time of an activity and the earliest start time of its successor activity, is called free float of the activity

e) None of these

409. While scheduling a project by C.P.M. a) a project is divided into various activities b) required time for each activity is established c) sequence of various activities is made according to their importance d) network is drawn by connecting the activities and the events e) All the above



410. Pick up the correct statement from the following with regards to C.P.M. network analysis of projects

a) Earliest occurrence time of the event from which the activity arrow' originates, is called earliest start time of the activity

b) Earliest occurrence time of the event from which the activity arrow originates plus the duration of the activity, is called earliest finish time of the activity

c) The latest occurrence time of the node of which the activity arrow terminates minus the duration of the activity, is called latest start time

d) The latest occurrence time for the node at which the activity arrow terminates, is called latest finish time

e) All the above

411. Pick up the correct statement from the following a) Forward pass is used for calculating earliest expected time b) Backward pass is used for calculating the latest occurence time c) Maximum value of earliest expected time is used if there are more than one

value of any event d) Minimum value of latest occurrence time is used if there are more than one

value of any event e) All the above

412. Which one of the following represents an event?

a) concrete cured b) fixing of door c) plastering of walls d) selecting sites e) All the above

413. Pick up the incorrect statement from the following:

a) The various functions under each activity, are shown by one bar on Bar Charts b) Bar chart establishes the interdependency of one event on another c) Only approximate percentage of the completed work is reported d) None of these

414. For the network shown in the given figure, the expected time for the activity

a) 1-2 is 4 b) 2-3 is 7 c) 3-4 is 8 d) All the above

415. Frequency distribution curves

a) having a single lump, are called Uniondale curves b) if symmetrical, are called normal curves c) if not symmetrical, are called skew curves d) All the above


a) Program Evaluation and Review Technique, is event oriented b) Program Evaluation and Review Technique is not event oriented c) Critical Path Method is event oriented d) Critical Path method is event oriented



417. The three time estimates for the activities of the network shown in the given figure are shown above their arrows. The earliest expected time for the event 4, is

a) 19 b) 14 c) 24 d) None of these

= 4+7+8 = 19

418. Optimistic time, most likely time and pessimistic times for the activities of a network in the given figure are written above their arrows. If the contractual obligation time for the project is 75, the latest occurrence time for the event 2, is

a) 15 b) 20 c) 25 d) 30

=75-35-15 = 25

419. While filling the tender for any work, the contractor considers a) site survey b) availability of construction materials c) availability of labor d) study of specifications e) All the above

420. Which type of light energy is effectively absorbed by CO2 in the lower boundary of

the troposphere a) X-Rays b) UV- Rays c) Visible light d) Infrared Rays

421. The following steps are involved in laying a sewer in a trench:

1. transferring the center line of the sewer to the bottom trench. 2. Setting sight rails over the trench. 3. Driving pegs to the level of the invert line of the sewer. 4. Placing the sewer of these steps is The correct sequence of these steps is

a) 1, 2, 3, 4 b) 2, 3, 4, 1 c) 4, 2, 3, 1 d) 2, 3, 1, 4

422. A horizontal rod AB carries three loads of 3.0 kg, 7.0 kg and 10.0 kg at distances of

2.0 cm, 9.0 cm and 15 cm respectively from A where it is hinged. Neglecting the weight of the rod, which is the point at which the rod will be balance?

a) 10.95 cm form A b) 11.25 cm from A c) 12.55 cm from A d) 13.25 cm form A

= (2-x)*3 + (9-x)*7 + (15-x)*10 = 0,

Therefore; 219 = 20x

Therefore; x=10.95 cm



423. Distemper is used to coat a) external concrete surfaces b) interior surfaces not exposed to weather c) woodwork d) compound walls

424. Two simply supported beams B1 and B2 have spans l and 2l respectively. Beam B1has

a cross-section of 1 x 1 units and beam B2 has a cross-section of 2 x 2 units. These beams are subjected to concentrated loads W each at the center of their spans. The ratio of the maximum flexural stress in these beams is

a) 4 b) 2 c) 1/2 d) 1/4

425. A soil has a liquid limit of 45% and lies above the A-line when plotted on a plasticity

chart. The group, symbol of the soil as per Soil Classification is a) CH b) CI c) CL d) ML

426. A high efficiency pump is required for low discharge, high head and low maintenance

cost. Delivery of water need not be continuous. The pump need not run at high speed. Which one of the following is the correct choice?

a) Centrifugal pump b) Reciprocating pump c) Air lift pump d) Hydraulic ram

427. For total reaction time of 2.5 seconds, coefficient of friction 0.35, design speed 80

km/h, what is the stopping sight distance on a highway? a) 127 m b) 132 m c) 76 m d) 56 m

SSD= 0.278 * 80 * 2.5 +

= 55.6+71.991=127.59 m

428. What is the use of a station pointer?

a) For making soundings in water bodies b) For plotting of soundings in harbor area c) For marking sunken shipping hazards d) For making tidal observations



429. The plastic modulus of a section is 5 x 10-4

m3. Its shape factor is 1.2 and the plastic

moment capacity is 120 KN.m. What is the value of the yield stress of the material? a) 100 N/mm

2

b) 200 N/mm2

c) 240 N/mm2 d) 288 N/mm

2

= 12000/5 = 240

430. According to ICAO recommendations, what is the rate of elevation correction for the runway above MSL?

a) 1 % for every 100 m of elevation above MSL b) 7 % for every 300 m of elevation above MSL c) 2 % for every 500 m of elevation above MSL d) 2 % for every 300 m of elevation above MSL

431. The absolute maximum Bending Moment in a simply supported beam of span 20 m due to moving udl of 4 t/m spanning over 5 m is

a) 87.5 t-m at the support b) 87.5 t-m near the midpoint c) 3.5 t-m at the midpoint d) 87.5 t-m at the midpoint

