ntse stage-i-rajasthan (2013,2014,2015,2016) paper -

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    30.

    7 32 ?

    31 8 25

    11 24 9

    (A) 50 (B) 48

    (C) 47 (D) 51

    31.

    4 20 25

    27 81 9

    11 44 ?

    (A) 4 (B) 16

    (C) 30 (D) 55

    Direction : (32 to 33) Find out the correct alternative

    of the questions based on the Dice figures.

    32.

    The number opposite side the face having the

    no. 4 will be –

    (A) 1 (B) 2

    (C) 5 (D) 6

    33. 2

    4

    ?

      (i) (ii) (iii)

    Three positions of a Dice are shown. In figure

    (iii) which number will come in place of (?).

    (A) 5 (B) 3

    (C) 6 (D) 1

    34. The following figure is converted into a cube.

    Its correct shape will be–

     

    (A) (B) (C) (D)

    30.

    7 32 ?

    31 8 25

    11 24 9

    (A) 50 (B) 48

    (C) 47 (D) 51

    31.

    4 20 25

    27 81 9

    11 44 ?

    (A) 4 (B) 16

    (C) 30 (D) 55

    funZs'k : (32 ls 33) iklksa ds n'kkZ, x, fp=k ij vk/kkfjriz'uksa ds lgh fodYi pqfu,A

    32.

    vad 4 ds foijhr i " B ij dkSulh la[;k gksxh –(A) 1 (B) 2

    (C) 5 (D) 6

    33. 2

    4

    ?

      (i) (ii) (iii)

    ikls dh rhu fLFkfr;k¡ n'kkZbZ xbZ gSA fp=k (iii) esavafdr fpgz (?) ds LFkku ij dkSulk vad vk,xkA(A) 5 (B) 3

    (C) 6 (D) 1

    34. fuEukafdr fp=k dks ?ku ds :i esa ifjofrZr fd;ktk, rks dkSulk :i lgh gksxk –

     

    (A) (B) (C) (D)

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    35. The following figure is converted into a cube.

    Its four positions (a), (b), (c) and (d) are

    shown. On the basis of these select correct

    alternative.

     

    (a) (b) (c) (d)

    (A) a only (B) b only

    (C) a and c only (D) a, b, c and d

    Directions : (36 to 40) The following question are

    based on the arrangement of numbers in theform of a pyramid. In each question there is

    some relationship between the two numbers

    on the left of the (::). The same relationship

    exists between the two terms in the right of 

    which one is missing. Find the missing are

    from thegiven alternatives.

    1

    2 3 4

    9 8 7 6 5

    10 11 12 13 14 15 16

    25 24 23 22 21 20 19 18 17

    26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36

    49 48 47 46 45 44 43 42 41 40 39 38 37

    36. 132220 : 211412 : : 222931 : (?)

    (A) 304345 (B) 302123

    (C) 442931 (D) 312022

    37. 2873 : 13212014 : : 10242311 : (?)

    (A) 29282423 (B) 28274746

    (C) 25272824 (D) 29454430

    38. 241214 : 752119 : : 14163234 : (?)

    (A) 19174139 (B) 20184240

    (C) 21194341 (D) 20224244

    39. 25224447 : 23204245 :: 11143229 : ( ? )

    (A) 13163431 ' (B) 24214341

    (C) 24214346 (D) 13102421

    40. 82224: 133133 :: 62022 : (?)

    (A) 91221 (B) 81312

    (C) 153335 (D) 51921

    35. fuEukafdr fp=k dks ?ku esa ifjofrZr fd;k tk, rksn'kkZbZ xbZ pkj fLFkfr;k¡ (a),(b), (c) vkSj (d) ds vk/ kkj ij lgh fodYi dks pqfu,A

     

    (a) (b) (c) (d)

    (A) dsoy a (B) dsoy b(C) dsoy a vkSj c (D) a, b, c vkSj d

    funZs'k  : (36 ls 40) uhps fn, x, iz'u la[;kvksa ij vk/kkfjr

    gS ftUgsa fijkfeM+ ds :i es n'kk Z;k x;k gSA izR;sdiz'u esa fpgz (::) ds ckbZ vksj la[;kvksa ds ;qXeksa esadqN lEcU/k gS] ogh lEcU/k nkfguh vksj ds nk s inksaesa gS] ftuesa ls ,d yqIr gSA fn, x, fodYiksa esa lsml yqIr in dks Kkr dhft,A

    1

    2 3 4

    9 8 7 6 5

    10 11 12 13 14 15 16

    25 24 23 22 21 20 19 18 17

    26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36

    49 48 47 46 45 44 43 42 41 40 39 38 37

    36. 132220 : 211412 : : 222931 : (?)

    (A) 304345 (B) 302123

    (C) 442931 (D) 312022

    37. 2873 : 13212014 : : 10242311 : (?)

    (A) 29282423 (B) 28274746

    (C) 25272824 (D) 29454430

    38. 241214 : 752119 : : 14163234 : (?)(A) 19174139 (B) 20184240

    (C) 21194341 (D) 20224244

    39. 25224447 : 23204245 :: 11143229 : ( ? )

    (A) 13163431 ' (B) 24214341

    (C) 24214346 (D) 13102421

    40. 82224: 133133 :: 62022 : (?)

    (A) 91221 (B) 81312

    (C) 153335 (D) 51921

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    Directions : (41 to 45) Words in capital letters in

    column – I are written in small letters in a

    code language in

    column – II. Decode the Language and find

    out the correct alternative for the given letters

    in each questions.

    Column – I Column – II

    HERO tbfw

    JOIN bakp

    LAZY nsvg

    MINE pdktPART rwsx

    SAURY wveos

    BLUE eglt

    CIGAR usqwp

    WRIT wpxy

    VIRUS pzwoe

    QUACK jqems

    PIRL wprg

    41. Code for letters in the word TOIL are-

    (A) pxba (B) bpgn

    (C) bpxg (D) mpxg

    42. Code for letters in the word COST are-

     (A) boqx (B) xqps

    (C) qost (D) xqnr  

    43. Code for letters in the word ULCER are-

    (A) ggwmr (B) teqwp

    (C) ktegp (D) gteqw

    44. Code for letters in the word SINE are-

    (A) ptkl (B) toka

    (C) ptok (D) optb

    45. Code for letters in the word ARCH are-

     (A) frsq (B) wfsq

    (C) wqfp (D) sqfn

    46.  A and B are brother. C and D are sisters. A’s

    son is D’s brother. How is B related to C ?

    (A) Brother (B) Father  

    (C) Uncle (D) Son

    Directions : (47) Read the following information

    carefully and answer the question given below -

     A + B means A is the daughter of B;

     A – B means A is the husband of B;

     A x B means A is the brother of B.

    47. If P + Q – R, which one of the following is

    true?

    (A) R is the mother of P

    (B) R is the sister-in-law of P

    (C) R is the aunt of P

    (D) R is the mother-in-law of P

    funZs'k : (41 ls 45) LrEHk – I esa mYysf[kr cM+s v{kjks esafy[ks 'kCnksa dks lkadsfrd Hkk"kk ds vk/kkj ij LrEHk  –II vaxzsth dh o.kZekyk ds NksVs v{kjksa esa fy[kk x;kgSA lkadsfrd Hkk"kk ds o.kkZ{kjksa dk s igpku dj izR;sdiz'u iznÙk v{kjksa ds lkadsfrd Hkk"kk ds lgh fodYipqfu,ALRkEHk  – I LRkEHk – IIHERO tbfw

    JOIN bakp

    LAZY nsvgMINE pdkt

    PART rwsx

    SAURY wveos

    BLUE eglt

    CIGAR usqwp

    WRIT wpxy

    VIRUS pzwoe

    QUACK jqems

    PIRL wprg

    41. TOIL ds fy, ladsrk{kj gSA(A) pxba (B) bpgn

    (C) bpxg (D) mpxg

    42. COST ds fy, ladsrk{kj gSA (A) boqx (B) xqps

    (C) qost (D) xqnr  

    43. ULCER ds fy, ladsrk{kj gSA(A) ggwmr (B) teqwp

    (C) ktegp (D) gteqw

    44. SINE ds fy, ladsrk{kj gSA(A) ptkl (B) toka

    (C) ptok (D) optb

    45.  ARCH ds fy, ladsrk{kj gSA (A) frsq (B) wfsq

    (C) wqfp (D) sqfn

    46.  A vkSj  B HkkbZ gSA C vkSj D cfgusa gSaA  A dk iq=k Ddk HkkbZ gSA B, C dk D;k yxrk gS \(A) HkkbZ (B) firk(C) pkpk (D) iq =k

    funZs'k  : (47) fuEukafdr dFku dks /;kuiwoZd i

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    Directions :  (48 to 50) Find out the missing onefrom the given alternatives.

    48. 08 : 28 :: (? ) : 65(A) 9 (B) 12(C) 15 (D) 18

    49. 35 : 91 :: 189 : ( ? )(A) 343 (B) 341(C) 280 (D) 210

    50.11

    7:

    17

    13::

    23

    19 : (?)

    (A)27

    25(B)

    31

    29

    (C)29

    23(D)

    33

    29

    Directions : (51 to 53) Following four diagrams marked A, B, C and D are given as alternatives. Choosethe best suitablealternative diagram marked A, B, C and D, the

    one that represent the best relationshipamongest the threegiven groups.

    (A) (B)

    (C) (D)

    51. Birds, Crows, Cats

    52. Snakes, Land creatures, Water eveatures

    53. Males, Nephews, Nieces

    Directions : (54 to 56) In the following questions somerelations are written by particular indicators asshown below-

    O = Greater than

    + = Equal to

      = Not equal to

    O  = Not greater than

    x = Not less than

      = Less than

    Find out the correct answer for each question.

    54. If p   q O r, it is possible that -(A) p × q × r (B) p × q r  

    (C) p q O  r (D) p O q O r 

    55. If p q  r, it is not possible that -

    (A) p  q O r (B) p q  r 

    (C) p O  q r (D) p + q × r  

    56. If p × q O r, it is not possible that –

    (A) p  q r (B) p × q + r  (C) p   q O r (D) p O q + r  

    funZs'k :  (48 ls 50) fn, gq, fodYiksa esa ls yqIr in dksKkr dhft,A

    48. 08 : 28 :: (? ) : 65(A) 9 (B) 12(C) 15 (D) 18

    49. 35 : 91 :: 189 : ( ? )(A) 343 (B) 341(C) 280 (D) 210

    50.11

    7:

    17

    13::

    23

    19 : (?)

    (A)27

    25(B)

    31

    29

    (C)29

    23(D)

    33

    29

    funZs'k  :  (51 ls 53)  fuEukafdr pkj fp=k A, B, C o D fodYids :i esa fn, x, gSA fodYi fp=k  A, B, C o Desa lsiz'u es a fn, rhu 'kCn lewg gsrq  lgh iz nf'kZr djus okys,d fodYi fp=k dk p;u dhft,A

    (A) (B)

    (C) (D)

    51. fpfM+;k¡, dkS,, fcfYy;k¡

    52. lk¡i, Fky izk.kh,tyizk.kh

    53. iq:"k, Hkrhtk, HkrhthfunZs'k : (54 ls 56) fuEu iz'uksa esa dqN lEcU/k izrhdksa }kjk

    vfHkO;Dr fd, x, gS] ftUgsa uhps le>k;k x;k gSA

    O = cM+k gSA

    + = cjkcj

      = cjkcj ugha gS

    O  = cM+k ugh gS

    x = NksVk ugha gS

      = NksVk gS

    izR;sd iz'u esa lgh mÙkj pqfu,A54. ;fn p   q O r, ;g laHko gS -

    (A) p × q × r (B) p × q r  

    (C) p q O  r (D) p O q O r 

    55. ;fn p q  r,,;g laHko ugha gS -(A) p  q O r (B) p q  r 

    (C) p O  q r (D) p + q × r  

    56. ;fn p × q O r, ;g laHko ugha gS -(A) p  q r (B) p × q + r  (C) p   q O r (D) p O q + r  

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    63. Question - Figures

     Answer - Figures

      (A) (B) (C) (D)

    64. Question - Figures

     Answer - Figures

      (A) (B) (C) (D)

    Directions : (65 to 68) In each of the fol lowing ques-

    tions four figures are given. One of these fig-

    ures does not fit with the rest of the figures.

    Find out that correct serial number.

    65.

      (A) (B) (C) (D)

    66.

      (A) (B) (C) (D)

    67.

      (A) (B) (C) (D)

    68.

      (A) (B) (C) (D)

    63. iz'u- fp=k

    mÙkj-fp=k

      (A) (B) (C) (D)

    64. iz'u- fp=k

    mÙkj-fp=k

      (A) (B) (C) (D)

    funZs'k : (65 ls 68) fuEu iz'uksa esa izR;sd esa pkj&pkj fp=k fn,x, gSA buesa ls ,d fp=k vU;ksa  ls es y ugha [kkrkA mlfp=k dk lgh Øekad Kkr dhft,A

    65.

      (A) (B) (C) (D)

    66.

      (A) (B) (C) (D)

    67.

      (A) (B) (C) (D)

    68.

      (A) (B) (C) (D)

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    Directions :  (69 to 72) In the following questions

    there is some relationship between the two

    figures on the left of (: :) the same relation-

    ship exists between the two terms on the

    right, of which one is missing. Find the

    missing one from the given alternative.

    69. Question - Figures

     Answer - Figures

      (A) (B) (C) (D)

    70. Question - Figures

    ?

