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    Counseling and Stress Management

    1.The non-spear ticresponse of the body to any demand made upon it is called asa) Tension b) Fear c) Stress d) None of these (b)

    2.Brain responds neutrally to internal and external demands this is calleda) Stress b) Ne stress c) Easters d) Non-Disorders (b)

    3.Brain responds to internal and external demands and the ara isal is too high or too low.This is called

    a) Neustress b) Eustress c) Distress d) None of these (c)

    4.Positive stress helps us to respond quickly and forcefully in physical emergencies. This iscalled

    a) Eustress b) Distress c) Nusterss d) None of these (a)

    5.Poor concentration is a symptom ofa) Neustress b) Distress c) Eustress d) None of these (b)

    6.A Process of living at ones highest possible level as a whole person and promoting thesame for others is called

    a) Living b) Stress full living c) Wellness d) None of these (c)

    7.ANS denotesa) Anti Nero stress b) Autonomic Nervous System c) Auto Nerve Status

    d) None of these (b)

    8.The bodys surveillance system, guarding against allergens, infection, cancer, viruses andbacteria, is called.

    a) Bodys nervous system b) Sympathetic Nervous system c) The immune system

    d) None of these (c)

    9.The human organism , like other animals, possesses a strong and persistent drive towardequilibrate is called

    a) Sympathetic Nervous system b) Autonomic Nervous system

    c) Para Sympathetic Nervous system d) Homeostatic (d)

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    10. ___________________ is the arousal stimuralated by an expected stressor.

    a) Stress b) Anticipatory Stress c) Physical Stress d) Psychological Stress (b)

    11. ___________________ is arousal during an experience.

    a) Stress b) Current Stress c) Anticipatory Stress d) None of these (b)

    12. ___________________ is arousal after an experience has passed.

    a) Residual Stress b) Post Stress c) Stress d) None of these (a)

    13. A distress emotion, may be apparent as mild irritation, hostility, or intense aggressiveness

    is called.

    a) Anxiety b) Dipression c) Nurosis d) Anger (d)14. A distress emotion, involves a mild to severe feeling of apprehension about some

    perceived threat is called.

    a) Dipression b) Anxiety c) Fear d) None of these (c)

    15. Lack of concentration, poor memory, confusion etc are the symptoms of

    a) Cognative Distress b) Emothinet c) Behavioral Distress d) None of these (a)

    16. High Blood Pressure is a disorder called specifically.

    a) Stress related b) Cardiovascular disorder c) Psychosomatic d) None of these (b)

    17. _____________________ headache is a painful condition associated with alternatingconstriction and dilation of cerebral arteries that supply blood to the brain.

    a) Migraine b) Tension c) Stress d) None of these (a)

    18. _____________________ headaches differ from migraines in that pain canes from tense

    muscles rather than from constricting and dieting of blood vessels.

    a) Tension b) Anxiety c) Stress d) Depression (a)

    19. Most common stressrelated maladies are peptic ulcers in stomach. They are called

    a) Stress disorder b) Gastro intestinal disorder c) Cardiovascular disorder

    d) None of these (b)

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    20. Inability to fall asleep and inability to sleep through the night is called.

    a) Dyspepsia b) Migraine c) Depression d) Insomnia (d)

    21. _____________ personality pattern is characterized by a never ending struggle to

    accomplish, produce and get more things done than time permits and by a generalizedorientation of impatience, irritability and anger expression.

    a) Type A b) Type B c) Type C d) Type E (a)

    22. ______________________ is concern taken to overconcern, usually including excessive

    rumination.

    a) Anxiety b) Depression c) Fear d) Worry (d)

    23. ______________________ is a personality pattern including belief in the basic goodness

    of humans and that most people will be fair and kind in their relationships.

    a) Type A b) Type B c) The trusting heart d) Type E ( )

    24. GAS denotes

    a) Gastro Acquired System b) General Adaptation Syndrome

    c) Good Autonomic System d) None of these (b)

    25. The personality of ________________ is a peak performer under pressure.

    a) Type A b) Type B c) Type C d) Type D (c)