432. The following steps are involved in making a spigot and socket joint of cast iron pipes

used in water supply systems: 1. Tarred gasket or hemp yarn in wrapped around the spigot. 2. The spigot end is centered into the socket end of the preceding pipe. 3. A joining ring end is placed around the barrel and against the face of the socket. 4. The gasket or hemp yarn in caulked slightly. 5. Molten pig lead is poured and then caulked. The correct sequence of these steps is

a) 2, 1, 4, 3, 5 b) 2, 1, 3, 4, 5 c) 1, 2, 4, 5, 3 d) 1, 2, 3, 5, 4

433. Consider the following statements:

A: In masonry, bricks are joined together by cement mortar. B : Cement mortar adheres more effectively to brick surface than any other material

a) both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A b) both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A c) A is true but R is false d) A is false but R is true

434. In the force system shown in the figure, the force CA should be

a) 5 t b) 5 t c) 4 t d) - 4 t



435. A cylindrical shell made of mild steel plate of 100 cm diameter is to be subjected to an internal pressure of 10 kg/cm

2. If the material yields at 2000 kg/cm

2, assuming factor of

safety as four and using maximum principal stress theory, thickness of the plate will be a) 5 mm b) 10 mm c) 15 mm d) 20 mm

Stress=((P*D)/(2*t) )*4 , 2000 = (10*100*2)/( t) , t= 1cm = 10mm

436. A plot of land 60°m x 20 m is measure steel tape. If the standard error of length width measurements is taken as ± 1 cm, the standard error of the area of the plot be

a) ± 0.1414 m2

b) ± 0.566 m2

c) ± 0.632 m2 d) ± 0.8484 m

2

437. The graphical condition for equilibrium of concurrent forces is that a) both the force polygon and the funicular polygon must be closed figures b) funicular polygon should be a closed figure c) force polygon need not be a closed figure d) force polygon should be a closed figure

438. In a tilted aerial photograph, if the swing is 230°, then the rotation angle is equal to

a) 25° b) 50° c) 140° d) 130°

439. Cold drawn seamless steel tubing subject to internal pressure has a diameter of 6 cm

and wall thickness of 0.2 cm. The ultimate strength of steel is 3600 kg/cm2. The

bursting pressure (in kg/cm2) is

a) 120 b) 240 c) 480 d) 960

Stress = (P*d)/(2*t) 3600= (P*6)/(2*0.2)

440. Which of the following factors are associated with the behavior of sand mass during earthquake to cause liquefaction? 1. Number of stress cycles 2. The frequency, and amplitude of vibration of waves generated by an earthquake 3. Characteristics of sand 4. Relative density Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

a) 1, 2 and 3 b) 1, 2, 3 and 4 c) 2 and 4 d) 3 and 4



441. The ratio of total elongation of a bar of uniform cross-section produced under its own weight to the elongation produced by an external load equal to the weight of the bar is

a) 2 b) 1 c) 1/2 d) 1/4

442. The figure refers to a channel section of uniform thickness of 1 cm used as a beam with the cross-sectional dimensions shown in cm units. If the Moment of Inertia of channel Ixx be equal to 246 cm

4 and C be the shear center, then the value of e in cm is

equal to

a) 1.5 b) 2.5 c) 2.25 d) 1.67

443. The shear force diagram of a beam is shown in the given figure. The absolute maximum bending moment in the beam is

a) (2P x a) b) (5P x a) c) (4P x a) d) (7P x a)

444. A locomotive has four pairs of driving wheels carrying an axle load of 24 x 104 N. The

maximum load that can be pulled if the coefficient of friction is 1/6, is a) 32 x 10

4 N

b) 16 x 104 N

c) 8 x 104 N

d) 4 x 104 N

=24 * 1/6 = (4 x 104 N) * 4pairs = 16 x 10

4 N

445. A bar of circular cross-section of diameter D is subjected to a torque T at B as shown in the figure given. What is the angle of twist at A?

a) Same as that at B b) Zero c) Twice as that at B d) Half as that at B



446. Consider the following statements regarding Plane Table surveying: 1. it is less accurate than chain surveying. 2. It is not necessary to do accurate centering of plane table for small scale survey. 3. Compass rule may be made use for adjusting the plane table transverse. 4. From the instrument station, resectors are drawn to plot the position of object in the field. Of these statements :

a) 1, 2 and 4 are correct b) 2, 3 and 4 are correct c) 1, 2 and 3 are correct d) 1, 3 and 4 are correct

447. A particle of mass 3 kg moving in a straight line decelerates uniformly from a speed of

40 m/s to 20 m/s in a distance of 300 m. Before it comes to rest, it will travel a further distance pf

a) 10 m b) 20 m c) 50 m d) 100 m

448. For designing end bearing piles of square cross-section in clays having average un-

confined compressive strength of 6 t/m2, the net ultimate bearing capacity may be taken

as a) 15 t/m

2

b) 18 t/m2 c) 20 t/m

2

d) 27 t/m2

449. Consider the following statements: Collision diagram is used to 1. Study accident pattern 2. Eliminate accidents 3. Determine remedial measures 4. make statistical analysis of accidents Of these statements :

a) 1 and 2 are correct b) 1 and 3 are correct c) 3 and 4 are correct d) 2 and 4 are correct


1. an ascending gradient of 1 in 100 meets an ascending gradient of 1 in 120 to form a Valley curve. 2. A falling gradient of 1 in 25 meets a falling gradient of 1 in 50 to form a summit curve. 3. The length of summit curve is determined on the basis of head light sight distance. Which one of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 and 2 b) 2 and 3 c) 1 and 3 d) 2 only



451. The maximum energy stored at elastic limit of a material is called a) resilience b) proof resilience c) modulus of resilience d) bulk resilience

452. Activated sludge is the

a) resultant sludge removable from the aeration unit b) sludge settled in the humus tank c) sludge in the secondary tank post-aeration rich in microbial mass d) sludge in the secondary tank post aeration, rich in nutrients

