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    JNTU ONLINE EXAMINATIONS [Mid 2 - MS]

    Which of the following refers to a directive written to guide personnel department in

    fulfilling its objectives or functions?

    a.

    Personnel policyb. Recruitment policyc. Working Policyd. Training policy

    2. 'Specifying the requirements on the part of persons doing the job' is calleda. Job Rotationb. Job Analysisc. Job datad. job enrichment

    3. Developing organizational culture and management style is the function ofa.

    Human Resource Managementb. Materials Management

    c. Finance Managementd. Marketing Management

    4. Which of the following is predominantly a HR function?a. supportingb. Linec. Line and supportingd. recreation

    5. Labour Management is the key issue fora.

    HRMb. Personnel & IR

    c. Training and Developmentd. HRD

    6. The guide to management action in HRM isa. Competitorb. customerc. Bankerd. owner

    7. Human resource Management isa.

    Operation-driven processb. Strategy-driven Process

    c. Tactical Driven processd. Market-driven process

    8. Which of the following managers perform both line and staff functions?a. Marketing managerb. Finance Managerc. Personnel Manager

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    d. Logistics Manager9. Rational method of assessing requirements of human resources at different

    levels in the organization is called

    a. Manpower Resourcesb. Manpower planningc. Manpower statisticsd. manpower rationing

    10.Which of the following is a negative functiona. Recruitmentb. Selectionc. Performance appraisald. Training

    11.Aptitude tests form a part ofa. Appraisalb. Trainingc. Selectiond. negotiation

    12.Which of the following refers to the method of assessment to predict whowould be successful on job?

    a. Brainstormingb. Score cardsc. Aptitude testsd. Attitude tests

    13.Which of the following cannot be assessed through group discussions?a. Communication skillsb. Leadership skillsc. Ability to convinced. Conduct and character

    14.The number of employees leaving the organization is referred asa. Inductionb. Inventoryc. Labour Turnoverd. turnover

    15.Redundancy results ina. Induction of employeesb. Separation of employeesc. Retention of employeesd. appraisal of employees

    16.Which of the following involves providing the organizations profile, business,its departments, their jobs to new employees?

    a. Orientationb. Enlightenment

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    c. Trainingd. Development

    17.A process designed to maintain or improve current job performancea. Developmental programb. Training Programc. Orientation programd. Recreational program

    18.Which of the following facilitates employees working on series of jobsthereby learning a broad variety of skills is

    a. Skill trainingb. Job Trainingc. Job Rotationd. job analysis

    19.Role playing helps in enhancinga. Listening skillsb. Writing skillsc. Observation skillsd. Interpersonal skills

    20.Conferences and seminars form a part ofa. Off the job trainingb. Online trainingc. Multi skill trainingd. Experiential learning

    21.Which of the following refer to interactive exercises practiced in mocksituations?

    a. Conferencesb. Team Discussionsc. Case studyd. Simulation Exercises

    22.Experiential learning is a part ofa. on-the-job trainingb. off-the-job trainingc. Personal Trainingd. Both on-the-job and off-the-job training

    23.Training the employees selected to work in shop floor in the factory itself isa. Project Trainingb. Apprentice Trainingc. Professional Trainingd. Quality circle

    24.The process of familiarizing new employees with vision, mission and goals oforganization is called

    a. induction

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    b. attritionc. separationd. recruitment

    25.Training needs are assessed whena. job is performed wellb. gap exists between actual and standard performance of a jobc. non existence of job standardsd. employees want to earn more

    26.Advancement of an employee to a job with higher authority andresponsibility is

    a. Separationb. Promotionc. Demotiond. Negotiation

    27.Demotion results ina. High Authority and responsibilitiesb. High salaryc. Lower authority and salaryd. Lower salary

    28.Termination of employment is also referred asa. Separationb. Inductionc. Orientationd. Recruitment

    29.Wage and salary administration is done througha. Job descriptionb. Job inductionc. Both job description and job inductiond. Job evaluation