    26. Constantly changing cognitive and behavioral efforts to manage specific external and /orinternal demands that are appraised as taxing or exceeding the resources of the person is

    called

    a) Manipulating b) Coping with Stress c) Adjusting Stress Levels d) Reducing Stress (b)

    27. __________________ is any form of activity in which the heart rate is elevated substantially

    above rusting level in response to sustained movement by large muscle groups and in which

    higher amounts of oxygen are used to produce energy.

    a) Physical Exercise b) Yoga Posture c) Aerobic Exercise d) None of these (c)

    28. __________________ is an activity without oxygen, such as summing under water.

    a) Aerobic Exercise b) Anaerobic Exercise c) Standing d) Dancing (b

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    29. Your interpretation of stressors, not stressors than selves, cause distress. Thoughts cause

    feelings. You can control your interpretation of stressors. This is referred to your__________

    a) Self Talk b) Self Esteem c) Self Concept d) None of these (b

    30. Self liking or selfacceptance is the result of positive self talk about the self. This is

    called __________________

    a) Self Talk b) Self Esteem c) Self Concept d) None of these (b

    31. Life is without inherent meaning; to be optimally well, you must invest it with meaning and

    purpose. The most fulfilling insights on meaning and purpose are discovered, not revealed.

    The search for meaning and purpose never ends, untill you do. This refers to

    ___________in stress management.

    a) Yoga b) Meditation c) Exercise d) Spirituality (

    32. ________________ is a practice of sitting or reclining comfortably and quietly with eyes

    closed for 10 to 20 minutes once or twice a day and using a repeated mental faces to quiet themind, there by quieting the body.

    a) Yoga b) Breathing Exercise c) Meditation d) Aerobic Exercise (c

    33. _________________ is also called mental imagery, guided day dreaming that reducesrational mental activity and endues deep quiet.

    a) Exercise b) Relaxation c) Visualization d) None of these (c)

    34. _____________ is a condition of deep mental and physical quiet, induced by the hypnoticsuggestion of a trained person who uses key words and images to elicit the desired internal

    change.

    a) Hypnosis b) Visualization c) Meditation d) None of these (a)

    35. PMR is called

    a) Post Muscle Rolling b) Progressive Muscle Relaxation c) Pandemic Memory Loss

    d) None of these (b)

    36. Softest of the martial arts; an ancient discipline originating from china is called.

    a) Karate b) Kungfu c) Tai chi d) None of these (c)

    37. The term in Sanskrit which denotes union of mind, body and soul is called

    a) Yoga b) Pranayama c) meditation d) Exercise (a)

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    38. The process of revealing authentic, personal thoughts and feelings to others, is to allow

    oneself to be seen, known, and understood is called

    a) Self esteem b) Self concept c) Self Disclosure d) None of these (c)

    39. Helpful arousal, some as positive stress is called

    a) Eustress b) Distress c) Neustress d) None of these (a)

    40. A blueprint for living, usually developed during child hood as a result of early messages from

    significant others and early decisions by self is called

    a) Life script b) Self concept c) Self Esteem d) Self Talk (a

    41. Part of autonomic narrows system, which regulates the relaxation response of the body is

    called

    a) Parasympathetic nervous system b) Sympathetic nervous systems c) Lymbic system

    d) None of these (a)

    42. Breathing cycle has two phases 1.Iahalation and 2._______________

    a) Exhalation b) Inhalation c) Breathing d) None of these (a)

    43. Diaphragmatic is also called

    a) Lung breathing b) Chest breathing c) Abdominal breathing d)None of these (c)

    44. During Aerobic and anaerobic exercises, food broken down to a high energy molecule calledATP. ATP means.

    a) Astro therapy protinule b) Adenosine Triphospate c) Adrenalin Transfer process

    d) None of these (b)

    45. Mental in agency involves ___________ thoughts that become __________ thoughts in the

    effort to heal or make whole.

    a) Unconscious b) Conscious, Unconscious c) Emply, full d) None of these (a)