453. What is the effective height of a free-standing masonry wall for the purpose of

computing slenderness ratio? a) 0.5 L b) L c) 2.0 L d) 2.5 L

454. To generate 10, 000 hp under a head of 81 m while working at a speed of 500 rpirt, the

turbine of choice would be a) Pelton b) Kaplan c) Bulb d) Francis

455. Consider the following statements: Sand in mortar is needed for 1. Decreasing the quantity of cement. 2. Reducing shrinkage. 3. Decreasing the surface area of the binding material. 4. Increasing the strength. which of these statements is correct :

a) 2, 3 and 4 are correct b) 1, 2 and 3 are correct c) 1, 3 and 4 are correct d) 1, 2 and 4 are correct

456. The given figure shows gradually varied flow in an open channel with a beak in bed

slope. Types of water surface profiles occurring from left to right are

a) H2 , S3 b) H2 , S2 c) H2 , M2 d) H3 , M2



457. Consider the following strengths of concrete: 1. Cube strength 2. Cylinder strength 3. Split-tensile strength 4. Modulus of rupture The correct sequence in increasing order of these strengths is

a) 3, 4, 2, 1 b) 3, 4, 1, 2 c) 4, 3, 2, 1 d) 4, 3, 1, 2

458. A reinforced concrete slab is 75 mm thick. The maximum size of reinforcement bar

that can be used is a) 12 mm diameter b) 10 mm diameter c) 8 mm diameter d) 6 mm diameter

75/8 = 9.375 8 mm choose the next smaller size of steel bar

459. Consider the following methods of preservation of timber: 1. Dipping 2. Brushing or spraying 3. Pressure impregnation The correct sequence in decreasing order of the effectiveness of these methods of preservation is

a) 1, 2, 3 b) 2, 1, 3 c) 3, 1, 2 d) 3, 2, 1

460. Purlins are provided, in industrial buildings, over roof trusses to carry dead loads, live loads and wind loads. As per IS code, what are they assumed to be?

a) Simply supported b) Cantilever c) Continuous d) Fixed

461. Ratio of bearing capacity of double Under Reamed (U.R.) pile to that of single U.R.

pile is nearly a) 2 b) 1.5 c) 1.2 d) 1.7

462. A soil has a bulk density of 1.80 g/cm

3 at water content of 5%. If the void ratio

remains constant, then its bulk density for a water content of 10% will be a) 1.88 g/cm

3

b) 1.80 g/cm3

c) 1.98 g/cm3

d) 1.70 g/cm3



463. The base width of a soil gravity dam is 25 m. The material of the dam has a specific gravity of 2.56 and the dam is designed as an elementary profile ignoring uplift. What is the approximate allowable height of the dam?

a) 64 m b) 40 m c) 164 m d) 80 m

464. In a gusseted base, when the end of the column is machined smooth for complete

bearing, the axial load is transferred to base slab : a) Fully through fastening b) Fully by direct bearing c) 50 % by direct bearing and 50% through fastening d) 60 % by direct bearing and 40% through fastening

465. Which of the following assumptions are made in the analysis of jet impinging normally on a moving plate? 1. Friction between jet and plate is neglected 2. Flow is steady 3. Momentum of jet is unchanged 4. Plate moves at a constant velocity Choose the correct answer using the codes given below :

a) 1, 2 and 4 b) 1, 2 and 3 c) 2, 3 and 4 d) 1, 3 and 4

466. 3000 m long line lying at an elevation of 450 m measures 10 cm on a vertical

photograph. The focal length of the camera is 21 cm. The scale of the photograph for the area having an elevation of 1000 m will be

a) 1: 27381 b) 1 : 25008 c) 1: 20606 d) 1 : 30421

467. While driving a large number of piles in loose sand

a) It is advantageous to follow a sequence of pile driving such that the inner piles are driven first and then proceed outwards

b) It is advantageous to follow a sequence of pile driving such that the piles near the periphery are driven first and inner piles are driven later

c) It is advantageous to follow a sequence of pile driving such that alternately inner and outer piles are driven

d) Driving of piles can be done in any random order

468. Surface tension of water when in contact with air is 0.0737 N/m. The difference of pressure between the inside and outside of a droplet of rain water 1 mm in diameter is nearly equal to

a) 0.15 kN/m2

b) 0.20 kN/m2

c) 0.25 kN/m2

d) 0.30 kN/m2



469. The upstream slope of an earth dam under steady seepage condition is a) equipotential line b) phreatic line c) flow-line d) seepage line


Shrinkage of concrete depends upon the 1. Relative humidity of the atmosphere. 2. Passage of time. 3. applied stress. Which of these statements is/are correct?

a) 1 and 2 b) 2 and 3 c) 1alone d) 1, 2 and 3


Wind rose diagram is used for the purpose of 1. Runway orientation. 2. Estimating the runway capacity 3. Geometric design of holding apron. Of these statements :

a) 1 and 2 are correct b) 2 and 3 are correct c) 1 and 3 are correct d) 1 alone is correct

472. The discharge per meter width at the foot of a spillway is 10 m3/s at a velocity of 20

m/s. A perfect free hydraulic jump will occur at the foot of the spillway when the tail water depth is approximately equal to

a) 4.50 m b) 5.00 m c) 5.50 m d) 6.50 m

473. Which one of the following is the appropriate tri-axial test to assess the immediate

stability of an unloading problem, such as an excavation of a clay slope? a) UU test b) CU test c) CD test d) Unconsolidated drained test

474. Mild steel flat subjected to a tensile force of 84 tonnes is connected to a gusset plate

using rivets. If the forces required to shear a single rivet, to crush the rivet and to tear the plate per pitch length are 5000 kg, 8000 kg and 6000 kg respectively, then the number of rivets required is

a) 12 b) 14 c) 16 d) 17



475. What does the confining pressure used in tri-axial compression tests on an undisturbed soil sample represent?

a) The in-situ total normal stress b) The in-situ total lateral stress c) The in-situ effective average principal stress d) The in-situ shear stress