     Answer - Figures

      (A) (B) (C) (D)

    71. Question - Figures

      ?

     Answer - Figures

      (A) (B) (C) (D)

    72. Question - Figures

     Answer - Figures

      (A) (B) (C) (D)

    funZs'k :  (69 ls 72) fuEufyf[kr iz'uksa esa fpgz (: :) ds ckbZvksj nh xbZ nks vkd f  r;ksa esa dqN lEcU/k gSA ;ghlEcU/k nkfguh vksj ds nks inksa esa gS ftueas ls ,dyqIr gSA fn, x, fodYiksa es a ls ml yqIr in dksKkr djsaA

    69. iz'u&fp=k

    mÙkj&fp=k

      (A) (B) (C) (D)

    70. iz'u&fp=k

    ?

    mÙkj&fp=k

      (A) (B) (C) (D)

    71. iz'u&fp=k

      ?

    mÙkj&fp=k

      (A) (B) (C) (D)

    72. iz'u&fp=k

    mÙkj&fp=k

      (A) (B) (C) (D)

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    Direction : (73 to 76) The following questions are re-

    lated to paper cutting. The questions that fol-

    low contain a set of three figures X, Y and Z,

    showing a sequence of folding of a piece of 

    paper. Fig. (Z) shows the manner in which the

    folded paper has been cut. These three figures

    are followed by four answer figures A, B, C and

    D (IInd Set) from which you have to choose a

    figure which would most closely resemble the

    unfolded from of fig. (Z).

    73. Sequence of folding the paper 

      X Y Z

     Answer - Figures.

      (A) (B) (C) (D)

    74. Sequence of folding the paper 

      X Y Z

     Answer - Figures

     

    (A) (B) (C) (D)

    75. Sequence of folding the paper 

     

    X Y Z

     Answer-Figure

     

    (A) (B) (C) (D)

    funZs'k : (73 ls 76) fuEufyf[kr iz'u tks isij dkVus ls lEcfU/ kr gS] ds fp=kksa ds nks lewg fn, x, gSA izFke lewg esasvkSj fp=k gS] tks ,d dkxt dks eksM+ nsus ds Øe dkscrykrs gSA fp=k (Z) rg fd, x, dkxt dks dkVus ds

    rjhds dks iz nf'kZr djrk gSA rg fd, x, dkxt (Z)dksdkVus ds i'pkr~ mls [kksyus dh fLFkfr;k¡ mÙkj&fp=k

    lewg esa  A, B, C o D fodYi ds :i esa n'kkZbZ gSAdkxt dks [kksyuss ds i'pkr~ fn, x, fodYiksa esa ls

    feyku dj lgh fodYi dk p;u dhft,A

    73. dkxt dks eksM+ nsus dk Øe 

      X Y Z

    mÙkj&fp=k

      (A) (B) (C) (D)

    74. dkxt dks eksM+ nsus dk Øe 

      X Y Z

    mÙkj&fp=k

     

    (A) (B) (C) (D)

    75. dkxt dks eksM+ nsus dk Øe 

     

    X Y Z

    mÙkj&fp=k

     

    (A) (B) (C) (D)

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    76. Sequence of folding the paper 

     

    X Y Z

     Answer-Figure

     

    (A) (B) (C) (D)

    77. X, Y, Z and P are sitting around a circular 

    table and discussing their trades .(i) X, sits opposite to cook

    (ii) Y, sits right to the barber 

    (iii) The washerman is on the left of the tailor 

    (iv) P, sits opposite Z

    What are the trades of X and Y ?

    (A) Tailor and Barber 

    (B) Barber and Cook

    (C) Tailor and Cook

    (D) Tailor and washerman

    78. Six persons A, B, C, D, E and F are standing ina circle. B is between F and C, A is between E

    and D, F is to the left of D. Who is between A

    and F ?

    (A) B (B) C

    (C) D (D) E

    79. Six students are sitting in a row. K is sitting

    between V and R. V is sitting next to M. M is

    sitting next to B who is sitting on the extreme

    left and Q is sitting next to R.

    Who are sitting adjacent to V ?

    (A) R and Q (B) B and M

    (C) K and R (D) M and K

    80. If 27  3 = 243

      5  4 = 80

    Then what is the value of 3  7 ?

    (A) 84 (B) 147

    (C) 63 (D) 23

    76. dkxt dks eksM+ nsus dk Øe 

     

    X Y Z

    mÙkj&fp=k

     

    (A) (B) (C) (D)

    77. X, Y, Z vkSj Po Ùkkdkj Vsfcy ds pkjks a rjQ cSBs gq,

    gS rFkk vius O;olk; ds ckjs esa  ijke'kZ  dj jgs gS A(i) X, jlksb;k ds lkeus cSBk gS(ii) Y, ukbZ ds nkfguh vksj cSBk gS(iii) /kksch nthZ ds c¡kbZ vksj cSBk gS(iv) P, Z ds lkeus cSBk gSX vkSj Y dk O;olk; D;k gS ?(A) nthZ vkSj ukbZ(B) ukbZ vkSj jlksb;k(C) nthZ vkSj jlksb;k(D) nthZ vkSj /kks ch

    78. N % O;fDr  A, B, C, D, E vkSj F o Ùkkdkj vkd f  r esa[kM+s gSA B, F vkSj C ds e/; gS] A, E vkSj D,ds e/;gS rFkk F, D ds ck¡bZ vksj gSA

     A vkSj F ds e/; dkSu gS \(A) B (B) C

    (C) D (D) E

    79. N% fo|kFkhZ ,d iafDr esa cSBs gq, gSA K,V vkSj Rds e/ ; esa gSA V, M ls vkxs cSBk gSA B ck¡bZ vksj vk[kjh esacSBk gS mlls vkxs M cSBk gSA Q,R ls vkxs cSBk gSAV ds nksuksa rjQ dkSu cSBs gSa ?(A) R vkSj Q (B) B vkSj M(C) K vkSj R (D) M vkSj K

    80. ;fn 27  3 = 243  5  4 = 80

    rks 3  7 dk eku D;k gksxk&(A) 84 (B) 147

    (C) 63 (D) 23

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    Directions : (81 to 84) The six faces of a cube are

    painted in a manner that no two adjacent faces

    have the same colour. The three colours used

    in painting are red, blue and green. The cube is

    then cut into 36 smaller cubes in such a man-

    ner that 32 cubes are of one size and the rest

    of a bigger size and each of the bigger cubes

    has no red side. Answer the following questions.

    81. How many cubes in all have a red side ?

    (A) 16 (B) 32

    (C) 8 (D) 20

    82. How many cubes in all have only one side

    coloured ?

    (A) 20 (B) 16

    (C) 0 (D) 8

    83. How many cubes are colured on three sides ?

    (A) 20 (B) 16

    (C) 8 (D) 0

    84. How many cubes are there which have two or 

    more sides painted?

    (A) 36 (B) 28

    (C) 20 (D) 32

    85. In a coded language NUMBER is written as in

    MFNYVI. Then FIGURE may be written in

    coded language as-

    (A) ERHFlD (B) URTVSF(C) GJTFSF (D) URTFIV

    86. In a coded language SHIFT is written as

    UFKDV, Then COVET may be written in

    coded language as-

    (A) EMXCV (B) FNYDU

    (C) EXCUV (D) EQUDS

    87. If 

    PET = 4

    LET = 3JEY = 2

    Then what is the value of XET?

    (A) 1 (B) 5

    (C) 6 (D) 8

    88. In a coded language if HOME = 2541, SHOP =

    8256, WORK = 9573, then code for SMOKE

    will be-

    (A) 85431 (B) 84531

    (C) 83451 (D) 84351

    funZs'k :  (81 ls 84)  fdlh ?ku ds N% Qyd bl izdkj jaxs x,gS fd dksbZ Hkh vklUu Qyd mlh jax ds ugha gSA rhujax tks jaxus esa iz;ksx esa yk, x, gSa os gSa yky] uhykrFkk gjkA ?ku dks vc 36 NksVs&NksVs ?kuksa  esa  bl iz dkj

    dkVk x;k fd 32 ?ku ,d vkdkj ds gS vkSj 'ks"k mulscM+ s vkdkj ds  gS A cM+ s ?kuks a es a iz R;sd dh dksbZ ik'oZ  yky

    ugha gSA fuEu iz'uksa ds mÙkj

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    89. What will be the number of Hexagonals in the

    given figure?

     

    (A) 2 (B) 4

    (C) 5 (D) 6

    90. What will be the number of Parallelograms in

    the given figure?

    (A) 15 (B) 17

    (C) 13 (D) 16

    89. fn, x, fp=k esa "kVHkqtksa dh la[;k gksxh ?

     

    (A) 2 (B) 4(C) 5 (D) 6

    90. fn, x, fp=k esa lekUrj prqHkqZtksa dh la[;k gksxh ?

    (A) 15 (B) 17

    (C) 13 (D) 16

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    1. Which is not the unit of Force –

    (A) Poundal (B) Dyne

    (C) Joule (D) Newton

    2. The expansion of a sold body depends on –

    (A) Mass of the solid only

    (B) Nature of the sold only

    (C) Temperature of the solid only(D) Nature and temperature of the solid

    3. Which country is called the country of Wind

    mills ?

    (A) Holland (B) Britain

    (C) India (D) America

    4. Who was the first President of Atomic energy

    commission in India –

    (A) Homi Jahangir Bhabha

    (B) Vikram Sarabhai

    (C) Prof. M.S. Swaminathan

    (D) Prof. Meghnad Saha

    5. The particles of the medium in the transverse

    wave move –

    (A) Circular Motion (form)

    (B) Oval form

    (C) in direction of the wave motion

    (D) Perpendicular to the direction of the wave

    motion

    6. The Lens used in the Camera is –

    (A) Convex Lens (B) Concave Lens

    (C) Biconvex Lens (D) Biconcave Lens

    7. Velocity of sound is maximum in –

    (A) Water (B) Oil

    (C) Air (D) Iron

    8. One Volt is equal to –

    (A) 1 Joule (B) 1 Newton/Coulomb

    (C) 1 Joule/Coulomb (D) 1 Coulomb/Newton

    9. On a bulb is written 220 Volt and 60 watt. Find

    out the resistance of the bulb and the value of 

    the current flowing through it.

    (A) 806.66 ohm / 0.27 ampere(B) 500 ohm / 2 ampere

    (C) 200 ohm / 4 ampere

    (B) 100 ohm / 1 ampere

    10. The maximum attraction in a magnet is –

    (A) In he centre (B) On the sides

    (C) On the poles (D) On the surface

    11. The Unit of frequency is –

    (A) Hertz (B) Joule

    (C) Ohm (D) Kilo Calorie

    1. fuEu esa ls cy dk ek=kd ugha gS &(A) ikm.My (B) Mkbu(C) twy (D) U;wVu

    2. inkFkZ ¼Bksl½ dk izlj.k fuHkZj djrk gS &(A) dsoy inkFkZ ds nzO;eku ij(B) dsoy inkFkZ dh izÑfr ij

    (C) dsoy inkFkZ ds rki ij(D) inkFkZ dh izÑfr ,oa blds rki ij

    3. fdl ns'k dk iou pfDd;ksa dk ns'k dgrs gSa ?(A) gkWyS.M  (B) fczVsu(C) Hkkjr (D) vesfjdk

    4. Hkkjr esa ijek.kq ÅtkZ vk;ksx ds izFke v/;{k Fks –(A) gkseh tgk¡xhj HkkHkk(B) foØe lkjkHkkbZ(C) izks- ,e- ,l- LokehukFku(D) izks- es?kukn lkgk

    5. vuqizLFk rjaxksa esa ek/;e ds d.k xfr djrs gSa  –(A) o Ùkkdkj :i esa(B) v.Mkdkj :i esa(C) rjax lapj.k dh fn'kk esa(D) rjax lapj.k dh fn'kk ds yEcor~

    6. dSaejs esa iz;qDr ySal gksrk gS  –(A) mÙkj ySal (B) vory ySal(C) f}mÙky ySal (D) f}vory ySal

    7. /ofu dk osx lokZf/kd gksrk gS(A) ikuh essa (B) rsy esa(C) ok;q eas (D) yksgs esa

    8. ,d oksYV cjkcj gksrk gS –(A) 1 twy (B) 1 U;wVu/dwyke (C) 1 twy/dwyke  (D) 1 dwyke /U;wVu

    9. ,d cYc ds Åij 220 oksYV vkSj 60okWV fy[kk gqvkgS cYc dk izfrjks/k ,oa blls izokfgr /kkjk dk ekuKkr dhft;sA(A) 806.66 vkse  / 0.27 ,sfEi;j(B) 500 vkse  / 2 ,sfEi;j(C) 200 vkse  / 4 ,sfEi;j(B) 100 vkse  / 1 ,sfEi;j

    10. pqEcd esa lokZf/kd vkd"kZ.k gS –(A) e/; esa (B) fdukjksa ij(C) /kzqoksa ij (D) /kjkry ij

    11. vko f  Ùk dk ek=kd gS  –(A) gV~Zt (B) twy(C) vkse  (D) fdyks dSyksjh

    RAJASTHAN_ NTSE-STAGE-I YEAR:2013) SAT

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    12. The first Astronaut in space was –

    (A) H.G. Wales (B) Neel Armstrong

    (C) Uri Gagarin (D) Robert Godai

    13. Boiling point of Water is –

    (A) 273°K (B) 0°K

    (C) 373°K (D) 100°K

    14. The Process by which a mixture of Sodium

    Chloride and Ammonium Chloride can be

    separated, is called –

    (A) Sublimation (B) Chromatography

    (C) Evaporation (D) Distil lation

    15. The formula of Ammonium Sulphate is –

    (A) NH4SO

    4(B) (NH

    4)