    30.ESOP form a part ofa. Housing Incentiveb. Financial Incentivec. Vehicle Incentived. Non-financial incentive

    31.Wages paid on basis of units produced isa. standard wage systemb. Piece wage systemc. Differential piece wage systemd. Unit-wages

    32.Magnitude of difference in wages isa. Wage differentialb. Compensation

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    c. Wage revisiond. Minimum wage

    33.Minimum Wages Act providesa. Organization's Policyb. Statutory Normc. Obligatory Normd. Freedom to pay minimum wages

    34.Which of the following implies performance appraisal done by self by anemployee?

    a. Self-evaluationb. Self-judgmentc. Self-appraisald. Self-analysis

    35.Which of the following is viewed as reward for better services one hasrendered on a particular job?

    a. Promotionb. Demotionc. Attritiond. transfer

    36.The process of evaluating the performance or accomplishments of anemployee is called

    a. Performance reviewb. Performance Assessmentc. Performance appraisald. Performance Management

    37.Which of the following is an example for non-analytical method of jobevaluation?

    a. Ranking methodb. Merit ratingc. Factor comparison methodd. Point rating method

    38.The financial implication of high labour turnover isa. Loss of outputb. Under utilization of equipmentc. Additional overtime costsd.

    Low employee morale39.Identifying the career plans of key position in an organization is a part of

    a. Exit Strategyb. Succession Strategyc. Recruitment Strategyd. Redeployment Strategy

    40.Consultation & Quality Circles form a part of

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    a. Financial Incentivesb. Non-Financial Incentivesc. Performance appraisald. Grievance handling

    41.In which of the following enactments, the Procedure for handling Industrialdisputes are clearly laid down?a. Industrial Dispute Act, 1947b. Workmen's Compensation Act, 1923c. Employees' State Insurance Act,1948d. Industrial Disputes Act, 1948

    42.In which of the following, Skill, effort, responsibility and job conditions arewidely accepted factors?

    a. Factor Comparison Methodb. Ranking Methodc. Point Rating methodd.

    Job classification method43.Actual performance based on results is considered for evaluation in

    a. Essay Methodb. Forced Distribution Methodc. MBOd. Narrative method

    44.Which of the following involves motivational climate at all levels by training,counseling and delegation?

    a. Negative reinforcementb. Positive reinforcementc.

    Neutral reinforcementd. Linear reinforcement

    45.The technique of assessing systematically the relative worth of each job iscalled

    a. Job descriptionb. Job enrichmentc. Job evaluationd. Job rotation

    46.Increased responsibility for planning and self evaluation is a part ofa. Job rotationb.

    Job securityc. Job enrichment

    d. Quality circles47.Which of the following is a natural choice for most of the knowledge-based

    organizations?

    a. Consultationb. Flexi timec. Job enlargement

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    d. Grievance handling48.Final stage in grievance handling is

    a. Conference with middle managementb. Conference with Unionc. Arbitrationd. separation

    49.To see India polio free by end of 2015 is an example ofa. Missionb. Goalc. Pland. strategy

    50.Complaint when ignored takes the form ofa. Dissatisfactionb. Grievancec. Concernd. Dispute

    51.MBO was coined bya. Flippob. Peter Druckerc. MB Athreyad. Douglas McGregor

    52.Which of the following implies the `Overall objective` or `over all goal` of afirm?

    a. Policyb. Visionc. Missiond. Strategy

    53.The broad guideline set by Top Management for making decisions is calleda. Objectiveb. Strategyc. Policyd. Goal

    54.The logical sequence of operations to be performed in a given project refersto

    a. Programmeb. Strategyc. Pland. Mission

    55.The management's decision to convert one of their manufacturing unit toExport Oriented Unit (EOU) forms an example of

    a. Visionb. Corporate planning

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    c. Objectived. policy

    56.The Process of identifying opportunities to achieve further growth within thecompany`s current businesses is called

    a. Intensive growthb. Diversification growthc. Growth through Acquisitiond. Extensive growth