476. The distance between two bench marks is 1000 m. If during leveling, the total error

due to collimation, curvature and refraction is found to be + 0.120 m, then the magnitude of the collimation error is

a) 0.00527 m b) 0.0527 m c) 0.527 m d) 0.673 m

477. Mercury (density = 13600 kg/m

3, σ = 0.49N/mm internal diameter open-ended

capillary tube is inserted in the middle of the beaker into the mercury. The meniscus in the tube will be below the external mercury surface by how much distance?

a) 4.2 mm b) 5.7 mm c) 6.8 mm d) 7.3 mm

478. Which one of the following is considered to be an advantage of the heading and

benching method of tunes construction? a) It is suitable for construction in unstable rocks b) In this method, it is easy to install timber support c) Tunneling can be continuous and the work can be expedited d) In case of excessive water, it is easy to take corrective steps

479. In a close-coiled helical spring subjected to an axial load, other quantities remaining

the same, if the wire diameter is doubled, then the stiffness of the spring when compared to the original one, will become

a) twice b) four times c) eight times d) sixteen times

480. The plastic section modulus of a rectangular section of width 100 mm and depth 12

mm is a) 1000 mm

3

b) 1800 mm3

c) 2400 mm3

d) 3600 mm3



481. Consider the following factors pertaining to flow through soil: 1. Hydraulic gradient 2. Grain size 3. Void ratio 4. Cross-sectional area of the sample. Of these, the factors affecting permeability include

a) 1 and 4 b) 2 and 3 c) 1, 2 and 3 d) 2, 3 and 4

482. In drawing AOA networks and making time computations, the following processes are involved: 1. Activity listing 2. Work breakdown structure 3. Activity time allotment 4. Consideration of available resources for each activity 5. Activity dependencies 6. Float computations 7. Backward path computation 8. Project duration 9. Forward path computation what is the correct sequence of the processes given above?

a) 1, 2, 4, 3, 9, 7, 5, 6, 8 b) 2, 1, 4, 3, 5, 9, 8, 7, 6 c) 4, 1, 3, 2, 9, 5, 7, 8, 6 d) Any sequence can be followed but 6 and 7 will be the last two ones

483. Timber can be made more fire resistant by

a) dipping and steeping process b) hot and cold open tank treatment c) charring d) Sir Abel's process

484. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the influence line for the bending moment at one-fourths of the span from left support of a prismatic beam simply supported at ends?

a) It is composed of straight lines only b) It is composed of curved lines only c) It is composed of straight and curved line d) It is parabolic



485. Consider the following statements: In an un-dimensional stress system, the principal plane is defined as one on which the 1. Shear stress is zero. 2. Normal stress is zero. 3. Shear stress is maximum 4. Normal stress is maximum Of these statements :

a) 1 and 2 are correct b) 2 and 3 are correct c) 1 and 4 are correct d) 3 and 4 are correct

486. Which one of the following pairs relating to flumes carrying open channel flow is

correctly matched? a) N-modular flume....Flow is unaffected by drowning b) Ventura flume....Standing wave forms at the throat c) Ventura flume....Flow at the throat is at less than critical velocity d) Standing wave flume....Hump is not provided at the throat

487. A cylindrical vessel with a constant plane area of 1 m2 is rotated about its vertical axis

such that the liquid inside the vessel is about to spill. If the height of the vessel is 2 m and the height of the parabolic at 1 m, then the volume (in m

3) of the liquid in the

vessel will be a) 2 b) 1.5 c) 1.0 d) 0.5

488. Consider the following statements with reference to oxidation ponds:

1. they require high initial investments 2. They have low operational cost 3. They are also called stabilization ponds. Which of the statements given above are correct?

a) 1 and 2 b) 2 and 3 c) 1 and 3 d) 1, 2 and 3

489. The length, coefficient of thermal expansion and Young's modulus of bar 'A' are twice

that of bar 'B'. If the temperature of both bars is increased by the same amount while preventing any expansion, then the ratio of stress developed in bar A to that in bar B will be

a) 2 b) 4 c) 8 d) 16



490. A constant angle arch dam when compared to a constant radius arch dam utilizes concrete quantity of about

a) 33% b) 43% c) 73% d) 143%

491. In a simply supported wooden beam under uniformly distributed load, a hole has to be

made in the breadthwise direction at mid-span to provide a pipeline. From structural strength point of view, it would be advisable to have the hole made at

a) the bottom b) the top c) mid-depth d) 1/4 depth either from the top or the bottom

492. The water supply to a house begins with the connection of the service pipe with the

municipal water mains. The connections comprises: 1. Stopcock 2. Goose neck 3. Ferrule 4. Water meter The correct statement of these connections is :

a) 1, 2, 3, 4 b) 3, 1, 2, 4 c) 3, 2, 1, 4 d) 1, 2, 4, 3

493. A point load applied at shear center induces : a) Zero shear force b) Zero bending c) Pure twisting d) Pure bending

494. Cross sections of two beams A (600mm x 200mm) and B (800mm x 60mm) are

shown in the given figure. Both the beams have the same material. By how many times is the beam A stronger than the beam B in resisting bending?

a) 80 b) 60 c) 50 d) 25

495. Viewing watershed as a system, which one of the following assumptions is made in

the unit graph theory? a) Non-linearity b) Both linearity and time variance c) Both time invariance and non-linearity d) Both linearity and time invariance



496. Following statements certain to the position of Sun when it lies over the First Point of Aries: 1. it’s hour angle is zero. 2. Its right ascension is zero. 3. Its declination is zero. Of these statements :

a) 1 and 3 are correct b) 2 and 3 are correct c) 1 and 2 are correct d) 1, 2 and 3 are correct