    2SO

    4

    (C) NH4(SO

    4)

    2(D) NH

    4(SO

    4)

    3

    16. Isotopes of an element have –

    (A) Same Physical Properties

    (B) Different Chemical Properties

    (C) Different No. of Neutrons

    (D) Different Atomic Number 

    17.  A Brown and bright element “x” when heated

    in presence of air turns in to black substance

    “y”. If Hydrogen gas is passed over this heating

    material again “x” is obtained. “x” and “y” are –

    (A) Cu & CuO (B) S & SO2

    (C) C & CO2

    (D) Na & NaH

    18. PH of any neutral solution is –

    (A) 0 (B) 1

    (C) 14 (D) 7

    19.  A non metal, which is found in liquid state is –

    (A) Bromine (B) Iodine

    (C) Oxygen (D) Carbon

    20. The PH of a solution which turns red litmus Blue

    will be –

    (A) 1 (B) 9

    (C) 4 (D) 5

    21. Which of the following is correct electronic

    configuration of Argon –

    (A) 2, 8 (B) 2, 8, 8

    (C) 2, 8, 1 (D) 8, 2, 8

    22. Element “x” which is solid and having high

    melting point, form a Chloride “x Cl3”. This

    element “x” would be in which group of Periodic

    table –

    (A) Na (B) Mg

    (C) Al (D) Si

    12. igyk vUrfj{k ;k=kh Fkk –(A) ,p- th- oSYl (B) uhy vkeZLVªkax(C) ;wjh xkxfju (D) jkWcVZ xksMkbZ

    13. ty dk DoFkukad gksrk gS &(A) 273°K (B) 0°K

    (C) 373°K (D) 100°K

    14. izfØ;k] ftlds }kjk ued vkSj ukSlknj dk feJ.k

    vyx dj ldrs gSa] dgykrh gS –(A) m/oZikru (B) ØksesVksxzkQh(C) ok"ihdj.k (D) vklou

    15. veksfu;e lYQsV dk lw=k gS  –(A) NH

    4SO

    4(B) (NH

    4)

    2SO

    4

    (C) NH4(SO

    4)

    2(D) NH

    4(SO

    4)

    3

    16. fdlh rRo ds leLFkkfud esa gksrs gSa  –(A) leku HkkSfrd xq.k(B) fHkUu jklk;fud xq.k(C) U;wVªkWUl dh fHkUu la[;k

    (D) fHkUu ijek.kq Øekad17. ,d Hkwjk o pedhyk rRo “x” tc ok;q dh mifLFkfr

    esa xeZ fd;k tkrk gS rks dkyk inkFkZ “y” curk gS]ftl ij gkbMªkstu xSl izokfgr djus ij iqu% “x”izkIr gksrk gSA “x” vkSj “y” gSa –(A) dkWij vkSj dkWij vkWDlkbM (B) xa/kd vkSj lYQj MkbvkWDlkbM (C) dkcZu vkSj dkcZu MkbvkWDlkbM (D) lksfM;e vkSj lksfM;e gkbMªkbM 

    18.

    fdlh mnklhu foy;u dkP

    H gksrk gS &(A) 0 (B) 1

    (C) 14 (D) 7

    19. ,d v/kkrq tks nzo voLFkk esa ikbZ tkrh gS] gS –(A) czksehu (B) vk;ksMhu(C) vkWDlhtu (D) dkcZu

    20. dksbZ foy;u tks yky fyVel dks uhyk dj nsrk gS]fd P

    H gksxh –

    (A) 1 (B) 9

    (C) 4 (D) 5

    21. vkxZu dk fuEu esa ls dkSulk bysDVªkWfud foU;kllgh gS –(A) 2, 8 (B) 2, 8, 8

    (C) 2, 8, 1 (D) 8, 2, 8

    22. Bksl rRo “x” ftldk xyukad vf/kd gS] x Cl3okyk

    DyksjkbM cukrk gS] vkorZ lkj.kh esa ;g rRo fdllewg ds vUrxZr gksxk –(A) lksfM;e  (B) eSXuhf'k;e (C) ,Y;wfefu;e  (D) flfydkWu

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    23. Methane with the Molecular formula “CH4” has

     –

    (A) 4 Covalent bonds(B) 8 Covalent bonds

    (C) 6 Covalent bonds(D) 2 Covalent bonds

    24. Cell organelle which differentiates plant cell

    from animal cell is –

    (A) Cell Membrane (B) Plastids

    (C) Nucleolus (D) Vacuoles

    25. Blood is a type of connective tissue, whichhas –

    (A) R.B.C. (B) W.B.C.

    (C) Platlets (D) All of the above

    26. Bile Juice is secreted from –

    (A) Salivary glands (B) Intestinal glands

    (C) Stomach (D) Liver  

    27. When acidity in Stomach increases, the

    medicine generally used is –

    (A) Sodium bicarbonate(B) Sodium Carbonate

    (C) Ammonium Carbonate

    (D) Ammonium bicarbonate

    28. Planeria is kept in which group –

    (A) Coelentrata (B) Platyhelminthes

    (C) Nematoda (D) Annelida

    29. Which of the following is a example of 

    Brayophyte –

    (A) Moss (B) Fern(C) Pinus (D) Algae

    30. Dissimilarity found in Aves and Mamalia is –

    (A) Warm Blooded Animal

    (B) Lay eggs

    (C) Breathe through Lungs

    (D) Four chambered Heart

    31. Substances necessary for autotrophic Nutrition

    are –

    (A) CO4 and H

    2O

    (B) Chlorophyll

    (C) Sun light

    (D) All of the above

    32. Blood Pressure is measured with an instrument

    called –

    (A) Thermometer 

    (B) Stethoscope

    (C) Sphygmo manometer 

    (D) Clinical Thermometer 

    23. esFksu dk vkf.od lw=k “CH4” gS] blesa gS –

    (A) 4 lgla;kstd ca/k (B) 8 lgla;kstd ca/k(C) 6 lgla;kstd ca/k (D) 2 lgla;kstd ca/k

    24. dksf'kdkax tks ikni dksf'kdk dks tUrq dksf'kdk ls

    vyx djrk gS –(A) dksf'kdk f>Yyh (B) IykfLVM~l

    (C) dsfUnzdk (D) fjfDrdk,¡

    25. jDr ,d izdkj dk la;ksth Ård gS ftlesa ikbZtkrh gS –(A) yky #f/kj df.kdk,¡ (B) 'osr #f/kj df.kdk,¡(C) IysVysV~l (D) mDr lHkh

    26. fiÙk jl tgk¡ ls lzkfor gksrk gS&(A) ykj xzafFk;k¡ (B) vka=k xzafFk;k¡(C) vkek'k; (D) ;Ñr

    27. vkek'k; esa tc vEyh;rk c

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    33. Phloem tissues in plants are responsible for –

    (A) Transportation of water 

    (B) Transportation of food

    (C) Transportation of Ammino Acids

    (D) Transportation of Oxygen

    34. The plants in which vegetative propagation is

    found, are

    (A) Brayophyllum (B) Sugarcane

    (C) Rose (D) All of the above

    35. Which of the following is not a plant harmone

    (A) Auxin (B) Gibberellins

    (C) Cytokinin (D) Adrenaline

    36. Graph drawn from the equation y = x2 – 3x – 4

    will be :

    (A) Circle (B) Parabola

    (C) Straight line (D) Hyperbola

    37. For which values of 'a' and 'b' does the following

    pair of linear equations have an infinite number 

    of solutions :

    2x + 3y = 7, (a – b)x + (a + b)y = 3a + b – 2(A) a = 5 , b = 1 (B) a = 4, b = 2

    (C) a = 1, b = 5 (D) a = 2, b = 4

    38. If b2  – 4ac 0 then the roots of quadratic

    equation ax2 + bx + c = 0 is :

    (A)a2

    b

    a2

    ac4b2 (B) –

    a2

    b

    a2

    ac4b2

    (C)a2

    b  

    a2

    ac4b2 (D) –

    a2

    b

    a2

    ac4b2

    39. The sum of the third and seventh terms of an

     A.P. is 6 and their product is 8, then common

    difference is :

    (A) 1 (B)  2

    (C) 2

    1(D) 4

    1

    40. In a given figure in trapazium ABCD if AB ||

    CD then value of x is :

     A   B

    D   C

    2   x–2

    2x+5   5

    O

    (A)8

    29(B)

    29

    8

    (C) 20 (D)20

    1

    33. ikni esa ¶yks,e mÙkd mÙkjnk;h gS –(A) ty dk laogu(B) Hkkstu dk laogu(C) vehuks vEyksa dk laogu(D) vkWDlhtu dk laogu

    34. ftu ikS/kksa esa dkf;d izo/kZu ik;k tkrk gS] os gSa &(A) czk;ksfQye  (B) xUuk

    (C) xqykc (D) mDr lHkh

    35. fuEu esa ls tks ikni gkjeksu ugha gS &

    (A) vkWDlhu (B) ftCcsjsfyUl(C) lkbVksdkbfuu (D) ,fMªufyu

    36. lehdj.k y = x2 – 3x – 4 ls cuk;s x;s xzkQ dhvkÑfr gksxh&

    (A) o Ùkkdkj (B) ijoyl(C) lh/kh js[kk (D) vfrijoy;

    37. 'a' vkSj 'b' ds fdu eku ds fy,] fuEu jSf[kd lehdj.kks a

    ds ;qDr ds vifjfer :i ls vusd gy gksxs

    2x + 3y = 7, (a – b)x + (a + b)y = 3a + b – 2(A) a = 5 , b = 1 (B) a = 4, b = 2

    (C) a = 1, b = 5 (D) a = 2, b = 4

    38. ;fn b2 – 4ac 0 gks rks f}?kkr lehdj.k ax2 + bx

    + c = 0 ds ewy gksaxs –

    (A)a2

    b

    a2

    ac4b2 (B) –

    a2

    b

    a2

    ac4b2

    (C)a2

    b  

    a2

    ac4b2 (D) –

    a2

    b

    a2

    ac4b2

    39. fdlh lekUrj Js.kh ds rhljs vkSj lkrosa inksa dk;ksx 6 gS vkSj xq.kuQy 8 gS, lkoZvUrj gksxk :(A) 1 (B)  2

    (C) 2

    1(D) 4

    1

    40. layXu vkÑfr esa leyEc  ABCD esa ;fn AB || CDgks rks x dk eku gksxk &:

     A   B

    D   C

    2   x–2

    2x+5   5

    O

    (A)8

    29(B)

    29

    8

    (C) 20 (D)20

    1

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    41. If points (x, 0), (0, y) and (1, 1) are Collinear 

    then the relation is :

    (A) x + y = 1 (B) x + y = xy

    (C) x + y + 1 = 0 (D) x + y+ xy = 0

    42. If sin(A + B) =2

    3, cos(A – B) =

    2

    3  and

    0 < A + B  90°, if A > B then the value of 

     A and B are :

    (A) A = 45°, B = 15° (B) A = 60°, B = 30°(C) A = 0°, B = 30° (D) A = 30°, B = 0°

    43. If the Angle of elevation of sun increases from

    0° to 90° then the change in the length of 

    shadow of Tower will be –

    (A) No changes in length of shadow

    (B) length of shadow increases

    (C) length of shadow decreases

    (D) length of shadow will be zero

    44. The perimeter of square and circumference

    of Circle are equal, the area of square is 121m2,

    then the area of circle is :

    (A) 7 m2 (B) 14 m2

    (C) 21 m2 (D) 49 m2

    45.  A drinking glass is in the shape of frusturm of 

    a cone of height 14 cm. The diameter of its

    two circular ends are 4 cm and 2 cm. Then the

    capacity of glass is :

    (A) 1023

    2cm3 (B) 102

    3

    1cm3

    (C) 1013

    2cm3 (D) 101

    3

    1cm3

    46. The median and mode of a frequency

    distribution are 525 and 500 then mean of 

    same frequency distribution is :

    (A) 75 (B) 107.5

    (C) 527.5 (D) 537.5

    47. The author of the book "The Book on games

    of chance" based on probability theory is :

    (A) J. Cardon (B) R.S. Woodwards

    (C) P.S. Laplace (D) P.D. Pherma

    48. Rationalising the denomenator of53

    5

      is:

    (A)  

      

     

    2

    5 ( 3  + 5 ) (B)

     

      

     

    2

    5 ( 3  + 5 )

    (C)  

      

     

    2

    5( 3 – 5 ) (D)

     

      

     

    2

    5( 3  – 5 )

    41. ;fn  (x, 0), (0, y) o  (1, 1) fcUnq lajs[k gks rks

    lEcU/k gksxk &(A) x + y = 1 (B) x + y = xy

    (C) x + y + 1 = 0 (D) x + y+ xy = 0

    42. ;fn  sin(A + B) =2

    3, cos(A – B) =

    2

    3 o

    0 < A + B  90°, A > B gks rks A o B dk eku gksxk

    (A) A = 45°, B = 15° (B) A = 60°, B = 30°(C) A = 0°, B = 30° (D) A = 30°, B = 0°

    43. lw;Z ds mUu;u dks.k esa o f  ) 0° ls 90° rd gksus lsfdlh ehukj dh ijNkbZ dh yEckbZ esa ifjorZu gksxk –(A) ijNkbZ esa dksbZ ifjorZu ugha gksxk