    46. Mental imagery is also called __________________

    a) Visualization b) Yoga c) Meditation d) None of these (a)

    47. Slowly tense a muscle group then relaxes that grooms is one of the relaxation techniques.

    What is this technique?

    a) PMR b) Yoga c) Visualization d) Mental (a)

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    48. Which one is not a relaxation technique?

    a) Music b) Hypnosis c) Exercise d) Smoking (d)

    49. Repeating a sacred name or phrase is in _____________ technique

    a) Meditation b) Visualization c) Exercise d) None of these (d)

    50. During __________ technique you focus on movement and breathing

    a) Yoga b) Exercise c) Tai chi d) None of these (c

    51. ___________________ was an untrained physician who theorized PMR technique

    a) Alfred Noble b) Edmund Jacobson c) Alexander Fleming d)Herald Milton (b

    52. GSR means

    a) Galvanic skin response b) Greater Stress Response c) Gland Stress Response

    d) None of these (a)

    53. ____________________ words by helping to restore a better balance of waves in various

    parts of the brain

    a) Nero feedback b) Meditation c) Yoga d) Exercise (a

    54. The brain produces fast __________________ waves when the person is actively mentallyinvolved is a pang ragebused task.

    a) Alpha b) Beta c) Gamma d) Theta (b

    55. The brain produces slower ______________ waves when involved in an image basedprocessing task, like a video game.

    a) Alpha b) Beta c) Theta d) gamma (

    56. Yoga is a combination of exercise, Breathing and ___________

    a) Meditation b) PMR c) Aerobic exercise d) None of these (a

    57. Elective counseling centers round ________________

    a) Counselor b) Client c) Doctor d) None of these (b

    58. In counseling intervention means _________________

    a) Diagnosis b) Treatment c) Plan d) None of these (b

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    59. In GAS the three stapes are alarm stapes, Resistance stayed, & ___________

    a) Fatigue b) Fearful c) Exams ion d) None of these (c

    60. Comscelling can be either ______________ and ___________.

    a) Aggressive & Passive b) Normal & Abnormal c) Directive & Non Directive

    d) None of these (c

    61. In directive counselling who will dominate

    a) Counsellor b) Client c) Attendant d) None of these (b

    62. In non-directive counselling the focus of attention would be an

    a) Counsellor b) Client c) Attendant d) None of these (b

    63. The __________________ is age metric figure that delineates the nine basic personalitytypes of human nature and complex interrelationships.

    a) Enneagram b) Matrix c) Cardiogram d) None of these (a

    64. PTSD means

    a) Progressive Task Stress Diagnosis b) Posttraumic Stress Disorder c) Planned

    Tail rant Stress Development d) None of these (b

    65. ________________ coined the term stress in 1940

    a) Peter Singe b) Tom Peters c) Hans Salve d) Karl Lewis (c

    66. In stress F or F response indicate

    a) Full or Fear full b) Fight or Flight c) Fixed or Flexible d) None of these (b

    67. In sleep REM means.

    a) Robust Eye Motion b) Rapid Eye Movement c) Reflexive Eye Management

    d) Nova of these (b

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    68. In cam selling RET is called

    a) Rational Emotive Therapy b) Rapid Eye Therapy c) Rolling Emotional

    Tolerance d) None of these (

    69. In com selling CBT means

    a) Cognative Behaviors Therapy b) Casual Basic Tool c) Complex Butter Technique

    d) None of these

    70. Mind stilling is a form of

    a) Yoga Posture b) Breathing Exercise c) Meditation d) None of these (

    80. Stress or arouses ANS which means

    a) Autonomic Nervous System b) Absolute Nero System c) Amplified neck

    Syndrome d) None of these

    81. In alarm reaction, activitution of adrenal pituitary cortex relapses a ___________ hormone

    a) E-Hormone b) Polyphone c) ACTH d) None of these

    82. A process organized is a series of steps, which aims to help people cope (deal with or adopt

    to) better with situations they are facing is called

    a) Stress Management b) Guidance c) Counselling d) None of these

    83. A _________________ is a subconscious life span made by a child. Once this plan is made,

    it influences the whole of that persons life.