497. The bearing capacity factors Nc, Nq and Nr are functions of:

a) width and depth of footing b) density of soil c) cohesion of soil d) angle of internal friction of soil

498. Budgeting with Bar chart is a tool to find

a) total cost of project b) total time along with cost of project c) indirect cost of project d) direct cost of project

499. The slenderness ratio of lacing bars should not exceed :

a) 100 b) 200 c) 145 d) 180

500. The acceleration components of a fluid particle are denoted as 1. Local tangential acceleration. 2. Convective tangential acceleration. 3. Local normal acceleration. 4. Convective normal acceleration. In a curved nozzle fitted to the end of straight pipeline carrying water under variable head, the acceleration component that are present would include

a) 1 and 2 b) 3 and 4 c) 1, 2 and 4 d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

501. In the truss shown in the given figure, the forces in the members AB and BC will be

respectively (plus denotes tension) a) zero and zero b) - W/cos 60° and + W tan 60° c) - W/cos 60° and zero d) zero and + W tan 60°



502. Consider the following statements: In the beam shown in the given figure, for all positions of load W (except x = 0) 1. Bending moment is maximum at B 2. Bending moment is maximum under load 3. Deflection is zero at A 4. deflection is zero at B Of these statements :

a) and 3 are correct b) and 4 are correct c) and 4 are correct d) 1, 3 and 4 are correct

503. In a three-layered soil, water flows parallel to stratification. The thickness of the

middle layer is twice that of top and bottom layer. The coefficient of permeability of middle layer (2K) is twice that of top and bottom layer (K). What is the average coefficient of permeability for this flow?

a) K b) 1.33 K c) 1.5 K d) 0.66 K

504. Which type of brick masonry bond is provided for heavy loads on masonry?

a) English bond b) Zigzag bond c) Single Flemish bond d) Double Flemish bond

505. In the set up shown in the above figure, assuming the specific weight of water as 10,

000 N/m3, the pressure difference between the

points A and B will be a) 10 N/m

2

b) -10 N/m2

c) 20 N/m2

d) -20 N/m2

506. The ratio of the "standard error of a single observation of unit weight" to the standard error of the arithmetic mean of 'n' observation all of unit weight, will be

a) (1/n) b) n

2

c) 3n d) n

507. If the azimuths of the two tangents to a circular curve of radius 100 m are due north

and due east, then the area bounded by the two tangents and the circular curve will be a) 7857 sq. m b) 5000 sq. m c) 3143 sq. m d) 2143 sq. m



508. In the truss shown. If the temperature of member B-C changed by 100 F0. The

displacement of point E is equal to: a) 3.52 mm b) 9.83 mm c) 8.3 mm d) None of the above

509. Calculate the deflection a point A: a) 9.75P/EA b) 21P/EA c) 42P/EA

= (P*L3)/3EA = (64 P)/ 3EA = 21P/EA

510. What proctor test used for? To obtain maximum dry density (MDD) for backfilling material

511. One of the following is not acceptable reason of delay or non-performance of the work:

a) Frustration of an object (اإلحباط) b) Death of party c) Destruction of deliverable d) Strike of labors

512. Lowest level in WBS: a) Work package b) Deliverable c) Element

513. Fiber saturation happens when:

No free water in cells, but walls are filled with bound water

514. Main cause to reduce concrete durability? a) Corrosion of reinforcement b) Sulfate and ground water c) Fire d) All of the above

515. The diagram represents:

a) Shear b) Moment c) Deflection d) Slope



516. Archimedes principle for buoyancy is based on: a) Area b) Moment of inertia c) Intensity of water d) Weight

517. Load carrying & deflection design is known for:

a) Euler-Bernoulli b) Galileo Galilee c) Xxxxx d) Xxxxx

518. Calculate the value of deflection @ B:

a) 110 P/EA b) 210 P/EA c) 310 P/EA d) Zero

519. Richter scale used to measure:

Seismic energy

520. Using concordant cables in pre-stressed concrete for beams : a) Initial support for member b) No initial support for member c) Cracks of beam d) Deflection of beam

521. One of the following is not part of the project life cycle:

a) Object b) Planning c) Execution d) Deliverable closure

522. The following is very critical to structure:

a) Settlement b) Differential settlement c) Settlement rate d) None of the above

523. Plastic behavior of concrete:

a) Shrinkage cracks b) Settlement c) A & B d) None of the above

524. Factors affecting bearing capacity while design of foundation:

a) Shear b) Specific weight of soil c) Dimensions of foundation d) All of above



525. Cause of corrosion a) Availability of water & moisture b) Small cover of concrete c) A & B d) None of the above

526. If $ 1000000 deposited, what will be the total amount after 5 years accumulated on

monthly basis with annual rate of return of 9% a) $1565681 b) $1538623 c) $1546742 d) $1900000

(P) = $1000000 (i) = 0.09/12 = 0.0075 )monthly (n) = 5*12 = 60 months F = P(1+i)

n = 1000000(1+0.0075)

60 = $1565681

527. Calculate the discharge for the channel below, where: channel is 2m wide & velocity u

is given as a functional channel depth (u = y1/3

) Channel depth (y) = (sin 60

0)* 1 = 0.866 m

A = channel width * channel depth = 2*((Sin 600)*1) =

1.732 m2

Q = A*u = 1.732 * (sin 600 * 1 )

1/3 = 1.651 m

3/sec

528. Why a concrete beam is designed as doubly reinforced beam?

a) High bending moment b) Limitation of beam depth c) Xxxxx d) Xxxxx

529. While lifting a precast slab, where the highest shear may happen

At edges (slab ends)

530. Which type of rollers to be used for sand compaction? a) Roller with vibrator b) Roller without vibrator

531. Land to be surveyed, which method to be used?

a) Vertical b) Horizontal c) Geodesic

532. Required CPI value for a project is 1.02, where actual value is 0.95, what does this

indicates? Actual cost performance indicator (CPI) is less than planned, which means that project actual cost is more than budgeted cost due to miss-use of project resources