    (B) ijNkbZ dh yEckbZ c

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    49. Value of2

    2100is :

    (A) 1 (B) 50100

    (C) 250 (D) 299

    50. The number of straight line drawn from one

    point to any other point are :

    (A) 4 (B) 3

    (C) 2 (D) 1

    51. In a given figure PQ || ST, PQR = 110°,RST

    = 130° then value of QRS is

    P   Q

    S   T

    130°

    110°

    R

    (A) 20° (B) 50°

    (C) 60° (D) 70°

    52. The bisectors of angles of a parallelogram

    makes a figure which is

    (A) Rectangle (B) Circle

    (C) Pentagon (D) Octagon

    53. The chord of maximum length in a circle is

    called :

    (A) Radius (B) Arc

    (C) Diameter (D) Point

    54.  Area of triangle ABC whose sides are 24 m.40 m. and 32 m. is :

    (A) 96 m2 (B) 384 m2

    (C) 43 m2 (D) 192 m2

    55. Curved surface of right circular cylinder is

    4.4 m2, radius of base is 0.7 m. then the

    height is (Take  =7

    22)

    (A) 1 m (B) 2 m

    (C) 3 m (D) 4 m

    56. Who buil t Jantar–Mantar ?

    (A) Sawai Jaisingh (B) Mirza Raja Jaisingh

    (C) Raja Mansingh (D) Pratap Singh

    57. Who was the author of "Geet Govind" ?

    (A) Sarangdhar (B) Jaidev

    (C) Madhodas (D) Bihari

    49.2

    2100 dk eku gksxk &

    (A) 1 (B) 50100

    (C) 250 (D) 299

    50. ,d fcUnq ls fdlh vU; fcUnq rd dqy fdruh lh/kh

    js[kk,¡ [khaph tk ldrh gSa&(A) 4 (B) 3

    (C) 2 (D) 1

    51. fn;s x;s fp=k esa ;fn PQ || ST, PQR = 110°,RST = 130° rks QRS dk eku gksxk&

    P   Q

    S   T

    130°

    110°

    R

    (A) 20° (B) 50°

    (C) 60° (D) 70°

    52. fdlh lekUrj prqHkqZt ds dks.kksa ds lef}Hkktd tksvkÑfr cukrs gSa og gS&

    (A) vk;r (B) o Ùk(C) iapHkqt (D) v"VHkqt

    53. o Ùk esa lcls cM+h thok dks dgrs gS a&(A) f=kT;k (B) pki

    (C) O;kl (D) fcUnq

    54. fdlh f=kHkqt ABC ftldh Hkqtk,¡ 24 eh-] 40 eh- o32 eh- gks rks {ks=kQy gksxk &(A) 96 m2 (B) 384 m2

    (C) 43 m2 (D) 192 m2

    55. ,d yEc o Ùkh; csyu dk oØi " B 4.4 eh2 gS ;fnvk/kkj dh f=kT;k 0.7 eh- gS rks Å¡pkbZ gksxh

    (tgk¡  =7

    22)

    (A) 1 eh- (B) 2 eh-(C) 3 eh- (D) 4 eh-

    56. tUrj&eUrj dk fuekZ.k fdlus djok;k Fkk ?

    (A) lokbZ t;flag (B) fetkZ jktk t;flag

    (C) jktk ekuflag (D) izrki flag

    57. ^^xhr xksfoUn** ds jpf;rk Fks \

    (A) lkjax/kj (B) t;nso

    (C) ek/kksnkl (D) fcgkjh

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    58. Kaila Devi Sanctuary is situated in which

    district?

    (A) Alwar (B) Dungarpur  

    (C) Karauli (D) Udaipur  

    59. Who was mainly responsible for “Bang-

    Bhang”?

    (A) Lord Litton (B) Lord Rippon

    (C) Lord Meuchale (D) Lord Korzen

    60. In 1913, Dada Saheb Phalke made the movie–

    (A) Basant (B) Raja Harishchandra(C) Anari (D) Paying guest

    61. What is Gilotin ?

    (A) Mine of Coal (B) Human Settlement

    (C) Death Machine (D) Shifting Agriculture

    62. Massai Mara national Park is located in –

    (A) India (B) Pakistan

    (C) Sudan (D) Kenya

    63. In which country first time the cultivation of 

    opium begin ?(A) Portugal (B) India

    (C) China (D) Britain

    64. Which treaty was imposed on Germany after 

    first world war ?

    (A) Versailles (B) Paris

    (C) Vienna (D) London

    65. Who opened the first Cricket Club in India ?

    (A) Britisher (B) Hindu

    (C) Jurestreian (D) Muslim

    66. What is “Barkan” ?

    (A) Name of Sand dune (B) Name of Village

    (C) Name of Tree (D) Name of Mountain

    67. Which state coast line is called the Malabar ?

    (A) Gujrat (B) Kerala

    (C) Rajasthan (D) West Bengal

    68. Ranthambore is situated in –

    (A) Rajasthan (B) Arunachal Pradesh

    (C) Assam (D) Madhya Pradesh

    69. The full form of C.N.G. is –

    (A) Compound Natural Gas

    (B) Complex Natural Gas

    (C) Compound New Gas

    (D) Compressed Natural Gas

    70. The ore of iron is –

    (A) Haematite (B) Uranium

    (C) Bauxite (D) Lignite

    58. dSyk nsoh vH;kj.; fdl ftys esa fLFkr gS ?

    (A) vyoj (B) Mwaxjiqj(C) djkSyh (D) mn;iqj

    59. cax&Hkax ds fy, eq[;r% mÙkjnk;h Fkk ?(A) ykWMZ fyVu (B) ykWMZ fjiu

    (C) ykWMZ eSdkys (D) ykWMZ dtZu

    60. 1913 esa nknk lkgsc QkYds us fQYe cukbZ Fkh  –

    (A) clar (B) jktk gfj'kpUnz(C) vukMh (D) isbax xsLV

    61. fxyksfVu D;k gS ?(A) dks;ys dh [kku (B) ekuo cfLr;k¡

    (C) e R;q e'khu (D) LFkkukUrfjr Ñf"k

    62. elkbZ ekjk jk"Vªh; m|ku fLFkr gS –(A) Hkkjr (B) ikfdLrku(C) lwMku (D) dsU;k

    63. vQhe dh [ksrh loZizFke fdl ns'k esa izkjEHk gqbZ ?

    (A) iqrZxky (B) Hkkjr(C) phu (D) fczVsu

    64. izFke fo'o;q) ds ckn dkSulh laf/k teZuh ij FkksihxbZ ?

    (A) olkZ; (B) isfjl(C) fo;suk (D) yanu

    65. Hkkjr esa igyk fØdsV Dyc fdlus [kksyk ?(A) vaxzst (B) fgUnw (C) ikjlh (D) eqlyeku

    66. ^^cjdku** D;k gS ?(A) jsr ds Vhys dk uke (B) xkao dk uke 

    (C) isM+ dk uke  (D) ioZr dk uke 

    67. fdl jkT; dh rVjs[kk dks ekykckj dgk tkrk gS ?(A) xqtjkr (B) dsjy(C) jktLFkku (D) if'pe caxky

    68. j.kFkEHkkSj vH;kj.; fLFkr gS –(A) jktLFkku (B) v#.kkpy izns'k(C) vle  (D) e/; izns'k

    69. lh- ,u- th- dk iwjk uke gS  –(A) dEikm.M uspqjy xSl(B) dkWEIysDl uspqjy xSl(C) dEikm.M U;w xSl(D) dEizsLV uspqjy xSl

    70. yksgs dk v;Ld gS  –(A) gsesVkbV (B) ;qjsfu;e (C) ckWDlkbV (D) fyXukbV

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    71. Gender ratio in India is –

    (A) 880/1000 (B) 940/1000

    (C) 300/1000 (D) 400/1000

    72. Bhakra-Nangal Project is situated on the River ?

    (A) Satluj (B) Tungbhadra

    (C) Damodar (D) Mahi

    73. When was “Indian wildlife Protection Act”

    implemented ?(A) 1970 (B) 1972

    (C) 1974 (D) 1976

    74. Salty Water lake is –

    (A) Jaisamand lake (B) Rajsamand lake

    (C) Didwana lake (D) Gapsagar lake

    75. The Rainfall that occurs during winter season

    is known as –

    (A) Monsoon (B) Cyclone

    (C) Mango Shower (D) Mavath

    76. Who is the first Person of India ?

    (A) Prime Minister (B) President

    (C) Governor (D) Chief Minister  

    77. The Country that is not permanent member of 

    United Nation Organisation is ?

    (A) Russia (B) Britain

    (C) China (D) India

    78. “The long walk to freedom” is autobiography

    of ?

    (A) Nelsen Mandela (B) Mahatma Gandhi

    (C) Barak Obama (D) Amitabh Bachchan

    79. “Code of conduct” is related to ?

    (A) War (B) Transportation

    (C) Cereals (D) Election

    80. Who can seek information from government

    under “right to information Act” ?

    (A) Any Citizen

    (B) Only Government officials(C) Only elected members of Loksabha

    (D) Only elected members of Vidhan Sabha

    81. How many languages are there under article

    8th in the Indian Constitution ?

    (A) 22 (B) 20

    (C) 25 (D) 15

    71. Hkkjr esa fyaxkuqikr gS  –(A) 880/1000 (B) 940/1000

    (C) 300/1000 (D) 400/1000

    72. Hkk[kMk&ukaxy ifj;kstuk fdl unh ij fLFkr gS ?

    (A) lryt (B) rqaxHknzk

    (C) nkeksnj (D) ekgh

    73. oU; tho laj{k.k vf/kfu;e Hkkjr esa dc ykxw gqvk ?

    (A) 1970 (B) 1972(C) 1974 (D) 1976

    74. [kkjs ikuh dh >hy gS –

    (A) t;laen >hy (B) jktlean >hy

    (C) MhMokuk >hy (D) xsilkxj >hy

    75. 'khr _rq esa gksus okyh o"kkZ dks dgk tkrk gS  –

    (A) ekulwu (B) pØokr

    (C) vkez o"kkZ (D) ekoB

    76. Hkkjr dk izFke ukxfjd dkSu gksrk gS ?

    (A) iz/kkuea=kh (B) jk"Vªifr

    (C) jkT;iky (D) eq[;ea=kh

    77. fuEu esa ls dkSulk ns'k la;qDr jk"Vªla?k dk LFkk;h

    lnL; ugha gS ?

    (A) :l (B) fczVsu

    (C) phu (D) Hkkjr

    78. ^^n yksax okd Vw ÝhMe** fdldh vkRedFkk gS ?

    (A) usYlu e.Msyk (B) egkRek xk¡/kh(C) cjkd vksckek (D) vferkHk cPpu

    79. ^^vkpkj lafgrk** dk lEcU/k fdl ls gS ?

    (A) ;q) (B) ifjogu

    (C) [kk|kUu (D) pquko

    80. ^^lwpuk ds vf/kdkj vf/kfu;e** ds vUrxZr dkSu

    ljdkj ls lwpuk ek¡x ldrk gS ?

    (A) dksbZ Hkh ukxfjd

    (B) dsoy ljdkjh vf/kdkjh(C) dsoy yksdlHkk esa fuokZfpr lnL;

    (D) dsoy fo/kku lHkk esa fuokZfpr lnL;

    81. Hkkjrh; lafo/kku dh vkBoha vuqlwph esa fdruh Hkk"kk,¡

    gSa ?

    (A) 22 (B) 20

    (C) 25 (D) 15

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    82. The first nation of the world which provided

    adult franchise is –

    (A) America (B) India

    (C) Brazil (D) Newziland

    83. Which of the following Country has adopted

    the one (single) Party System ?

    (A) India (B) America

    (C) Japan (D) China

    84.  In which year Indian National Congress was

    established ?

    (A) 1889 (B) 1885

    (C) 1985 (D) 1905

    85. Out of the following which is not a union

    territory?

    (A) Puducherry (B) Chandigarh

    (C) Goa (D) Daman and Div

    86. When was the “National Rural Employment

    Gurantee Act” Passed ?

    (A) 2001 (B) 2003(C) 2005 (D) 2007

    87. What is GDP ?

    (A) Gross Daily Production

    (B) Gross Domestic Production

    (C) Gross Domestic Power 

    (D) Gross Development Production

    88. When is the National Consumer Day

    celebrated in India ?

    (A) December, 24 (B) September, 16

    (C) March, 8 (D) May, 25

    89.  According to Census-2011 the literacy rate of 

    Rajasthan ?

    (A) 48.34% (B) 54.90%

    (C) 67.06% (D) 74.04%

    90. In which year did the Economic Liberalisation

    start in India ?

    (A) 1991 (B) 1996

    (C) 1999 (D) 2004

    82. o;Ld O;fDr dks erkf/kdkj nsus okyk fo'o dk

    igyk ns'k gS \(A) vesfjdk (B) Hkkjr

    (C) czkthy (D) U;wthyS.M 

    83. fuEu esa ls fdl ns'k esa ,d nyh; O;oLFkk viukbZxbZ gS ?

    (A) Hkkjr (B) vesfjdk(C) tkiku (D) phu

    84. Hkkjrh; jk"Vªh; dkaxszl dh LFkkiuk dc gqbZ ?(A) 1889 (B) 1885

    (C) 1985 (D) 1905

    85. fuEu esa ls ,d dsUnz'kkflr izns'k ugha gS ?

    (A) iqMqpsjh (B) p.Mhx

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    Questions (1 to 4)

    Directions : In each of the questions 1 to 4 some of 

    the letters are missing in the given series with

    one term missing shown by question mark (?) .