    a) Self Concept b) Self Esteem c) Life Script d) None of these

    84. I am okyou are ok is a

    a) Life Position b) Life Script c) Life Event d) None of these

    85. Some common symptoms of stress include a sense of inner emptiness, life having nomeaning, a bleak future etc. are ________________.

    a) Cog native b) Altercative c) Behavioral d) Spiritual

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    86. _________________ is a term to describe the bodys physiological reaction to perceived

    stressors suggesting that the stress response is a mindbody phenomenon.

    a) Psychophysiology b) Physiology c) Psychology d) None of these

    87. In human brain emotional thought processing is done in ____________________.

    a) Neocortex b) ANS c) Restrictive d) None of these

    89. ___________________ Behavioral in exertions target both thought and behavior forchange.

    a) Cog native b) Altercative c) Restrictive d) None of these

    97. Or thoughts, feelings, actions, memories and imaginations are the result of what happens in

    our ______________ in the brain.

    a) Thalamus b) Cerebral Cortex c) Synapses d) None of these

    98. __________________ waves are produced is the brain stem and the cerebral cortex

    a) Alpha b) Beta c) Theta d) Gamma

    99. REM sleep means

    a) Rapid Ear Movement b) Rapid Eye Movement c) Rough Emotion Mix

    d) None of these

    100. ____________________ is a persistent inability to fall asleep or stay asleep.

    a) Anxiety b) Fear c) Lack of Concentration d) Insomnia.

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    Brand Management

    1. Name, symbol, design or some combination which identifies the product of a particular

    organization is called

    a) Brand b) Trade mark c) Label d) None of these

    2. Association of a particular brand in a consumers mind is called

    a) Loyalty b) Brand Image c) Brand Extension d) None of these 3. _________________ draw their from their ability to subtly shift consumer attention from

    product to Image and negotiates with customers on intangible yet important dimensions.

    a) Loyal Brands b) Good Brands c) Power Brands d) None of these

    4. USP means

    a) Ultra Seale Proposition b) Under Segment Positioning

    c) Under Selling Proposition d) None of these

    5. The act of designing the companys offering; an image to occupy a distinct place in mine of

    the consumer is called

    a) Branding b) Positioning c) Selling d) Promoting 6. In band positioning POP means:

    a) Points of Parity b) Point of Purchase c) Product on Priority d) None of these

    7. In brand Positioning POD means:

    a) Point of Dispatch b) Pricing over Dominance c) Points of Difference

    d) None of these

    8. The act of the consumers comparison between the expectations and actual per furnace of

    the product or brand is called.

    a) Post purchase behavior b) Cognitive c) Product companion d) None of

    these

    9. The additional cash flow achieved by associating a brand with the underlying product or

    service is called

    a) Brand Loyalty b) Brand Image c) Brand Building d) Brand Equity

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    10. Brand portfolio means

    a) Number of Brands the company sells b) Number of Loyal branch the company sells

    c) Single brand the company sells d) None of these

    11. In brand identify of Horlickss, Nutrition and health is called

    a) Outer Core b) Inner Core c) Benefit d) None of these

    12. The ability of the Consumers to identify the brand elements is

    a) Brand Indentify b) Brand Loyalty c) Brand Recognition d) None of these

    13. The ability of the consumer to retrieve the brand its elements from his memory is called

    a) Brand Recognition b) Brand identify c) Brand Recall d) None of these

    14. Brand involves effecting a change in what brand stand for. The intention is to distance the

    brand stand from its existing associations and attach a new set of associations. This is called

    a) Brand Repositioning b) Brand Modification c) Brand Recall d) None of these

    15. LG Computer Monitors, Air conditioners, Washing Machines, Mobile Phones is an example

    of

    a) Brand Extension b) Brand Inclusion c) Brand Continuation d) None of these

    16. Certain brands are designed to solve the functional problems or provide functional

    sabzpaction

    Ex: Peposodert: Fights germs that cause dental problems. These brands are called.