533. What is the cement type used for concrete exposed to soil? Type II : Moderate Sulphate resistance

534. What effects on suspension system in hungers? Tension



535. What is the slope of sedimental tank: a) 1:20 b) 1:40 c) 1:60 d) 1:80

536. What is a sedimentation rock?

a) Granite b) Marble c) Sand rock d) Clay

537. What effects on QSAS?

a) Environmental b) Social c) Cost d) Time

538. Calculate the rotation at member AB:

a) 0.0378 deg b) 0.02601 rad c) 0.00046 rad d) Zero

539. Station PI=18+259.025, T=90m, calculate station PC

PC=PI – T = 18259.025-90 = 18169.025 = 18+169.025 PC = PI – T PT = PI + T

540. The ultimate compression capacity of a pile in clay is given by Qs=9ApC+αC(πDL), where C= cohesion, Ap=cross-sectional area at the pile top, α = skin friction, D=pile diameter & L=pile length C=60KN/m

3 , α = 0.7 , D=0.4m

a) 595 KN b) 651 KN c) 528 KN d) 461 KN

Ap = (π * D2

) / 4 Qs= (9*(π * 0.4

2/4)*60)+(0.7*60+(π*0.4*10))

= 595 KN

541. In automobile factory, who is the right person to take decision a) Electrical engineer b) Mechanical engineer c) Petroleum engineer d) Super-intended foreman

542. Kilo watt-hour is unit for:

Electrical energy

543. Line connecting the same elevation on the drawing known as: a) Super elevation b) Grade line c) Contour line



544. What is the reaction in ceiling fan a) Bending moment b) Shear c) Tension d) Compression

545. CPM used for :

a) Find out the duration of the project b) Relation between the time & activity

546. One of the following is not characteristics of the project

a) Design b) Complex activities c) Internal use d) Never done before

547. What is the last component added in process of making OPC concrete?

a) Silica b) Calcium Sulphate c) Aggregates d) Cement

548. Compaction equipment can be used for sand or clay material as following,

a) Roller for sand & clay b) Foot-shape for sand & clay c) Foot-shape for sand d) Roller for sand

549. This question is regarding the deflection of car speed 60mile/hr when it reach the

roundabout: a) 150 ft b) 300 ft c) 480 ft d) 500 ft

550. This question about the method for in-situ test of rock?

a) Coring b) Textile

551. Calculate the deflection at B:

a) 72 mm b) 666 mm c) 6.66 mm d) 85 mm

552. 2-way slab sides lifting caused by? a) High punching shear b) Torsion c) Unbalanced moment d) Resulting moment e) Resulting shear



553. Top of WBS: a) The project b) Deliverables c) Work package d) None of the above

554. High W/C ratio leads to:

a) Reduce strength b) Better workability c) Increase strength d) None of the above

555. Air – entrained admixture used in concrete to:

a) Increase workability b) Increase durability c) Eliminates segregation d) Reduce density of concrete

556. Timber important factor to be used as a beam member:

a) Strength b) Hard to bend c) Smooth surface

557. Clayish

a) Good for usage in road b) Bad for usage in road c) Used in road d) None of the above

558. What is the steel strength which used for reinforced concrete?

a) 100 N/mm2

b) 200 N/mm2

c) 300 N/mm2

d) 500 N/mm2

559. If there is a short measuring tape, what is the error with the results?

Cumulative error

560. If there is a project in the tender stage and the planned CPI>1, but the actual value of CPI <1 in the final stage , what this means:

a) The project resources are utilized with bad efficiency b) The project resources are utilized with good efficiency c) The project team for the work remaining can be stringent d) The project team for the work remaining can be lenient

561. What is the meaning of the pert analysis? a) Project management schedule that provide the project actual time b) Project management tools that provide a graphical representation of a project

time line c) Project management team that provide the project floats d) Project management tools that provide the actual value of the activities



562. The standard deviation is factor of: a) The pessimistic estimate value b) An optimistic estimate value c) Most likely estimate value d) 1 & 2 e) None of the above

563. What is the maximum allowable tensile stress in the wooden building?

a) 100 MPa b) 40 MPa c) 25 N/mm

2

d) 60 N/mm2

e) None of the above Between 25 60 N/mm

2

564. The steel reinforcement in the concrete is very important in:

a) Maximum positive bending moment b) Zero value of bending moment c) Maximum tension stress d) Max compression stress e) 1 & 3 of the above

565. What is the type of cement used in sub-structure reinforcement concrete?

a) WPC b) OPC c) SRC d) PFA

566. What is the type of cement used in sub-structure binding concrete?

a) WPC b) OPC c) SRC d) PFA

567. What is the minimum thickness in blinding concrete in sub-structure concrete?

a) 100 mm b) 50 mm c) 75 mm d) 125 mm

568. What is the maximum live load have to be concerned in the design stage:

a) Residential building b) Commercial building c) High raise building d) None of the above



569. Consider the following statements: A critical activity in a CBM network has 1. The longest duration of all activities 2. Zero total float 3. Zero for float 4. The shortest duration of all activities which one of the statements given above are correct?

a) 1 and 2 b) 1 and 3 c) 2 and 3 d) 3 and 4

570. The modules of elasticity (E) of concrete is given by

a) E = 1000 fck b) E = 57000 fck c) E = 5700 fck d) E = 10, 000 fck

571. In the design of two-way slab restrained at all edges, torsional reinforcement required

is : a) 0.75 times the area of steel provided at Mmidspan in the same direction b) 0.375 times the area of steel provided at Mmidspan in the same direction

572. The rate of an item of work depends on

a) Specifications of works b) Specifications of materials c) Proportion of mortar d) Method of construction e) All the above.