    This term is one of the alternatives among the

    four groups of letters given under if find the right

    alternative.

    1. BEG, DGI, FIK, HKM, (?)(1)JMO (2) KMO

    (3) JML (4) JNP

    2. KEM, IDL, GCK, (?), CAI

    (1) ECJ (2) EBK

    (3) FBJ (4) EBJ

    3. ca (?) cab (?) ab (?) (?) bc (?)

    (1) bccaa (2) accab

    (3) bacaa (4) abaca

    4. JCME, LDOG, NEQI, (?)(1) PFSJ (2) PESI

    (3) PESK (4) PFSK

    Questions (5 to 8)

    Direction : In each of the questions 5 to 8 some of the

    numbers are missing in the given series with

    one term missing shown by question mark (?) .

    This term is one of the alternatives among the

    four numbers given under it. Find the right alter-

    native.

    5. 5, 10, 17, 26, 37, 50, (?)

    (1) 70 (2) 66(3) 65 (4) 64

    6. 6, 25, 62, 123, (?), 341

    (1) 216 (2) 214

    (3) 215 (4) 217

    7. 5, 3, 10, 8, 17, 15, (?), 24

    (1) 26 (2) 27

    (3) 29 (4) 36

    8. 2, 6, 12, 20, 30, (?)

    (1) 40 (2) 42

    (3) 44 (4) 46

    Questions (9 to 11)

    Direction : In each of the questions below are given two

    statements and two conclusions numbered I

    and II. You have to take the given two state-

    ments to be true even if they seem to be at

    variance from commonly known facts. Read the

    conclusions and then decide which of the given

    conclusions logically follows from the two given

    statements.

    RAJASTHAN_ NTSE-STAGE-I YEAR:2014) MAT

    iz'u : (1 ls 4)

    funsZ'k % iz'u 1 ls 4 rd izR;sd esa ,d v{kj Js.kh nh x;h gS]ftlesa dqN in xk;c gS ftls iz'u lwpd fpâ ¼\½ lsn'kkZ;k x;k gSA ;g in ml Js.kh ds uhps fn;s x;s pkjfodYiksa esa ls ,d gSA lgh fodYi Kkr dhft,A

    1. BEG, DGI, FIK, HKM, (?)

    (1)JMO (2) KMO

    (C) JML (4) JNP

    2. KEM, IDL, GCK, (?), CAI

    (1) ECJ (2) EBK

    (3) FBJ (4) EBJ

    3. ca (?) cab (?) ab (?) (?) bc (?)

    (1) bccaa (2) accab

    (3) bacaa (4) abaca

    4. JCME, LDOG, NEQI, (?)

    (1) PFSJ (2) PESI

    (3) PESK (4) PFSK

    iz'u : (5 ls 8)

    funsZ'k % iz'u 1 ls 4rd izR;sd esa ,d la[;k&Js.kh nh x;h gS]ftlesa dqN in xk;c gS ftls iz'u lwpd fpâ ¼\½ lsn'kkZ;k x;k gSA ;g in ml Js.kh ds uhps fn;s x;s pkjfodYiksa esa ls ,d gSA lgh fodYi Kkr dhft,A

    5. 5, 10, 17, 26, 37, 50, (?)

    (1) 70 (2) 66

    (3) 65 (4) 64

    6. 6, 25, 62, 123, (?), 341

    (1) 216 (2) 214

    (3) 215 (4) 217

    7. 5, 3, 10, 8, 17, 15, (?), 24

    (1) 26 (2) 27

    (3) 29 (4) 36

    8. 2,6,12, 20, 30, (?)

    (1) 40 (2) 42

    (3) 44 (4) 46

    iz'u : (9 ls 11)

    funsZ'k % uhps izR;sd iz 'u es a nks  dFku vkS j nks fu"d"kZ s I vkSj II fn,x, gSA vkidks fn, x, dFkuksa dks lR; ekuuk gS Hkysgh ;s loZKkr rF;ks a ls fHkUUk izfrr gksrs gS A fu"d"kksZ dksi

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    9. Statements (I) : Some books are pencils.

      (II) : Some pencils are pens.

    Conclusions (I) : All books are pens.

      (II) : Some pens are books.

    (1) Only conclusion I is true.

    (2) Only conclusion II is true

    (3) Conclusions I and II both are true

    (4) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II are

    true.

    10. Statements

    (I) : Some men are educated.

    (II) : Educated persons prefer small families.

    Conclusions

    (I) : All small famil ies are educated.

    (II) Some men prefer small families

    (1) Only conclusion I is true

    (2) Only conclusion II is true

    (3) Conclusions I and II both are true

    (4) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II are true.

    11. Statements

    (I) : Some hens are cows.

    (II) : All cows are horses.

    Conclusion

    (I) : Some horses are hens

    (II) Some hens are horses

    (1) Only conclusion I is true

    (2) Only conclusion II is true

    (3) Conclusions I and II both are true(4) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II are true.

    Questions (12 to 13)

    Direction : Questions 12 to 13 are based on the follow-

    ing diagram. In this diagram there are three sets

    U, A and B. Which represent the married per-

    sons, educated people and teachers respec-

    tively live in a colony. The total population of 

    the colony is 300.

     

    260 136

     A

    24 B

    U

    12. Number os unmarried persons in the colony is

    (1) 40 (2) 112

    (3) 124 (4) 125

    9. dFku  (I) : dqN fdrkcsa isaflysa gSA  (II) : dqN isaflysa isu gSAfu"d"kZ  (I) : lHkh fdrkcsa isu gSA  (II) : dqN isu fdrkcsa gSA(1) dsoy fu"d"kZ I lR; gS(2) dsoy fu"d"kZ II lR; gS(3) nksuksa fu"d"kZ I vkSj IIlR; gSa(4) u rks fu"d"kZ I vkSj u gh fu"d"kZ II lR; gSa

    10. dFku(I) : dqN O;fä f'kf{kr gSA(II) : f'kf{kr O;fä NksVk ifjokj ilan djrs gS

    fu"d"kZ(I) : lHkh NksVs ifjokj f'kf{kr gSA(II) dqN O;fä NksVk ifjokj ilan djrs gSA(1) dsoy fu"d"kZ I lR; gS(2) dsoy fu"d"kZ II lR; gS(3) nksuksa fu"d"kZ I vkSj IIlR; gSa(4) u rks fu"d"kZ I vkSj u gh fu"d"kZ II lR; gSa

    11. dFku(I) : dqN eqfxZ;k xk;sa gSA(II) : lHkh xk;s a ?kksM+s gSAfu"d"kZ(I) : dqN ?kksM+s eqfxZ;ka gSA(II) dqN eqfxZ;k ?kksMs + gSA(1) dsoy fu"d"kZ I lR; gS(2) dsoy fu"d"kZ II lR; gS(3) nksuksa fu"d"kZ I vkSj IIlR; gSa(4) u rks fu"d"kZ I vkSj u gh fu"d"kZ II lR; gSa

    iz'u : (12 ls 13)

    funZs'k : iz'u 12ls 13 uhps fn;s x;s fp=k ij vk/kkfjr gSA blfp=k esa rhu leqp; U, A ,oa B gS tks Øe'k % ,ddkyksuh esa jgus okys fookfgr] f'kf{kr ,oa f'k{kdksa dhla[;k dks iznf'kZr djrs gS  A dkyks uh dh dqy tula[;k300 gSA

    260 136

     A

    24 B

    U

    12. dkyksuh esa vfookfgr O;fä;ksa dh la[;k gSA(1) 40 (2) 112

    (3) 124 (4) 125

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    13. Number of educated people who is not teacher is

    (1) 120 (2) 122

    (3) 124 (4) 125

    14. Which of the following Venn diagrams correctly

    represents cows, horses and animals ?

    (1) (2)

    (3) (4)

    15. Which of the following Venn diagrams correctly

    represents rectangle, quadrilateral and polygon ?

    (1) (2)

    (3) (4)

    Question : (16 to 19)

    Direction : In questions 16 to 19 three alternatives arealike in a certain way but the rest one is differ-

    ent. Find out the odd one and write correct an-

    swer.

    16. (1) AEIF (2) CGKH

    (3) EILJ (4) GKOL

    17. (1) XCJP (2) YEKQ

    (3) ZGLT (4) AHMV

    18. (1) 150 (2) 165

    (3) 200 (4) 250

    19. (1) Coal (2) Graphite

    (3) Diamond (4) Gold

    Questions (20 to 21)

    Direction : Numbers from 1 to 6 are placed on different

    faces of the disc.

    20.   1   3   5   3

    The number on opposite side of the face having

    the number 3 will be(1) 5 (2) 4

    (3) 2 (4) 1

    21.

    6   5   4   54   6   1   1

    The number on opposite side of the face having

    the number 3 will be

    (1) 1 (2) 2

    (3) 4 (4) 5

    13. dkyksuh esa f'kf{krks a dh la[;k tks f'k{kd ugha gS] gS(1) 120 (2) 112

    (3) 124 (4) 125

    14. fuEu es a ls dkSu&lk osu vkjs[k xk;ks a] ?kksM+ks a vkS j tkuojks adks lgh :i esa iznf'kZr djrk gS \

    (1) (2)

    (3) (4)

    15. fuEu esa ls dkSu&lk osu vkjs[k vk;r] prqHkqZt vkSjcgqHkqt dks lgh :i ls iznf'kZr djrk gS\

    (1) (2)

    (3) (4)

    iz'u : (16 ls 19)

    funZs'k :iz'u 16 ls 19 rd esa rhu fodYi fdlh n f  "V ls lekugS ijUrq ,d fodYi buls  vyx gS A vyx fodYi pqudj lgh mÙkj fyf[k,A

    16. (1) AEIF (2) CGKH(3) EILJ (4) GKOL

    17. (1) XCJP (2) YEKQ(3) ZGLT (4) AHMV

    18. (1) 150 (2) 165(3) 200 (4) 250

    19. (1) dks;yk (2) xzsQkbZV(3) ghjk (4)lksuk

    iz'u : (20 ls 21)

    funZ s'k : ,d ikls ds fofHkUu Qydksa ij 1 ls  6 rd dks la[;k,¡vafdr gSA

    20.   1   3   5   3

    la[;k 3 foijhr i " B ij dkSu&lh la[;k gksxh \(1) 5 (2) 4(3) 2 (4) 1

    21.

    6   5   4   54   6   1   1

    la[;k 3 foijhr i " B ij dkSu&lh la[;k gksxh \(1) 1 (2) 2

    (3) 4 (4) 5

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    Questions (22 to 23)

    Direction : Give answer on the basis of given figure that

    the different faces are folded in the form of cube.

    22.

    The number on opposite side of the face having

    the number 4 will be

    (1) 1 (2) 2

    (3) 3 (4) 4

    23.

    The word on opposite side of the face having

    the word F will be

    (1) B (2) C

    (3) D (4) E

    Questions (24 to 27)

    Direction : Words in capital letters in Column I are writ-

    ten in English small letters according to a code

    language in Column II. Decode the language

    and find out the correct alternative for the given

    word in each question.

    Column I Column II

    ONE cdy

    TWO sgd

    THREE lsqyy

    FOUR dztg

    FIVE zmfy

    SIX rmh

    24. NET

    (1) dys (2) cys

    (3) tcs (4) csd

    25. FOX

    (1) ydh (2) dhs

    (3) zdh (4) zgl

    26. HER

    (1) lgc (2) lyg

    (3) lgs (4) glc

    27. SHE

    (1) rly (2) rcy

    (3) rsy (4) yet

    iz'u : (22 ls 23)

    funZs'k : nh gqbZ vkd f  r ds fofHkUUk i " Bksa dks feykdj cus ?ku ijvk/kfjr iz'uksa ds mÙkj nhft,A

    22.

    la[;k 4 ds foijhr i " B ij dkSu&lh la[;k gksxh\(1) 1 (2) 2(3) 3 (4) 4

    23.

    v{kj F ds foijhr i " B ij dkSu lk v{kj gksxk\(1) B (2) C(3) D (4) E

    iz'u : (24 ls 27)

    funZs'k : LrEHk I esa mfYyf[kr cM+s v{kjksa esa fy[ks 'kCnksa dkslkadsfrd Hkk"kk ds vk/kkj ij LrEHk II es a va xz sth dh NksVho.kZekyk esa fy[kk x;k gSA vki bl lkadsfrd Hkk"kk dso.kkZ{kjksa dks igpkfu, vkSj bl vk/kkj ij izR;sd iz'ues a iznÙk 'kCn ds lkadsfrd Hkk"kk ds lgh fodYi dks  Kkrdhft,ALRkEHk I LRkEHk IIONE cdyTWO sgdTHREE lsqyyFOUR dztgFIVE zmfySIX rmh

    24. NET(1) dys (2) cys(3) tcs (4) csd

    25. FOX(1) ydh (2) dhs(3) zdh (4) zgl

    26. HER(1) lgc (2) lyg(3) lgs (4) glc

    27. SHE(1) rly (2) rcy(3) rsy (4) yet

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    Questions (28 to 30)

    Directions : In each of the following questions a state-

    ment is given followed by two conclusion I and

    II.

    28. Statement : Adversity makes a man wise.

    Conclusions

    (I) : The poor are wise

    (II) : Man learns from bitter experience.

    (1) Only conclusion I is true

    (2) Only conclusion II is true

    (3) Both conclusions I and II are true

    (4) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II are true.