    a) Functional Brands b) Symbolic brands c) Experiential brands d) None of these

    17. Some brands cater to symbolic or psychological needs.

    Ex: Raymond: The complete Man.

    a) Functional Brands b) Symbolic brands c) Experiential brands d) None of these 18. Brands that are designed to provide sensory pleasures and cognitive stimulation, are called

    a) Symbolic brands b) Functional Brands c) Experiential brands d) None of these

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    19. Zoo Zoo is associated with a mobile phone company

    a) Nokia b) Samsung c) Hutch d) Vodafone

    20. Vivid soaps is the brand from

    a) ITC b) Tata c) HUL d) Colgate Palmolive

    30. One brand all products is an example of

    a) Individual Branding b) Umbrella Branding c) Distinctive Branding

    d) None of these

    31. One product one brand is an example of

    a) Family branding b) Unique branding c) Individual branding d) None of these

    32. Brand strategy combines the firms name with the product brand name.

    Ex: Maruthi 800. This strategy is called

    a) Source/Double Branding b) Individual branding c) Company brandingd) None of these

    33. Brand strategy which makes the proud of brand name more significant and corporate brand

    name is relegated to a leessor

    a) Individuate Branding b) Family Branding c) Company branding

    d) Endorsement Branding

    34. Express yourself is a positioning toy line of a mobile company

    a) Air Tel b) Nokia c) Reliance d) Uninar

    35. Vatika rang of shampoos belong to

    a) HUL b) ITC c) Dabur d) None of these

    36. Daburs flagship beverages brand.

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    a) Fanta b) Gold spot c) Slice d) Real

    37. Daburs one of the aggressive products launches in the category of Ayurvedic Skin care

    cream

    a) Aveda b) Fem c) Fair & Lovely d) Ponds

    38. Decline of sales of the existing brand due to the downbeat effect of the companys new

    product is called.

    a) Cannibalization b) Product Dropart c) Obsolescence d) None of these

    39. A Process of associating and positioning the brand on the basis of gender for creating

    differentiation in the market place

    a) Brand positioning b) Brand rejuvenation c) Brand Gendering d) None of these

    40. __________________ is based on has consumers project their life styles through the

    purchase and utilization of products/brands that offer them functional, emotional and self

    expressive benefits that are imperative to them.

    a) Corporate Branding b) Life style Branding c) Sub Branding d) None of these

    41. _____________________ is the revival or prelaunch of a product or service brand from aprior historical period, which is usually but not always up dated to contemporary standards

    of performance, functioning, or faste.

    a) Power Branding b) Umbrella Branding c) New Branding d) Retro Branding

    42. Emotional values of the brand is called

    a) Branded Essence b) Brand Loyalty c) Brand Vision d) None of these (a)

    43. A boy weakest up to the alarm set on his Titan watch. He quickly hears on outfit which he

    purchased from Westside, sprinkles TATA salt on his breakfast meal, he then sips some

    TATA tea. Later he uses his TATA phone to talk to people, wears TATA foot wear, and

    drives a TATA Car. The strong continues fill he switches of TATA BP so lar light to retire

    for the days. This is an example of

    a) Brand Extension b) Bran Depth c) Brand Architecture d) None of these

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    44. Thanda matlab __________________

    a) Fanta b) Cocacola c) Limca d) Minute Maid

    45. Neighbors Envy, owners pride is the punch line of

    a) Onida TV b) Samsung c) LG d) Videocon

    46. Food, Friends and ________________

    a) Lux b) Lima c) Thumps up d) Fanta

    47. Name the Car brand that is likely to out of manufacture due to environmental concerns

    a) Tata Nio b) Maruthi 800 c) Benz d) BMW

    48. ___________________ is the process of placing a image of being a great place to work in

    the mind of the targeted candidate pool.

    a) Employer/Employment Branding b) Employee Branding c) Job Branding

    d) None of these

    49. A brand becomes ___________ because of its long term association with the consumers and

    its emotional appeal that is conveyed to consumers.