573. Two bars AO and BO are of uniform area 'A' each and are hinged at O as shown in the given figure. A load W is applied at O. The vertical deflection of O will be

a) WL/AE b) WL/2AE c) W

2L/AE

574. Consider the following statements: The effect of sea water on hardened concrete is to 1. Increase its strength 2. Reduce its strength 3. Retard setting 4. Decrease its durability. Of these statements :

a) 1 & 3 are correct b) 2 & 3 are correct c) 2 & 4 are correct



575. Consider the following statements: A: For beams, I-sections are more economical than rectangular section. R: Most of the material is concentrated away from the centroid. Of these statements :

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct EXPLATION of A b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A c) A is try but R is false d) A is false but R is true

576. General shrinkage in cement concrete is caused by a) carbonation b) stresses due to external load c) drying the starting with a stiff consistency d) D-drying starting with a wetter consistency

577. Laterite is a/an

a) volcanic rock b) argillaceous rock c) calcareous rock

578. A dumpy level was set up at mid-point between pegs A and B, 80 m apart and the staff

reading were 1.32 and 1.56. When the level was set up at a point 10 m from A on BA produced, the staff readings obtained at A and B were 1.11 and 1.39. The correct staff reading from this set up at S should be

a) 1.435 b) 1.345 c) 1.425 d) None of these

= (

)= 1.345

579. Theoretical oxygen demand (TOD) O2 required to completely oxidize a chemical substance to CO2 & H2O

580. Biochemical oxygen demand (BOD) O2 consumed by a substance test using microorganisms for oxidation

581. Chemical oxygen demand (COD) Standard test using chemical oxidants

582. Nutrients Phosphorous is typically the limiting nutrient in lakes, and algae growth is linked to phosphorous inputs

583. Problems of nutrients a) Taste & odor in drinking water b) Can be toxic, especially to farm animals c) Fouling



584. P sources a) Fertilizers b) Detergents

585. Pollutants are measured by oxygen demand potential or total organic content

a) BOD b) COD c) TOC (total organic carbon)

586. Coagulation:

a) Process of adding chemicals and rapid mixing b) Chemical treatment process that destabilizes colloidal particles

587. Flocculation:

Process of gently mixing the water and coagulant, allowing the formation of large particles of floc

588. Sedimentation basin (primary treatment) a) Waste water is held in a quiet tank for several hours allowing the particles to

settle to the bottom and the greases to float to the top b) The solids drawn off the bottom and skimmed off the top receive further

treatment as sludge

589. Water hardness is principally caused by: a) Calcium ions b) Magnesium ions

590. Dis-advantages of hardness:

a) Excessive soap consumption during laundering b) Scale-formation in hot water heaters and pipes

591. Filtration a) The final step in removing particles b) Removal of those particles that are too small to be effectively removed during

sedimentation

592. Rapid sand filtration: a) As particles are removed, filter become clogged- head loss increases, turbidity

increases b) Must back-wash once per day c) Must design to handle flow with one filter out of service

593. How do treatment plants protect our water?

a) Remove solids b) Reduce organic matter & pollutants c) Restores oxygen



594. Properties of air-entrained concrete: a) Improve freeze-thaw resistance b) Improve resistance to deicers & salts c) Improve Sulphate resistance d) Improve resistance to alkali-silica reactivity e) Reduces the compressive strength of concrete f) Improve workability of fresh concrete

595. Water reducing admixture:

a) Used to reduce the quantity of mixing water required to produce concrete of a certain slump

b) reduce water cement ratio c) increase slump d) increase workability of fresh concrete without addition of more cement or

water e) Achieve high compressive strength without increasing the cement content or

reducing the workability of fresh concrete f) Reduce cement content without reducing the strength or workability g) Produce high early strength by using super plasticizers

596. Retarding admixtures:

a) Used to reduce the rate of hydration, so that retards the rate of setting of concrete

b) To offset the accelerating effect of hot weather on the setting of concrete c) To delay the initial set of concrete or grout when more time is needed to

placement & finishing d) To offset the accelerating effect of other admixtures

597. Accelerating admixtures:

a) Used to develop early strength of concrete b) To expedite the start of finishing operation and application of insulation for

protection c) To reduce the time required for proper curing and protection d) To permit early removal of forms and earlier opening of the construction for

service e) To permit more sufficient plugging of leaks against hydraulic pressure

598. Function of aggregates in concrete: a) Economy b) Strength c) Reduction in shrinkage & expansion

599. Flakiness:

Describes the relationship between the smallest & largest dimension of the aggregates

600. Soundness & Durability The ability of aggregates to withstand weathering



601. Toughness & abrasion resistance a) The ability of aggregates to resist damaging effect of loads is related to the

hardness of aggregates b) LOS Angeles abrasion test evaluates the aggregates toughness & abrasion

resistance

602. Gradation: a) Describes the particle size distribution of the aggregates b) Sieve analysis test used to determine gradation of aggregates

603. Finess modulus

The same as gradation but used only for fine aggregates

604. Production of concrete: a) Batching of ingredients b) Mixing c) Fresh concrete d) Placing & curing e) Hardened concrete

605. VIP notes:

a) The higher the water content, the higher the slump b) Low cement content, produce a harsher mix which is harder to finish c) Increasing cement content, tends to give better cohesiveness’ but higher

sickness d) Increasing the maximum size of aggregates, increase the slump e) Higher angularity and roughness, produces stiffer fresh concrete f) Water reducing, air-entraining & fly ash admixtures, increase the slump of

fresh concrete

606. Why we make curing? a) To keep concrete moist b) To control the temperature of concrete

607. Segregation:

Separation of coarse aggregates from mortar

608. Bleeding: Separation of water from concrete

609. Methods to reduce bleeding: a) Use air entrainment b) Increase the proportion of sand and / or cement in concrete mix c) Use mineral admixtures such as fly ash or ground blast furnace slag