    29. Statement : Fortune favours the brave.

    Conclusions (I) Risk is necessary for success.

    (II) : Cowards die many times before their death.

    (1) Only conclusion I is true

    (2) Only conclusion II is true

    (3) Both conclusion I and II are true

    (4) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II are true

    30. Statement : Morning walks are good for health.

    Conclusions

    (I) : All healthy people go for morning walks.

    (II) : Evening walks are harmful

    (1) Only conclusion I is true

    (2) Only conclusion II is true

    (3) Both conclusions I and II are true

    (4) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II are true.

    31. Ramesh is father of Mohan and Shyam is son

    of Mohan . What is the relation between

    Ramesh and Shyam ?

    (1) Son (2) Brother  (3) Grandfather (4) father  

    32. B is father of C but C is not son of B. What is

    the relation of C with B?

    (1) Sister (2) Brother  

    (3) Daughter (4) Nephew

    33. If 23 52 = 48, then 43 35 = ?

    (1) 78 (2) 98

    (3) 96 (4) 69

    34. If the following numbers are written in

    ascending order, the sum of the digits of middle

    number will be

    810, 912 , 910 , 809, 781, 673, 573

    (1) 9 (2) 12

    (3) 17 (4) 13

    35. How many 3s are there in the following figure

    series which are just preceded by 6 but not

    immediately followed by 7?

    3 2 3 7 4 3 5 6 3 7 4 6 3 8 9 6 3 5 1 8 3 7 2 4 2

    8 6 3 9 5

    (1) 1 (2) 2

    (3) 3 (4) 4

    iz'u : (28 ls 30)

    funZs'k : fuEufyf[kr izR;sd iz'u esa ,d dFku rRi'pkr~ nksfu"d"kZ I o II fn, x, gSA

    28. dFku  : izfrdwy ifjfLFkfr;k¡ O;fä dks cqf)eku  cukrh gSAfu"d"kZ  (I) : xjhc cqf)eku gksrs gSA  (II) : O;fä dVq vuqHko ls lh[krk gSA(1) dsoy fu"d"kZ I lR; gS(2) dsoy fu"d"kZ II lR; gS(3) nksuksa fu"d"kZ I vkSj IIlR; gSa(4) u rks fu"d"kZ I vkSj u gh fu"d"kZ II lR; gSa

    29. dFku  : HkkX; lkglh O;fä;ksa ds lkFk gksrk gSAfu"d"kZ  (I) : lQyrk ds fy, tks f[ke mBkuk vko';d gSA  (II) : dk;j viuh e R ;q ls   igys  dbZ  ckj ejrs  gS aA(1) dsoy fu"d"kZ I lR; gS(2) dsoy fu"d"kZ II lR; gS(3) nksuksa fu"d"kZ I vkSj IIlR; gSa(4) u rks fu"d"kZ I vkSj u gh fu"d"kZ II lR; gSa

    30. dFku  : lqcg Hkze.k LokLF; ds fy, ykHknk;d gSAfu"d"kZ  (I) : lHkh LoLFk O;fä lqcg Hkze.k ds fy, tkrsgSA  (II) : 'kke dk Hkze.k gkfudkjd gSA(1) dsoy fu"d"kZ I lR; gS(2) dsoy fu"d"kZ II lR; gS(3) nksuksa fu"d"kZ I vkSj IIlR; gSa(4) u rks fu"d"kZ I vkSj u gh fu"d"kZ II lR; gSa

    31. jses'k] eksgu dk firk gS rFkk ';ke] eksgu dk iq=k gSAjes'k o ';ke esa D;k lEca/k gSA

    (1) iq =k (2) HkkbZ(3) nknk (4) firk

    32. B,C dk firk gS fdUrq C,B dk iq=k ugha gSA Cdk Bls D;k lEca/k gS\(1) cgu (2) HkkbZ(3) iq =kh (4) Hkrhtk

    33. ;fn  23 52 = 48, gS] rks 43 35 = ?(1) 78 (2) 98(3) 96 (4) 69

    34. ;fn fuEufyf[kr la[;kvksa dks vkjksgh Øe esa fy[ktk,] rks e/; esa vkus okyh la[;k ds vadks a dk ;ksxgksxk810, 912 , 910 , 809, 781, 673, 573(1) 9 (2) 12(3) 17 (4) 13

    35. uhps nh x;h vadksa dh J a[kyk ds Øe esa ,sls fdrus 3gSa ftuds Bhd igys 6 gS ysfdu Bhd ckn esa 7ugha gSa?3 2 3 7 4 3 5 6 3 7 4 6 3 8 9 6 3 5 1 8 3 7 2 4 28 6 3 9 5(1) 1 (2) 2(3) 3 (4) 4

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    36. Which name will come at 3rd place in a tele-

    phone directory from the following given names

    ?

    (1) AMIT (2) AMINA

    (3) ALOK (4) ABHIMAN

    37. If 1st October is Sunday, then 1st November 

    will be

    (1) Monday (2) Tuesday

    (3) Wednesday (4) Thursday

    38. Which two months in a year have the same

    calendar ?

    (1) June, October 

    (2) April, November 

    (3) April, July

    (4) October, December 

    39. If the f irst day of a leap year is Monday, then

    what day will be on the last day of that year ?

    (1) Wednesday (2) Tuesday

    (3) Thursday (4) Sunday

    40. If 14th September, 2013 is Saturday, then what

    day will be 22nd December, 2014(1) Sunday (2) Monday

    (3) Tuesday (4) Wednesday

    Question (41 to 45)

    Direction : In questions 41 to 45 there are four figures

    given. One of these does not correlate with the

    rest of the figures. Find out that figure.

    41.

      (1) (2) (3) (4)

    42.

      (1) (2) (3) (4)

    43.

    x

    o

      (1) (2) (3) (4)

    44.

      (1) (2) (3) (4)

    36. fdlh VsfyQksu Mk;jsDVªh esa fuEufyf[kr ukeksa esa lsdkSu&lk uke rhljs uEcj ij vk;sxk\(1) AMIT (2) AMINA(3) ALOK (4) ABHIMAN

    37. ;fn 1vDVwcj dks jfookj gS] rks 1 uoEcj dks dkSu&lkokj gksxk\(1) lkseokj (2) eaxyokj(3) cq/kokj (4) xq:okj

    38. o"kZ esa ,sls dkSu&ls nks eghus gksrs gS ftudk dys.Mjleku gS\(1) twu, vDVwcj (2) vizSy] uoEcj(3) vizSy] tqykbZ (4) vDVwCkj] fnlEcj

    39. ;fn yhi o"kZ dk igyk fnu lkseokj gks] rks o"kZ dkvkf[kjh fnu dkSu&lk gksxk?(1) cq/kokj (2) eaxyokj(3) xq:okj (4) jfookj

    40. ;fn fnukad 14 flrEcj, 2013 dks 'kfuokj gS ] rks  22

    fnlEcj] 2014 dks dkSu&lk okj gksxk\(1) jfookj (2) lkseokj(3) eaxyokj (4) cq/kokj

    iz'u : (41 ls 45)

    funZs'k : iz'u 41 ls 45izR;sd esa pkj fp= k fn;s x;s gS mues a ls,d fp=k vU; fp=kksa ls esy ugha [kkrk gS A ml fp=kdks Kkr dhft,A

    41.

      (1) (2) (3) (4)

    42.

      (1) (2) (3) (4)

    43.

    x

    o

      (1) (2) (3) (4)

    44.

      (1) (2) (3) (4)

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    45.

      (1) (2) (3) (4)

    Questions (41 to 45)

    Direction : In questions 46 to 50 there are two sets of 

    figures. One set contains problem-figures while

    the other has answer-figures. There is a se-quence according to which the problem-figures

    are arranged. You have to select one figure from

    the set of answer-figures which can be placed

    in sequence after the set fo problem-figures.

    Find out the correct figure.

    46. Problem-Figures

      (1) (2) (3) (4)

     Answer-Figures

      (1) (2) (3) (4)

    47. Problem-Figures

      (1) (2) (3) (4)

     Answer-Figures

      (1) (2) (3) (4)

    48. Problem-Figures

      (1) (2) (3) (4)

    45.

      (1) (2) (3) (4)

    iz'u : (46 ls 50)

    funZs'k : iz'u 46 ls 50esa fp=kksa ds nks lewg gS] ftuesa ,d lewgleL;k&fp=k o nwljs dk mÙkj&fp=k dgrs gASA

    leL;k&fp=k ,d Øe esa ,d ds ckn ,d j[ks gq, gSAvkidks mÙkj&fp=kksa  es a ls  ,d ,sls  fp=k dk pq uko djukgS, tks leL;k fp=kksa esa Øekuqlkj vkxs tksM+k tk ldsA lgh mÙkj&fp=k dks Kkr dhft,A

    46. leL;k-fp=k

      (1) (2) (3) (4)

    mÙkj-fp=k

      (1) (2) (3) (4)

    47. leL;k-fp=k

      (1) (2) (3) (4)

    mÙkj-fp=k

      (1) (2) (3) (4)

    48. leL;k-fp=k

      (1) (2) (3) (4)

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     Answer-Figures

      (1) (2) (3) (4)

    49. Problem-Figures

    +

    P   T

    O P

    T   O

    +   T

    O +

    P O

    +

    T

    P

      (1) (2) (3) (4)

     Answer-Figures

    P

    O   T

    +   P   T

    O   +   T

    O+

    P

    O

    +

    T

    P

      (1) (2) (3) (4)

    50. Problem-Figures

      (1) (2) (3) (4)

     Answer-Figures

      (1) (2) (3) (4)

    mÙkj-fp=k

      (1) (2) (3) (4)

    49. leL;k-fp=k

    +

    P   T

    O P

    T   O

    +   T

    O +

    P O

    +

    T

    P

      (1) (2) (3) (4)

    mÙkj-fp=k

    P

    O   T

    +   P   T

    O   +   T

    O+

    P

    O

    +

    T

    P

      (1) (2) (3) (4)

    50. leL;k-fp=k

      (1) (2) (3) (4)

    mÙkj-fp=k

      (1) (2) (3) (4)

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    There are 40 questions in this paper. Each question carries 1 mark.

    1. Heat ...................... gas.

    (1) expands (2) expanded (3) expand (4) has expanded

    2. We reached the theatre after the film ............ .

    (1) started (2) starts (3) will start (4) had started

    3. It .......... since yesterday afternoon.(1) rained (2) rain (3) rains (4) has been raining

    4. I .......... to cinema last night.

    (1) go (2) went (3) am going (4) shall go

    5. While she .......... the milk boled over.

    (1) read (2) has read (3) reads (4) was reading

    6. I shall wait here untill you ............ ready.

    (1) would be (2) are (3) are not (4) will be

    7.  America ............ by columbus.

    (1) is discovered (2) will be discovered (3) was discovered (4) is being discovered

    8. Woollen clothes ............. in winter.(1) are worn (2) worn (3) wear (4) have been worn

    9. English ............. all over the world.

    (1) speak (2) was spoken (3) is spoken (4) has been spoken

    10. Smoking .......... here.

    (1) is prohibited (2) was prohibited (3) will be prohibited (4) prohibit

    11. The truck .......... at present.

    (1) will be loaded (2) a being loaded (3) is loaded (4) was loading

    12. ......... you close the window. please ?

    (1) Might (2) should (3) would (4) May

    13. This is a public place. You ............ park your car here.

    (1) must not (2) should not (3) cannot (4) need not

    14. Your sister does not like apples. You ............ send them.

    (1) must not (2) should not (3) cannot (4) need not

    15. You have done your work. You ........ go home.

    (1) will (2) could (3) may (4) must

    16. He has three buildings in Jaipur. He ............ be a rich man.

    (1) shall (2) should (3) must (4) can

    17. When I was a young man, I ............. run ten, miles.

    (1) should (2) could (3) can (4) might

    18. She said to me, “Wait here till I return,“ She ordered me .........

    (1) to wait there till she returned (2) that to wait there till I returned

    (3) to wait there till I return (4) to wait there till she returns

    19. She said to me “Are you unwell ?”

    She asked me ............... .

    (1) if I am unwell (2) if she was unwell (3) if was I unwell (4) if I was unwell

    RAJASTHAN_ NTSE-STAGE-I YEAR:2014) LANGUAGE

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    33. Your car and mine ...... both at the door.