    57.Chandana Bros , a leading retailer in textile business, adds jewellery sectionalso to its business. This is an example for

    a. Concentric diversificationb. Conglomerate diversificationc. horizontal diversificationd. vertical diversification

    58.SWOT analysis is analysis ofa. Strong, win, Opportunities, Team workb. Strengths, weakness, offers & Threatsc. Strengths, weakness, opportunities & Threatsd. Strengths, weakness, offers & Team work

    59.The strategy of penetrating into the existing markets with current product isa. Intensive penetration strategyb. Market penetrating strategyc. Current penetrating strategyd. Competition penetrating strategy

    60.Concentric and conglomerate diversification form a part ofa. Integrative growthb. Diversification growthc. Horizontal growthd. Linear growth

    61.SBU refers toa. Software Business Unitb. Solutions Business Unitc. Systematic Business Unitd. Strategic Business Unit

    62.The process of developing DVD players from VCR in keeping view of thetechnology trends is an example ofa. Market Development Strategyb. Product Development Strategyc. diversification strategyd. acquisition strategy

    63.Identifying opportunities to develop or acquire business related to companyscurrent businesses is

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    a. Integrative growthb. Intensive growthc. Horizontal growthd. Linear growth

    64.Disinvestment from PSU's by Government is an example fora. Strength - Threat Strategyb. Threat-Weakness strategyc. Strength-Opportunity strategyd. Win-Lose strategy

    65.Legally taking over business of competitors isa. Vertical Strategyb. Downsizing strategyc. Backward Integration strategyd. Horizontal Integration strategy

    66.To identify and understand new opportunities in which the company canperform profitably isa. Environmental outlookb. Environmental scanningc. Environmental scoutingd. Environmental analysis

    67.Which of the following forms a part of external environmental analysis?a. Strengthsb. Opportunitiesc. weaknessd. Opportunities & Threats

    68.A challenge posed by an unfavorable trenda. Opportunityb. Weaknessc. Threatd. Strength

    69.Which of the following is a strategy that aims at optimising strengths andweaknesses?

    a. Strength Threat Strategyb. Strength Opportunity Strategyc. Threat-Weakness strategyd.

    Strength-weakness strategy70.Single Business Unit planned independently from rest of company is

    a. EOUb. SBUc. MOUd. FOU

    71.Corporate planners are called as

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    a. Strategistsb. Visionariesc. Motivatorsd. Planners

    72.The process of analyzing the firm's internal strength and weakness isa. Internal analysisb. Internal processingc. Internal reviewd. Internal performance

    73.When a company finds its product-wise performance is not even the bestsuited, the strategy is

    a. Expansionb. Retrenchmentc. Stabilityd. Combination strategy

    74.Walmart proposes an alliance with Bharti Group. What is this alliancecalled?

    a. Product-service allianceb. Logistic alliancec. organizational allianced. Combinations

    75.For which of the following, Outsourcing is an example?a. Expansionb. Combinationc. Retrenchmentd.

    Combination76.Which of the following is a tool that aids for corporate strategy evaluation

    and control?

    a. MISb. MIS & MBOc. HRISd. CRM

    77.Most favoured strategy for progressive firm isa. Threat-weakness strategyb. Strength Threat strategyc.

    Strength Opportunity strategyd. Strength-weakness strategy

    78.The alliances the corporate choose to develop with the members of theirstrategic groups are called

    a. Strategic allianceb. Organizational alliancec. Strategic shiftd. Strategic combination

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    79.Two or more companies coming to promote their products & services forma. Promotional allianceb. Logistic alliancec. Advertisement allianced. Distribution alliance

    80.The course of action desired to achieve the objective of the enterprise isa. Strategyb. Missionc. Objectived. schedule

    81.During initial stages of product life cycle, which of the following strategy ispreferred?

    a. Stabilityb. Expansionc. Retrenchmentd. Combination

    82.Which of the following strategies the company is said to pursue when itprovides `Employee stock options` are offered?

    a. Differentiationb. Retrenchmentc. Retentiond. expansion

    83.Why mission statements are communicated down the cadres in theorganisation?

    a. to communicate down the cadres in the organisationb. to develop shared visionc. to motivate all in the organizationd. to coordinate work around

    84.Which of the following ensures strategic allocation of resources inorganizations?

    a. schedulesb. budgetsc. rulesd. policies

    85.Companies having alliance with GATI for transportation of goods are said tohavea. Product allianceb. Pricing collaborationc. Logistic allianced. pricing alliance

    86.Which of the following strategies means gaining more market share with thecurrent products in the current markets?