610. Method to reduce segregation:

a) Don’t use a mix that is too dry b) Use well graded aggregates c) Use proper placement & compaction techniques



611. Effect of hot weather: a) Increase rate of setting b) Increase possibility of plastic cracking c) Increase loss of moisture during curing d) Difficulties in controlling air-entrained content

612. Creep:

A time-dependent deformation that begins immediately but continuous at a decreasing rate for as long as the concrete is loaded

613. Effects of using sea water: a) Strength of concrete may be lower at later ages b) Increase the risk of corrosion of reinforcing steels

614. Types of Portland cement:

a) Type (I) normal b) Type (II) moderate Sulphate resistance (exposed to soil) c) Type (III) high early strength d) Type (IV) low heat of hydration e) Type (V) high Sulphate resistance (sea water)

615. Stopping sight distance:

a) In (ft)

( )

b) In metric

( )

Where: T=2.5 sec

616. Types of intersection: a) Intersection at grade b) Grade separations without ramp c) Interchanges

617. Curves At-Grade intersection:

a) Angle of turn b) Turning speed c) Traffic volume d) Design vehicle

618. Minimum road length for one way

15 m



619. Level of service a) Is a letter designation that describes a range of operating conditions on a

particular type of facility b) LOS (A)best c) LOS (F)worst or system breakdown d) Defined by a single measure of effectiveness (MOE)

620. While designing intersection:

a) Speed/travel time b) Density c) Delay

621. Capacity is

The maximum sustained 15-min rate of flow (PC/mi/ln)

622. Minimum lane width 12 Ft

623. A systematic process: a) Initiating b) Planning c) Executing d) Controlling e) Closing

624. First thing to do after talking a project:

a) Project charter b) Project plan c) WBS d) Risk management e) Communications f) Controlling the project

625. Planning involves 4 main steps:

a) Performing WBS b) Identifying proper sequence by which the activities should be executed c) Activities representation d) Estimating the resources, time & cost of each individual activity

626. WBS:

A hierarchical structure which is designed to logically subdivide all work elements of the project into a graphical presentation

627. OBS organizational breakdown structure Defines the different responsibility levels and their appropriate reporting

628. Activities are classified into three types: a) Production activities (excavation, formwork, reinforcement, concreting, steel

fixing…) b) Procurement activities (concrete procurement, steel reinforcing bar

procurement, brick procurement, boiler manufacturing delivery, …) c) Management activities (approvals, vacations, …)



629. Activity mean completion time

630. Activities completion time varience

(

)2

631. The rate of accumulation of sludge in septic tanks is recommended as: 30 liters/person/year

632. The PH value of fresh sewage is usually More than 7

633. For poorly graded sub-base, thickness of sub-base is: 30 cm

634. The independent float affects only on: The particular activity involved

635. The time by which a particular activity can be delayed without affecting the preceding and succeeding activities

Independent float

636. Slump test: a) Reinforced foundation wall & footing 25-75 b) Plain footing 25-75 c) Pavements & slabs 25-75 d) Mass concrete 25-50 e) Beams & reinforcement walls 25-100 f) Columns 25-100

637. In cutting & filling information Balance point : cut quantities equal to fill quantities



638. Calculate the total net cut/fill between two points a) Step 1

I. Cut 1 area = AC1 ft2 , fill 1 area = AF1 ft

2

II. Cut 2 area = AC2 ft2 , fill 2 area = AF2 ft

2

b) Step 2

I. Volume cut = (

) *100 ft = VC.AVE.

II. Volume fill = (

) * 100 ft = VF.AVE.

c) Step 3

I. Total cut or fill = volume cut – volume fill = …. Ft3

الصغير( –الكبير )

II. CY (soil) =

639. Total length of valley

(

)1/3

where:

N= G2-G1 = …% = …% / 100 = …

V=….*1000 / 60 / 60 =.... m/sec

640. Maximum perpendicular offset of the transition of curve is:

= (R)/2L

641. To get maximum length of offset

L=(accuracy*error*scale)/√

=(40*0.05*20)/ √

642. The maximum size of reinforcement bar that can be used in slab:

=thickness of slab / 8 if 9.9 use 8mm

643. Spliced Beam

a) Typically resist large bending moments & shear forces

644. In open channel flow, the area equations:

a) Rectangle 2y2

b) Triangle y2

c) Trapezoid 1.73 y2

d) Semi-circle 0.5 π y2



645. Ingredients of concrete:

a) Cement reduce bleeding

b) Aggregates reduce shrinkage

c) Water increase slump

d) Admixtures primary ingredients

646. The intersection between WBS & OBS

a) Responsibility matrix

b) Priority matrix

c) Work package or sub deliverable

d) Cost account

e) Project overlap

647. When earth quake happens what acceleration type happens under building:

Peak ground acceleration

648. The road of a one way one road :

a) 15 m

b) 16 m

c) 17 m

d) 18 m

649. Loads to be designed in construction

a) Dead load , wind load , earthquake load & live load

b) Dead load, wind load , earthquake load & live load during construction

c) Dead load , wind load , seismic load & live load

d) Dead load , wind load , seismic load & live load during construction

650. Shape of moment in simple supported beam:

a) Concentrated load triangular

b) Distributed load parabolic.

651. In the following truss, when the building is subjected to earth quake and joint A is subjected to two forces one is (+10 KN) and the other is (-5 KN) , so what will be the force in member AB

a) Always tension

b) Always compression

c) Sometime tension & sometime compression

d) Zero member

My answer was (c), since that was the earthquake characteristics & unless that happen no building will fall down due to earthquake loads Since, earthquake subject the building to different forces in different directions



652. How to calculate the stress at a point under any foundation, with depth (z) due to a load (P)

a) If rectangular with dimensions (B * L)

b) If circular footing with diameter (D)

[

(

( )

)

]

mmup final for civil engineers

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