    (1) are (2) is (3) was (4) have

    34. The police ......... arrested the thief.

    (1) have (2) has (3) is (4) were

    For Question number 35- 36, select the word that best expresses the meaning of the given

    word :

    35. Modest

    (1) boast (2) show (3) humble (4) Impolite

    36. Ruinous

    (1) fruitful (2) successful (3) lustrous (4) disastrous

    For Question number 37- 38, select the word which means the opposite of the given word :

    37. Vague

    (1) indistinct (2) clear (3) pleasant (4) profound

    38. Transparent

    (1) bright (2) big (3) colourless (4) opaque

    For Question number 39- 40, select the word meaning of the given phrasal verbs

    39. Make up for 

    (1) compensate (2) decorate (3) make someone quiet (4) fill up

    40. Set out

    (1) put something out (2) start a journey (3) execute (4) continue

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    1. xq#Rokd"kZ.k ds izHkko eas fLFkjkoLFkk ls fxjk dj Bksl /kjkry ls Vdjkdj iqu% mNy jgh oLrq dk osx≤ xzkQ gksxk

    (1)

    O  t

    (2)

    O   t

    (3)

    O  t (4)

    O  t

    The velocity-time graph of a body fall ing from rest under gravity and rebounding from a solid surface is

    represented by

    (1)

    O  t

    (2)

    O  t

    (3)

    O  t

    (4)

    O  t

    2. fuokZr esa 1 ehVj dh nwjh ij j[kh nks leku 1 fdxzk nzO;eku okyh nks oLrqvksa ds e/; dk;Zjr xq#Rokd"kZ.k cy gksxk(A) 'kw U; (2) 6.675 × 10 –11N (3) 13.350 × 10 –11 N (4) 3.337 × 10 –11 N.The gravitational force between two objects of mass 1 kg each, separated by a distance of 1 m in vacuum

    will be

    (A) zero (2) 6.675 × 10 –11N (3) 13.350 × 10 –11 N (4) 3.337 × 10 –11 N

    3. ,d m nzO;eku dh oLrq ij F cy dk;Z dj jgk gSA fp=k esa oLrq dk foLFkkiu )r (

     ,oa cy )F(

    dh fn'kk rhj ds }kjk

    nk;ha vksj iznf'kZr dh xbZ gSA cy }kjk fd;k x;k dk;Z gksxk

     F

    (1) /kukRed (2) _.kkRed (3) 'kwU; (4) /kukRed ;k _.kkRed

    The force F is acting on an object of mass m. The direction of displacement )r (

     and force )F(

     of the

    object is shown by an arrow to the right side. Work done by the force wil be

     F

    (1) positive (2) negative (3) zero (4) either positive or negative

    4. fn, x, ifjiFk fp=k eas /kkjk I rFkk oksYVrk V ds eku gksaxs

    V

    I

    12V+

     –

    (1) 2A, 4V (2) 4A, 2V (3) 1A, 2V (4) 2A, 1V

    RAJASTHAN_ NTSE-STAGE-I YEAR:2014) SAT

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    The value of current I and voltage V in the given circuit will be

    V

    I

    12V+

     –

    (1) 2A, 4V (2) 4A, 2V (3) 1A, 2V (4) 2A, 1V

    5. ysUt ds fu;e esa] ...................... ds laj{k.k fu;e dh ikyuk gksrh gSA(1) laosx (2) vkos'k (3) dks.kh; laosx (4) ÅtkZLenz's law is a consequence of the law of conservation of 

    (1) momentum (2) charge (3) angular momentum (4) energy

    6. Li"V izfr/ofu lquus ds fy, vojks/kd dh /ofu lzksr ls U;wure nwjh gksuh pkfg,¼fn;k gS] /ofu dk osx =344 m/s)(1) 17.2 m (2) 34.4 m (3) 172 m (4) 344 m

    For hearing distinct echoes, the minimum distance of the obstacle from the source of sound must be(Given velocity of sound = 344 m/s)

    (1) 17.2 m (2) 34.4 m (3) 172 m (4) 344 m

    7. rhu leku izfrjks/kdksa dks Js.kh Øe es a V oksYVrk ds lzksr ls tksM+us ij 5 W 'kfDr ákl gksrk gSA mUgha leku izfrjks/kdksadks lekUrj Øe eas V oksYVrk ds lzksr ls tksM+us ij 'kfDr ákl gksxkA(1) 20 W (2) 25 W (3) 40 W (4) 45 W

    Three equal resistors connected in series across a source of V voltage together dissipates 5 W power. If 

    the same resistors are connected in parallel across the same source of voltage V, the power dissipated

    will be

    (1) 20 W (2) 25 W (3) 40 W (4) 45 W

    8. izR;sd xeZ oLrq ls mRltZu gksrk gS(A) vojDr fdj.kksa dk (2) n '; fdj.kksa dk (3) X-fdj.kks a dk (4) ijkcS axuh fdj.kksa dkEvery hot object emits

    (1) infrared rays (2) visible rays (3) X-rays (4) ultraviolet rays

    9. ,d cUnwd ls fudyh 10 g dh xksyh 160 ms –1 ds osx ls {kSfrt fn'kk esa pyrh gqbZ ydM+h ds fLFkr CykWd ls VDdjdjds 0.02 s esa /k¡l dj fLFkj gks tkrh gSA CykWd esa xksyh }kjk fd, x, Nsn dh nwjh gksxh(1) 1.20 m (2) 1.60 m (3) 2.00 m (4) 2.40 m

     A bullet of mass 10 g travelling horizontally with a velocity of 160 ms –1 strikes a stationary wooden block

    and comes to rest in 0.02 s. The distance of penetration of the bullet into the block will be

    (1) 1.20 m (2) 1.60 m (3) 2.00 m (4) 2.40 m

    10. ysUl ds fy, u,  rFkk r esa lgh lEcU/k gksxk¼ladsrks ds ikjaifjd vFkZ gSa½

    (1) r =

     –u

    u2(2) r =

    ) –u(2

    u

    (3) r =u

    1(4)

    1 =

    u

    1 +

    1

    The correct relation between u,  and r for a lens will be(symbols represent traditional meaning)

    (1) r =

     –u

    u2(2) r =

    ) –u(2

    u

    (3) r =u

    1(4)

    1 =

    u

    1 +

    1

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    11. tc oLrq dks nzo esa Mqcks;k tkrk gS] rks mRIykod cy oLrq ij dk;Z djsxk(1) Å/okZ/kj uhps dh vksj (2) Å/okZ/kj Åij dh vksj (3) {kSfrt nk;ha vksj (4) {kSfrt ck;h vksj

    When a body is immersed in a liquid, the buoyant force that acts on the body will be

    (1) vertically downwards (2) vertically upwards

    (3) horizontally right side (4) horizontally left side

    12. vfHkn ';d ysUl ,oa vfHkus=k ysUl d e/; dh nwjh] [kxksyh; nwjn'k Zd ds fy, gk sxh

    (1)e

    0

     f  

     f  (2)

    0

    e

     f  

     f  (3) f  

    0 + f  

    e(4) f  

    0 – f  

    e

    The distance between the objective lens and the eye-piece of an astronomical telescope will be

    (1)e

    0

     f  

     f  (2)

    0

    e

     f  

     f  (3) f  

    0 + f  

    e(4) f  

    0 – f  

    e

    13. dsoy v/kkfRod rRoksa ls cuk yo.k gS(1) NaCl (2) NH

    4Cl (3) AlN (4) MgCl

    2

    Salt made of non-metallic elements only is

    (1) NaCl (2) NH4Cl (3) AlN (4) MgCl

    2

    14. xSl ,oa nzo fdl xq.k eas Bksl ls fHkUu gSa \(1) vk;ru (2) nzO;eku (3) pkydrk (4) rjyrkBy which property are gases and liquids different from solid ?

    (1) Volume (2) Mass (3) Conductivity (4) Fluidity

    15. lkcqu dh rSyh; eSy gVkus dh izfØ;k .................. ij vk/kkfjr gSA(1) ty esa foys;rk (2) ty jkxh xq.k(3) ty fojkxh xq.k (4) ty jkxh ,oa ty fojkxh] nksuksa lewgksa dh mifLFkfrThe action of cleaning of oily dirt by soap is based on

    (1) solubility in water (2) hydrophilic property

    (3) hydrophobic property (4) presence of both hydrophilic and hydrophobic groups

    16. lksfM;e ijek.kq ds ukfHkd esa ,d ,YQk d.k dk ;ksx djus ij mRikn gksxk

    (1) Na+ (2) Mg2+ (3) Al2+ (4) Al Adding an alpha particle to nucleu of sodium atom, product will be

    (1) Na+ (2) Mg2+ (3) Al2+ (4) Al

    17. csUthu esa lgla;kstd vkca/kksa dh la[;k gS(1) 6 (2) 9 (3) 12 (4) 15

    Benzene has .................. number of covalent bonds.

    (1) 6 (2) 9 (3) 12 (4) 15

    18. nwljs vkorZ ds rRoksa ds fy;s vlR; dFku gS(1) bysDVªkWuksa dh la[;k cny nsus ij vk;u curs gSa(2) mnklhu ijek.kq eas izksVkWuks a ,oa bysDVªkWuks dh la[;k leku gksrh gS(3) ijek.kq eas U;wVªkWuksa dh la[;k izksVkWuksa ls de gksrh gS(4) ijek.kq eas U;wVªkWuks a dh la[;k cnyus ij leLFkkfud curs gSaAFalse statement for second period elements is

    (1) change in number of electrons produces ions

    (2) numbers of protons and electrons are equal in neutral atom

    (3) number of neutrons is less than the number of protons in atoms

    (4) change in the number of neutrons in atom produces isotopes

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    19. dkSu&lh /kkrq ruq vEy ls gkbMªkstu foLFkkfir ugha dj ldrh \(1) Cu (2) Mg (3) Zn (4) Na

    Which metal cannot displace hydrogen from dijute acids ?

    (1) Cu (2) Mg (3) Zn (4) Na

    20. dejs ds rki ij nzo v/kkrq gS(1) dkcZu (2) czksfeu (3) edZjh (4) vk;ksMhu

     At room temperature liquid non-metal is

    (1) carbon (2) bromine (3) mercury (4) iodine

    21. U;wVªkWu jfgr mnklhu ijek.kq gS(1) H (2) He (3) Na (4) K

    Neutronless neutral atom is

    (1) H (2) He (3) Na (4) K

    22. foLFkkiu vfHkfØ;k gSS(1) CaO (s) + H

    2O(l)  Ca(OH)

    2 (aq)

    (2) Pb() + CuCl2(aq)  PbCl

    2(aq) + Cu(s)

    (3) MnO2() + 4HCl(l) MnCl

    2\(s) + 2H

    2O(l) + Cl

    2(g)

    (4) C6H

    12O

    6 + 6O

    2  6CO

    2 + H

    2O

    Diplacement reaction is

    (1) CaO (s) + H2O(l)  Ca(OH)

    2 (aq)

    (2) Pb() + CuCl2(aq)  PbCl2(aq) + Cu(s)(3) MnO

    2() + 4HCl(l) MnCl

    2\(s) + 2H

    2O(l) + Cl

    2(g)

    (4) C6H

    12O

    6 + 6O

    2  6CO

    2 + H

    2O

    23. lksMk&okVj dh pH gksrh gS(1) 7 (2) < 7 (3) > 7 (4) 0

    pH of soda water is

    (1) 7 (2) < 7 (3) > 7 (4) 0

    24. fo'o [kk|kUu mRiknu dk lokZf/kd Hkkx cukus okyh rhu Qlysa gSa(1) xsgw¡] pkoy vkSj eDdk (2) xsgw¡] pkoy vkSj tkS (3) xsgw¡] eDdk vkSj Tokj (4) pkoy] eDdk vkSj TokjThree crops that contribute maximum to global foodgrain production are

    (1) Wheat, Rice and Matze (2) Wheat, Rice and Barley(3) Wheat, Maize and Sorghum (4) Rice, Maize and Sorghum

    25. cs.Mk us dksf'kdkax ̂ ck;ksIykLV* dks vU; uke fn;k] og gS(1) DyksjksIykLV (2) ekbVksdkWf.Mª;k (3) jkbckslkse  (4) ykblkslkse Cell organelle 'Bioplast' was given another name by Benda, which is(1) Chloroplast (2) Mitochondria (3) Ribosome (4) Lysosome

    26. ikniksa esa ,Clhfld vEy fu;af=kr djrk gS(1) izjksg esa o f  ) (2) iq"i fuekZ.k (3) dksf'kdk foHkktu (4) iÙkh dk fxjukAIn plants abscisic acid controls(1) growth in shoot (2) flower formation (3) cell division (4) fall of leaf  

    27.

    fdlh rkjs esa ÅtkZ dk lzksr gS(1) ukfHkdh; fo[k.Mu fØ;k (2) ukfHkdh; lay;u fØ;k(3) lkSj ÅtkZ (4) thok'e bZ/kuAThe source of energy in any star is(1) Nuclear fission reaction (2) Nuclear fusion reaction(3) Solar energy (4) Fossil fuel

    28. fMLikstscy IykfLVd di dh vis{kk dkxt ds fMLikst scy di dk bLrseky vf/kd mi;ksxh gS] D;ksafd(1) ;g lLrk gS (2) ;g vklkuh ls miyC/k gS(3) bldk iqu% mi;ksx gks ldrk gS (4) bldk iqu% pØ.k ls i;kZoj.k ij dksbZ nq"izHkko ugha gksrkAThe use of disposable paper-cups is more beneficial over disposable plastic-cups, because(1) it is cheaper (2) it is easily available(3) it can be reused(4) its recycling process has no harmful impact on environment

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    29. vko rchft;ks a dk Hkz w.kiks/k gksrk gS(1) vxqf.kd (2) f}xqf.kr (3) f=kxqf.kr (4) cgqxqf.krAThe endosperm of angiosperms is(1) haploid (2) diploid (3) triploid (4) polyploid

    30. ^flLVsek uspqjh* uked iqLrd ds ys[kd gSa(1) ykekdZ (2) MkfoZu (3) fFk;ksÝsLVl (4) dsjksyl fyfu;lAThe author of the book 'Systema Naturae' is(1) Lamarck (2) Darwin (3) Theophrastus (4) Carolus Linnaeus

    31. fuEu esa ls fdl izkf.k esa laf/k;qDr iSj ugha ik;s tkrs gSa \(1) iSfyekWu (2) fcPNw  (3) eD[kh (4) tksad AIn which of the following animals joined legs are not found ?(1) Palaemon (2) Scorpion (3) Housefly (4) Leech.