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    a. market exploration strategyb. market penetration strategyc. market expansion strategyd. market integration strategy

    87.The process of Strategic Management begins witha. Missionb. Goalc. Mission and Goald. Either Mission or Goal

    88.Which of the following explains the basic reason for the existence of anorganization?

    a. missionb. shared visionc. goald. strategy

    89.Which of the following is an operational tool to achieve the goals set throughmission?

    a. planb. goalc. strategyd. schedule

    90.Which of the following implies the process of reducing the operations of theunprofitable business?

    a. outsourcingb. downsizingc.

    closingd. winding up

    91.Which of the following imply opportunities?a. weaknessesb. threatsc. strengthsd. infrastructure

    92.In which of the following cases, expansion strategy is followed?a. in the early stages of product life cycleb. when there is cut throat competitionc.

    when there is competition and the product is in early stages of productlife cycle

    d. when you want to make more profits93.Which of the following is a tool for coordination and timing of different

    supporting programmes in a complex project?

    a. PERT/CPMb. GERT/CPMc. CPM

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    d. PERT94.Which of the following evaluates systematically the company's internal

    factors?

    a. strategic advantage profileb. strategic profilec. advantage profiled. strategic profile advantage

    95.An alliance is said to be successful when it can promote more sales at _ _ _ __ _ _ cost.

    a. lowerb. linearc. horizontald. same

    96.Which of the following is not one as suggested by Michael Porter?a. Overall cost leadershipb. overall profit leadershipc. differentiationd. Focus

    97.The wide fluctuations in the foreign currency exchange rate implya. exchange riskb. fluctuation riskc. financial riskd. technical risk

    98.Which of the following form the basis for the most desirable strategy for abusiness unit?

    a. strengths and weaknessesb. strengths and opportunitiesc. strategies and threatsd. strategies and opportunities

    99.Which of the following is the starting point for strategic managementprocess?

    a. mission and goalsb. allocation of resourcesc. mission and strategiesd. mission and resources

    100.

    The minimum slack will always bea. positiveb. negativec. lineard. four

    101. PERT & CPM providea. Logical picture layout & complex project sequence

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    b. Identifying the critical activities & eventsc. Basis for working time, cost & resourcesd. an optimal rate of return on investment

    102. Which of the following is not the limitations of Gantt's bar chart?a. Interdependenciesb. Project progressc. Uncertaintiesd. coordination

    103. Which of the following is not an internal strategy variation?a. expansionb. retrenchmentc. stabilityd. budgeting

    104. In network analysis the overall objective isa. To minimize overall time spentb. To maximize overall return on capitalc. To neutralize overall time spentd. To cover every activity at any cost

    105. Which of the following denotes a set of activities with specific goal fora specific period of time?

    a. Scheduleb. Projectc. Activityd. critical parth

    106. Which of the following denotes number of techniques for planning &control of complex projectsa. Network analysisb. Activity analysisc. Project analysisd. Planning analysis

    107. PERT refers toa. Programme Escalation Review Toolb. Programme Evaluation Review Techniquec. Project Evaluation Revised Toold. Project Evaluation Reasoning Technique

    108.