    a) Mortal b) Immortal c) Important d) None of these

    50. _______________________ makes brand immortal

    a) Competitor b) Consumer c) Company d) None of these

    51. ________________________ is related to terms of integrity, trustworthiness and honesty in

    relation to brands

    a) Brand Loyalty b) Brand Character c) Brand Resonance d) None of these

    52. ______________________ is related to have brand is perceived currently by the consumers.

    a) Brand Essence b) Brand Image c) Brand personates d) None of these

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    53. Fastback is a brand of

    a) Citizen b) Titan c) HMT d) None of these

    54. BSA Lady Bird is the brand is ____________ category

    a) Scooters b) Bicycles c) Motorcycles d) None of these

    55. Minute Maid is a brand from

    a) Tata b) Parle c) ITC d) HUL

    56. ____________________ means that an ingredient or component used as an input in the

    brand enjoys a special brand indentifies and transfers the same to the host brand.

    a) Cobrand b) Sub Brand c) power Brand d) Ingredient Brand

    57. Diet coke is a sugar free beverage from

    a) Cocacola b) Parle c) Pepsi d) None of these

    58. Surf brand of HUL is a

    a) Loyal Brand b) Power Brand c) Old Brand d) None of these

    59. Zig Zag tooth Brush is a brand of

    a) HUL b) Colgate c) P & G d) None of these

    60. Leading Brand is oral care products

    a) HUL b) Colgate c) P & G d) None of these (b)

    61. The advertising agency which has created a new brand endorser zoo zoo for Vodafone

    a) Ogilvy and Mather b) Alka c) Mudra Communications d) None of these

    62. ___________________ ad film maker, Nirvana films has directed the zoo zoo commercials.

    a) Prakash Varma b) Konika Rao c) Christopher Dolly d) None of these

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    63. Another name for celebrity advertising is

    a) Brand Ambassadors b) Positioning advocates c) Spokes persons

    d) None of these

    64. _________________ is characterized by strong connections between the consumer and the

    brand

    a) Brand Positioning b) Brand Loyalty c) Brand Resonance d) None of these

    65. _________________ is the foundation for creating and fostering the desired knowledge and

    perceptions of your customers.

    a) Brand Positioning b) Brand Loyalty c) Brand Extrusion d) None of these

    66. __________________ is called the advantage of delivering superior value in the market

    place for a prolonged period of time.

    a) Sustainable Competitive Advantage b) Unique Selling Proposition

    c) Brand Power d) None of these

    67. The Power brand in internet search engines.

    a) Google b) MSN c) Explorer d) None of these

    68. BRANDZ is a model in

    a) Brand Loyalty b) Brand Resonance c) Brand Equity d) None of these

    69. __________________ access health of brand, uncover sources of brand equity, and ways to

    improve.

    a) Brand Positioning b) Brand Audit c) Brand Loyalty d) None of these

    70. __________________ is the base line information about brands and marketing information.

    a) Brand Audit b)brand Tracking c) Brand Positioning d) Brand Loyalty

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    71. ___________________ is the estimation of total financial value of the brand

    a) Brand Valuation b) Brand Audit c) Brand Loyalty d) None of these

    72. __________________ occurs when consumers no longer associate a brand with a specific

    product or highly similar products and start thinking less of the brand

    a) Brand Rejuvenation b) Brand Dilution c) Brand Equity d) None of these

    73. ___________________ set of all brands and brand lines a particular form offers for sale in a

    particular category or market segment.

    a) Brand Line b) Parent Brand c) Brand Portfolio d) Brand extension

    74. ______________ set of all brand lines made available to buyers

    a) Brand Line b) Brand Mix c) Brand Variants d) None of these

    75. _______________ are designed to solve functional problems or provide functional

    satisfaction.