    32. fuEu esa ls dkSu&lk ySafxd lapj.k ls lEcaf/kr jksx ugha gS \(1) flQfyl (2) xksuksfj;k (3) ,ythZ (4) ,M~lAWhich of the following diseases is not related with sexual transmission ?(1) Syphilis (2) Gonorrhoea (3) Allergy (4) AIDS.

    33. fuEu esa ls dkSu&ls ,Utkbe dk lEca/k izksVhu ikpu ls gS \(1) ykbist (2) isIlhu (3) lqØsu (4) ,ekbystAWhich of the following enzymes is related with digestion of protein ?(1) Lipase (2) Pepsin (3) Sucrase (4) Amylase

    34. vfLFk dks isf'k;ksa ls tksM+us okyh lajpuk dks dgrs gSa(1) d.Mjk (2) mikfLFk (3) Luk;q (4) ,fjvksyj ÅrdAThe structure that connects a bone with muscles is known as(1) Tendon (2) Cartilage (3) Ligament (4) Areolar tissue

    35. dksf'kdkax] tks dqN inkFkksZ dks dksf'kdk ds vUnj vFkok ckgj vkus&tkus nsrk gS] og gS(1) jkbckslkse  (2) IykTek f>Yyh (3) rkjd dk; (4) xkYth dk;ACell organelle that allows certain substances to enter or come out from the cell is(1) Ribosome (2) Plasma membrane (3) Centrosome (4) Golgi body

    36. ;fn x, y, z /kukRed okLrfod la[;k,¡ gSa vkSj a, b, c ifjes; la[;k,¡ gSa rc

    a –ca –b

    xx1

    1

     + b –cb –axx1

    1

    + c –ac –bxx1

    1

     dk eku gS

    (1) – 1 (2) 0 (3) 1 (4) buesa ls dksbZ ughaAIf x, y, z are positive real numbers and a, b, c are rational numbers, then the value of 

    a –ca –b xx1

    1

      + b –cb –a xx1

    1

    + c –ac –b xx1

    1

    is

    (1) – 1 (2) 0 (3) 1 (4) None of these

    37. ;fn la[;k a dk lcls NksVk vHkkT; xq.ku[k.M 3 gS vkSj la[;k b dk lcls NksVk vHkkT; xq.ku[k.M 7 gS] rc a + b dklcls NksVk vHkkT; xq.ku[k.M gS(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 5 (4) 10

    If 3 is the least prime factor of number a and 7 is the least prime factor of number b, then the least prime

    factor of a + b is

    (1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 5 (4) 10

    38. ;fn 9, a, b, – 6 lekUrj Js

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    40. ;fn sin  – cos  = 2   sin (90° – ) rc tan  =

    (1) 2   – 1 (2) 2 (3) 1 – 2 (4) 2  + 1

      If sin  – cos  = 2  sin (90° – ), then tan  =

    (1) 2   – 1 (2) 2 (3) 1 – 2 (4) 2  + 1

    41. ;fn a cos  – b sin  = c rc a sin  + b cos  =

    (1) 222 cba   (2) 222 c –ba   (3) 222 b –a –c (4) buesa ls dksbZ ughaA

    If a cos  – b sin  = c, then a sin  + b cos  =

    (1) 222 cba   (2) 222 c –ba   (3) 222 b –a –c (4) None of these

    42. 7m Å¡ps Hkou ds f'k[kj ls ,d dscy VkWoj ds f'k[kj dk mUu;u dks.k 60° gS vkSj blds ikn dk voueu dks.k 45°gSA VkWoj dh Å¡pkbZ ehVj esa gksxh

    (1) 7( 3 – 1) (2) 7 3 (3) 7 + 3 (4) 7( 3  + 1)

    From the top of a 7 m high building, the angle of elevation of the top of a cable tower is 60° and the angle

    of depression of its foot is 45°. The height of the tower in metre is

    (1) 7( 3 – 1) (2) 7 3 (3) 7 + 3 (4) 7( 3  + 1)

    43. ;fn lehdj.k fudk; kx + 3y – (k – 3) = 0, 12x + ky – k = 0 ds vifjfer :i ls vusd gy gksaxs] rc k =(1) 6 (2) – 6 (3) 0 (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha AIf the system of equations kx + 3y – (k – 3) = 0, 12 x + ky – k = 0 has infinitely many solutions, then k =

    (1) 6 (2) – 6 (3) 0 (4) None of these.

    44. izFke 12 vHkkT; la[;kvksa dh ekf/;dk gS(1) 13 (2) 14 (3) 15 (4) 17.

    The median of first 12 prime numbers is

    (1) 13 (2) 14 (3) 15 (4) 17.

    45. ,d ikls dks nks ckj Qsadk tkrk gSA fdlh Hkh ckj 5 ugha vkus dh izkf;drk gksxh

    (1)3635 (2)

    3625 (3)

    361 (4)

    3611

     A die is thrown twice. The probability that 5 will not come up either of the time is

    (1)36

    35(2)

    36

    25(3)

    36

    1(4)

    36

    11

    46. ;fn ,d xksys ds O;kl esa 25% dh deh gks tkrh gS rks mldk oØi " Bh; {ks=kQy fdrus izfr'kr de gksxk \(1) 43.75% (2) 21.88% (3) 50% (4) 25%

    If the diameter of a sphere is decreased by 25%, by what per cent does its curved surface area decrease

    ?

    (1) 43.75% (2) 21.88% (3) 50% (4) 25%

    47. vkÑfr es a] ,d o Ùk ij A, B, CvkSj Dpkj fcUnq gS aA ACvkSj BD ,d fcUnq E ij bl izdkj izfrPNsn djrs gS a fd BEC=125° rFkk ECD = 30° gSa] rks BAC =

     A D

    B C

    E

    30°125°

    (1) 95° (2) 110° (3) 85° (4) 105°

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    In figure, A, B, C and D are four point on a cirlcle. AC and BD intersect at a point E such thatBEC = 125°andECD = 30°. Then BAC =

     A D

    B C

    E

    30°125°

    (1) 95° (2) 110° (3) 85° (4) 105°

    48.  ABC vkSj BDE nks leckgq f=kHkqt bl izdkj gSa fd D Hkqtk BC dk e/; fcUnq gSA f=kHkqtksa ABC vkSj BDE ds {ks=kQyksadk vuqikr gS(1) 2 : 1 (2) 1 : 2 (3) 4 : 1 (4) 1 : 4

     ABC and BDE are two equilateral triangles such that D is the mid-point of BC. Ratio of the areas of 

    triangles ABC and BDE is

    (1) 2 : 1 (2) 1 : 2 (3) 4 : 1 (4) 1 : 4

    49.    ABC esa]  AB = 6 3 cm, AC = 12 cm vkSj BC = 6 cm gSaA dks.k B gS

    (1) 120° (2) 60° (3) 90° (4) 45°

    In  ABC, AB = 6 3 cm, AC = 12 cm and BC = 6 cm. The angle B is

    (1) 120° (2) 60° (3) 90° (4) 45°

    50. vkÑfr ea s] ABC f=kT;k 14 cm okys ,d o Ùk dk prq FkkZ a'k gS rFkk BCdks O;kl eku dj ,d v/kZo Ùk [khapk x;k gSA Nk;kafdrHkkx dk {ks=kQy gksxk

    B

     A C

    (1) 98 cm2 (2) 154 cm2 (3) 56 cm2 (4) buesa ls dksbZ ughaAIn figure, ABC is a quadrant of a circle of radius 14 cm and a semicircle is drawn with BC as diameter. The

    area of the shaded region is

    B

     A C(1) 98 cm2 (2) 154 cm2 (3) 56 cm2 (4) None of these

    51. ,d ?ku ds vk;ru dk vuqikr ml ,d xk sys ls tks ?ku ds vUnj iwjk&iwjk lek tkrk gS] gksxk(1) 6 : (2)  : 6 (3)  : 12 (4) 12 : The ratio of the volume of a cube to that of a sphere which exactly fits inside the cube is

    (1) 6 : (2)  : 6 (3)  : 12 (4) 12 :

    52. ;fn  ,  cgqin f(x) = x2 – p(x + 1) – c ds 'kwU;d gSa] rc ( + 1)( + 1) =(1) c – 1 (2) 1 – c (3) c (4) 1 + c

    If   ,  are the zeros of polynomial f(x) = x2 – p(x + 1) – c, then ( + 1)( + 1) =(1) c – 1 (2) 1 – c (3) c (4) 1 + c

    53. ,d f=kHkqt dk {ks=kQy 5 oxZ bdkbZ gSA mlds nks 'kh"kkasZ ds funsZ'kkad (2, 1) vkSj (3, – 2) gSaA rhljk 'kh"kZ y = x + 3 ijfLFkr gSA rhljk 'kh"kZ gS

    (1)  

      

     2

    3,

    2

    7(2)

     

      

     2

    3,

    2

    3 – (3)

     

      

     2

    13,

    2

    3 – (4)

     

      

     2

    5,

    2

    7

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    The area of a triangle is 5 square units. Two of its vertices are (2, 1) and (3 , – 2). The third vertex lies on

    y = x + 3. The third vertex is

    (1)  

      

     2

    3,

    2

    7(2)

     

      

     2

    3,

    2

    3 – (3)

     

      

     2

    13,

    2

    3 – (4)

     

      

     2

    5,

    2

    7

    54. vkÑfr esa ;fn QT  PR, TQR = 40° vkSj SPR = 30° gSa] rks y gS

    S  RQ

    P

    T

    90°

    30°

    40° y

    (1) 70° (2) 110° (3) 90° (4) 80°

    In figure, if QT  PR, TQR = 40° and SPR = 30°, then y is

    S  RQ

    P

    T

    90°

    30°

    40° y

    (1) 70° (2) 110° (3) 90° (4) 80°

    55. (1 + tan  + sec ) (1 + cot  – coses ) cjkcj gS(1) 0 (2) 2 (c) 1 (4) – 1

    (1 + tan  + sec ) (1 + cot  – coses ) is equal to

    (1) 0 (2) 2 (c) 1 (4) – 1

    56. Ýkal ds 1791 d lafo/kku ds ckn iq#"kksa o efgykvksa usvius i Fkd&i Fkd Dyc cuk;s ftuesa lokZf/kd lQy Fkk(1) fycVhZ Dyc (2) tksyojhu la?k (3) tSdksfcu Dyc (4) lekurk eapAThe club which was most successful constituted by th men and women of France, after the Constitutionof 

    1791 was

    (1) Liberty club (2) Zollverein (3) Jacobin club (4) Equality club

    57. Ýkal dh ØkfUr ls mits fopkjksa ls izHkkfor egku Hkkjrh; Fks(1) gSnj vyh o Vhiw lqYrku (2) Vhiw lqYrku o jktk jkeeksgu jk;(3) ykyk yktir jk; o fryd (4) cgknwj 'kkg tQj o y{ehckbZ AThe great Indians who were influenced by the thoughts of French Revolution were

    (1) Haider Ali & Tipu Sultan (2) Tipu Sultan & Raja Rammohan Roy

    (3) Lala Lajpat Rai & Tilak (4) Bahadur Shah Jafar & Laxmibai

    58. 1850 ds n'kd esa Hkkjrh; jsy ds izlkj ds fy, ydM+h dk iz;ksx gksrk Fkk(1) Hkouksa eas (2) fMCcksa esa (3) QuhZpj esa (4) Lyhijksa esaThe use of wood was much needed in 1850s to spread the Indian Railway tracks. It was used

    (1) in Buildings (2) in Railway wagons (3) in Furniture (4) in Sleepers

    59. fgekpy izns'k ds pjokgk leqnk; dks dgk tkrk gS(1) xqTtj (2) xíh (3) cdjoky (4) HkksfV;kAThe shepherds of Himachal Pradesh are called

    (1) Gujjar (2) Gaddi (3) Bakarwal (4) Bhotia

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    60. Hkkjr esa fØdsV dh 'kq:vkr dk Js; ftl leqnk; dks gS og gS(1) ikjlh (2) bZlkbZ (3) ejkBh (4) caxkyh AThe first Indian community to start playing the game of Cricket was

    (1) Parsee (2) Christian (3) Marathi (4) Bengalee.

    61. Hkkjr dh laln dh rjg Ýkal dh ØkfUr ds ckn tks laLFkk cuh og Fkh(1) M;w ek (2) tksyojhu (3) gkÅl vkWQ ykM~Zl (4) us'kuy vlsEcyh AThe institution like Indian Parliament that was established after the French Revolution in France was

    (1) Duma (2) Zollverein (3) House of Lords (4) National Assembly

    62. fo;ruke esa ̂ gksvk gkvks* vkUnksyuds laLFkkid Fks(1) dU¶;w fl;l (2) ykvksRls (3) gqbUg Qks lks (4) fy;kax fdpkvksAThe founder of 'Hoa Hao' movement in Vietnam was

    (1) Confucius (2) Laotse (3) Huynh Pho So (4) Liang Qichao

    63. ftl lEesyu esa vUrjjk"Vªh; eqnz k dks"k ,oa fo'o cSad dh LFkkiuk dh xbZ og gS(1) cz  qlsYl (2) czsVu oqM~l (3) fo;uk (4) okf'kaxVu AIn which Conference were international Monetary Fund and World Bank established ?

    (1) Brussels (2) Bretton Woods (3) Vienna (4) Washington

    64. l=kgoha 'krkCnh esa cEcbZ ftrus Vkiqvksa dk lewg Fkk mudh la[;k gS(1) lkr (2) ukS (3) X;kjg (4) ik¡p ABombay was a group of how many islands in 17th Century ?

    (1) Seven (2) Nine (3) Eleven (4)