    Link between Gantt chart & PERT/CPM network isa. Milestone chartb. Logical Chartc. Network Chartd. Activity chart

    109. In PERT, dummy activity representsa. dependence

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    b. logical dependencec. independence among jobsd. logical independence among jobs

    110. Which of the following does not consume resources?a. Activityb. Eventc. Dummy activityd. Dangler

    111. CPM involves a tradeoff betweena. Costb. Timec. Cost & Timed. Cost, time and quality

    112. The task or job in a program is represented bya. Eventb. Activityc. Networkd. Dotted event

    113. Start or end of activity is calleda. Eventb. Activityc. event and activityd. critical path

    114. Which of the following is event oriented?a. PERTb. CPMc. PERT and CPMd. CPPM

    115. CPM isa. Optimisticb. probalisticc. Deterministicd. optimistic and probabilistic

    116. In PERT activity is represented bya. Arrowb. Circlec. Dotted arrowd. Dotted circle

    117. In PERT, the event is represented bya. Arrowb. Circlec. Dotted arrow

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    d. Ellipse118. In optimistic time estimate the time taken by activity is

    a. Maximumb. Minimumc. No consumption of timed. Either maximum or minimum

    119. Average time estimate (te) isa.b.c.d.

    120. Negative float occursa. When Ts is less than Total project timeb. When Ts is greater than total project timec. When Ts=Total project timed. When Ts + total project time

    121. Positive float occurs whena. Ts is less than project timeb. When Ts is greater than total project timec. When Ts=Total project timed. When Ts + total project time

    122. Such events left untied to overall network are calleda. Prototypeb. Sequencec. Danglersd. drops

    123. Time taken to delay a particular event without affecting the projectcompletion time

    a. Deviationb. Successionc. slackd. critical path

    124.

    Float representsa. Under utilized resourcesb. Over utilized resourcesc. Optimally utilized resourcesd. Sub-optimally utilized resources

    125. Which of the following Normal deviate?

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    c. Inventory controld. Automation

    133. EOQ isa. Equal order quantityb. Estimated overall quantityc. Economic order quantityd. Equilibrium open quantity

    134. Which of the following indicates time by which an activity canexpand?

    a. total floatb. free floatc. independent floatd. negative float

    135. A programme is also calleda. jobb. projectc. eventd. network

    136. TQM was first coined bya. Toyota Production Systemb. US Naval Air Systems Commandc. General Electricd. General Motors

    137. Six sigma practice was first developed bya. General Motorsb. General Electricc. Motorolad. Nokia

    138. In Six sigma methodology, DMAIC is to improvea. New Business processb. Existing business processc. New Business process and Existing business processd. Either New Business process or Existing business process

    139. Which of the following is a dynamic linked system?a. JITb. MRPc. EOQd. KANBAN

    140. Jikoda isa. Workers observation of the machinesb. Machine monitoringc. Providing machines with autonomous capability to use judgment

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    d. Worker monitoring141. Six sigma process can have maximum defects of

    a. 3.4 defects per hundredb. 3.4 defects per trillionc. 3.4 defects per milliond. 3.4 defects per thousand

    142. Six sigma is registered trademark ofa. GEb. Bank of Americac. Honeywell Internationald. Motorola

    143. Six sigma methodology is accomplished through the use ofa. DMAICb. DMADVc. DMAIC and DMADVd. DMAIC minus DMADV

    144. Non-Conformity of product or service to its specifications isa. Defectb. Qualityc. Designd. Implementation

    145. Which of the following signify the scope, boundaries and intent ofeach key process area?

    a. Originsb. Projectsc. Goalsd. Orgins and projects

    146. Which of the following describe elements of infrastructure andpractice for effective implementation?

    a. Key practicesb. Goalsc. Timelinesd. Goals aand Timelines

    147. In Six sigma methodology, DMADV is used fora. New process designsb. Existing process designsc. New process designs and Existing process designsd. Either New process designs or Existing process designs

    148. Capability Maturity Model impliesa. Instructions an organization can follow to gain better control over its

    softwareb. Instructions to frame HR policy in software organizations

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    c. Process for effective utilization of softwared. products with effective quality

    149. Which of the following identifies cluster of related activities achieve aset of goals.

    a. Key process areasb. Originsc. Timelinesd. Schedules

    150. Which of the following organizations treat change management as anordinary business process in orderly way?

    a. Maturity level 2b. Maturity level 3c. Maturity level 4d. Maturity level 5

    151. Which of the following is the basis for process capability study?a. Process with multiple errorsb. If one has six standard deviations between mean of a process and

    nearest specification limit there will be practically zero errorsc. Process with minimum errorsd. process with maximum errors

    152. CMM ranks software development organization in a hierarchy ofa. Two levelsb. Three levelsc. Four levelsd. Five levels

    153.