    a) Functional Brands b) Fashion Brands c) Family Brands d) Sub Brands

    76. Nirma Detergent powder and detergent bar is an example of

    a) Image Related Extension b) Line Extension c) Unrelated Extension

    d) None of these

    77. Dettol antiseptic liquid to soap is an example of

    a) Image Related Extension b) Line Extension c) Category Related Extension

    d) None of these

    78. Colgate Dental Cream to Colgate Gel is an expansion of

    a) Category Related Extension b) Product Related Extension

    c) Line Extension d) None of these

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    79. Khaitan Kitchen Fan positioning statement reads Are you cooking or Are boyar being

    cooked in the kitchen targeting the house wives. Which appeal the advertiser uses?

    a) Rational Appeal b) Positive Emotional Appeal c) Nephrite Emotional Appeal

    d) Moral Appeal

    80. The fact of being whom or what a person or thing is; the characterizations deterring

    this is called

    a) Brand Loyalty b) Brand Positioning c) Brand Inanity d) None of these

    81. ___________________ of a branding strategy concerns the number and nature of different

    products linked to the brand sold by a firm.

    a) The depth b) The Length c) The Breadth d) None of these

    82. _________________ of a branding strategy concerns the member and natures of different

    brands marketed in the product class sold by affirm.

    a) The depth b) The Breadth c) The Length d) None to these

    83. __________________ is a means of summarizing the branding strategy by displaying the

    number and nature of common and distinctive brand elements across the firms products,revealing the explicit ordering of brand elements.

    a) Brand Loyalty b) Brand Positioning c) Brand Hierarchy d) None of these

    84. ___________________ has been defined as a once popular brand with diminished equity that

    a parent company allows to decline by withdrawing marketing support

    a) A power Brand b) A Retired Brand c) A Sick Brand d) An orphan Brand

    85. Think Local. Act local is a new global marketing mantra of

    a) Sony b) Panasonic c) HLL d) Cocacola

    86.___________________ is concerned with memo rabidity of messages and images and the

    ease with which customers can recall the brand

    a) Brand Salience b) Brand Positioning c) Brand Loyalty d) Brand Equity

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    87. _______________ is concerned with establishing a oneasone relationship with the target

    segment

    a) Brand Salience b) Brand Positioning c) Brand Loyalty d) Brand Resonance

    88. In Brand Management CTM means

    a) Customer Touchpoint Management b) Customer Target Mix

    c) Cautions Target Market d) None of these

    89. Garnier brand is in the product Line of

    a) Godrej b) P & G c) HUL d) LOreal

    90. VIP Luggage brand is the life style brand of

    a) Godrej b) Blow plast c) VIP Industries Ltd d) None of these

    91. Branding is called ____________________ Activity is canceling & Promotion terminology

    a) Above the line b) Below the line c) On the line d) None of these

    92. Titan Brand is from the group of

    a) Reliance - b) Tata c) Bajaj d) None of these b)

    93. In India top brands are traditionally FMCG companies. FMCG means.

    a) Fantastic Market Connected Group b) Forced Meta Consumer Group

    c) Fast Moving Consumer Goods d) None of these

    94. The translation of the brand strategy into language that clearly communicate the brands

    essenceName development, nomenclature systems, the tone and style of internal and external

    communications is called

    a) Vocal Branding Brand Positioning c) Brand Identity d) Verbal Branding

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    95. A brand that has legal protection, it is capable of exclusive appropriation.

    a) Brand b) Trade Mark c) Brand Mark d) None of these

    96. In which branding strategy, the retailer is in direct link the manufacturer.

    a) Independent Branding b) Contract Branding

    c) Integrated Branding d) None of these

    97. Shoppers stop is an example of

    a) Branding b) Ingredient Branding c) Retail Branding d) None of these

    98. Brand Rejuvenation should start at __________________ stage in brand life cycle

    a) Introduction b) Growth c) Maturity d) Saturation.

    99. Brand Management decisions fall in the category of

    a) Product Decisions b) Pricing Decision c) Place Decision

    d) Promotion Decision (a)

    100. In Brand resonance CRM means

    a) Core Restorative Marketing b) Cognitive Resource Marketing

    c) Customer Relationship Management d) None of these