    CMMI isa. Capability Maturity Model Improvementb. Capability Maturity Model Integrationc. Capability Maturity Model Initializationd. Capability Maturity Model Initiator

    154. Which of the following organizations treat change management as anordinary business process in orderly way?

    a. Maturity level 2b. Maturity level 3c. Maturity level 4d.

    Maturity level 5155. The process of planning and management of sourcing, procurement,

    conversion and logistics activities is called

    a. Supply Chain Managementb. Inventory Managementc. Logistics Managementd. Sourcing management

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    156. Production decisions and scheduling activities of SCM are groupedunder

    a. Operational activityb. Tactical Activityc. Strategic Activityd. Operational and tactical activities

    157. Inbound and outbound logistics forma. Operational activityb. Tactical Activityc. Strategic Activityd. Both Tactical Activity and Strategic Activity

    158. The major concern of CRM isa. Relationship between organization and customersb. Relationship between organization and consumersc. Relationship between different customersd. None

    159. Information technology infrastructure for SCM is grouped undera. Operational activityb. Tactical Activityc. Strategic Activityd. Both Operational activity and Tactical Activity

    160. ERP isa. Economic resource planningb. Enterprise resource planningc. Emerging resource planningd. Emerging economic planning

    161. Supply sourcing and negotiations are the functions ofa. CRMb. Production Planningc. Procurementd. BPO

    162. In physical distribution the final destination of marketing channel isa. Service Providerb. Manufacturerc. Customerd. Both Service Provider and Manufacturer

    163. Key ingredient of ERP system isa. Multiple databaseb. Diversified databasec. Unified databased. modular base

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    164. The process of extending or changing system work by writing newuser interface and underlying code is

    a. Consultingb. Implementationc. Customizationd. customer behaviour

    165. The discipline within systems management that focuses on monitoring& managing performance

    a. Performance improvementb. Application performance managementc. Both Performance improvement and Application performance

    management

    d. Either Performance improvement or Application performancemanagement

    166. Focuses on creating methodical & predictable ways to improvebusiness resultsa. APMb. BPMc. OPMd. BPR

    167. MRP isa. Material requirement Planningb. Manufacturing requirement planningc. Multiple resource planningd. Performance analysis

    168.

    Initial ERP implementation is the responsibility ofa. Consulting teamb. Customization teamc. Support teamd. Customization team and Support team

    169. The process where a manager intervenes to give feed back & adjustperformance

    a. Performance planningb. Performance coachingc. Performance appraisald.

    Performaance analysis170. The process of assessing progress in achieving predetermined goals is

    a. Performance managementb. Assessmentc. Both Performance management and Assessmentd. Either Performance management or Assessment

    171. Decision to sub contract some or all non core processes

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    a. BPRb. BPOc. APMd. BPA

    172. Improvements by means of elevating efficiency & effectiveness ofprocessesa. BPRb. BPOc. ITESd. MBO

    173. Process of comparing organizations operations & internal processesagainst other organizations in/outside industry

    a. TQMb. Benchmarkingc. Both TQM and Benchmarkingd.

    Either TQM or Benchmarking174. BPO contracted outside a company's own country

    a. Offshore outsourcingb. Onshore outsourcingc. Offshore outsourcing and Onshore outsourcingd. Either Offshore outsourcing or Onshore outsourcing

    175. Balanced scorecard was developed bya. Robert Kaplanb. David Nortonc. Robert Kaplan & David Nortond.

    Herald Koontz

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